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CBSE BOARD Objective Questions Exam 2019-2020
CLASS : 10th
SUB : Social Science
Unit 4 : India and Contemporaray World - II
For 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise
CHAPTER 1.1
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The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
9. Treaty of Constantinople recognised .......... as an

1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
independent nation.
(a) Greece (b) Australia
1. Who remarked “When France Sneezes, the rest of (c) Italy (d) None of the above
Europe catches cold”?
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Metternich Ans : (a) Greece
(c) Louis Philippe (d) Johann Gottfried 10. Which of the following did not play a role to develop
Ans : (b) Metternich nationalist sentiments?
(a) Art (b) Music
2. Which country had been party of the ‘Ottoman (c) Climate
Empire’ since the 15th century?
(a) Spain (b) Greece Ans : (c) Climate
(c) France (d) Germany 11. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy, in
Ans : (b) Greece 1861?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Victor Emmanuel II
3. Which country became full-fledged territorial state in (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Cavour
Europe in the year 1789?
(a) Germany (b) France Ans : (b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) England (d) Spain 12. Liberal-nationalits mainly belong to which class?
Ans : (b) France (a) Elite class
(b) Educated middle-class elite
4. When was the first clear expression of nationalism
(c) Working class
noticed in Europe?
(a) 1787 (b) 1759 (d) Artisans
(c) 1789 (d) 1769 Ans : (b) Educated middle-class elite
Ans : (c) 1789
5. Which of the following did the European conservatives 13. Where was the first upheaval took place in July, 1803?
not believe in? (a) Italy (b) France
(a) Traditional institution of state policy (c) Germany (d) Greece
(b) Strengthened monarchy Ans : (b) France
(c) A return to a society of pre-revolutionary days
14. The most serious source of nationalist tension in
Ans : (c) A return to a society of pre-revolutionary
Europe, after 1871, was an area called:
days
(a) Ottoman (b) Prussia
6. Name the Italian revolutionary from Genoa. (c) Balkans (d) Macedonia
(a) Metternich (b) Johann Gottfried Ans : (c) Balkans
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) None of these
15. Which of the following was not a part of Napoleon’s
Ans : (c) Giuseppe Mazzini
defeat?
7. Which language was spoken for purposes of diplomacy (a) Britain (b) Australia
in the mid 18th century in Europe? (c) Italy
(a) German (b) English
(c) French (d) Spanish
Ans : (c) French
8. What was ‘Young Italy’ ?

(a) Vision of Italy (b) Secret society
(c) National anthem of Italy (d) None of these
Ans : (b) Secret society
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Ans : (c) Italy 26. The place where the priests and bishops were punished.
(a) Siberia (b) Tundra
16. Which newly designed flag was chosen to replace the
(c) Mongolia (d) None of above
formal flag ‘Royal Standard’ in France?
(a) Union Jack (b) Tricolour Ans : (a) Siberia
(c) White Saltire (d) Red Cross
Ans : (b) Tricolour 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
17. Which of the following reforms made the whole system
DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with
in France more rational and efficient?
appropriate word(s).
(a) Administrative reform (b) Social reform
(c) Economic reform (d) Political reform 1. The Act of Union of 1707 was between .......... and
Ans : (a) Administrative reform .......... .
Ans : England and Scotland
18. Who destroyed democracy in France?
(a) Adolf Hitler (b) Mussolini 2. Jacob clubs were the .......... .
(c) Napolean Bonaparte (d) Bismarck Ans : Political Clubs
Ans : (c) Napolean Bonaparte 3. When conservative regimes were restored to power,
many liberal minded people went underground
19. Which region is ruled over by ‘The Habsburg Empire’ ?
because of the fear of .......... .
(a) Austria-Hungary (b) France-Netherlands
Ans : Repression
(c) Spain-Portugal (d) Scotland-Ireland
Ans : (a) Austria-Hungary 4. .......... allegory represent the nation of France.
Ans : Marianne
20. What was the main occupation in the mid 18th
century in Europe? 5. .......... were the most serious nationalist tension in
(a) Trade and commerce (b) Peasantry Europe after 1871.
(c) Craftmanship (d) All of the above Ans : Balkans
Ans : (b) Peasantry
21. What was the main feature of the pattern of land 3. TRUE/FALSE
holding prevailing in the Eastern and Central Europe?
(a) Tenants (b) Vast estates DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(c) Small owners (d) Landlords write if it is true or false.
Ans : (b) Vast estates 1. In Britain, formation of a nation-state was a long
parliamentary process.
22. Which country began to use language as a weapon of
national resistance? Ans : True
(a) Poland (b) Prussia
2. Jacobin clubs influenced German Army.
(c) Hungary (d) Austria
Ans : False
Ans : (a) Poland
3. The Napoleonic Bode upheld reforms and equality.
23. What major issue was criticised against by the liberal Ans : True
nationalists?
(a) Censorship laws to control the press 4. From 1848, Prussia took on the leadership of the
(b) Preservation of the Church movement of national unification.
(c) A modern army Ans : True
(d) Efficient bureaucracy 5. Mazzini was a great revolutionary leader of Romanian.
Ans : (d) Efficient bureaucracy Ans : False
24. German philosopher, Johann Gottfried clamined that
true German culture was to be discovered among the: For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at
(a) Common people (b) Aristocratic www.cbse.online for
(c) Middle class elite (d) None of above 1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question
Bank
Ans : (a) Common people
2. Previous Ten Years Exam Paper (Paper-wise).
25. The meaning of ‘Volksgeist’: 3. 20 Model Paper (All Solved).
(a) Common people (b) Spirit of the nation 4. NCERT Solutions
All material will be solved and free pdf. It will be
(c) Music (d) None of above
provided by 30 September and will be updated regularly.
Ans : (b) Spirit of the nation
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Chap 1.1 : The Rise of Nationalism in Europe www.rava.org.in
4. ASSERTION AND REASON pairs up to the mansion of their contractor demanding

higher wages and led a revolt.
DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable : Therefore, both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion. 5. Assertion : From the very beginning, the French
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is revolutionaries introduced various measures and
not the correct explanation of assertion. practices like the idea of la patrie and le citoyen.
Reason : This was done to create a sense of collective
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
identity amongst the French people.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
1. Assertion : Italy was divided into seven states, of reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
which only one was ruled by an Italian princely house. The French Revolution proclaimed that it was the
Reason : The north was under the domination of the people who would henceforth constitute the nation
Bourbon kings of Spain. and shape its destiny. From the very beginning, the
Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. French Revolutionaries introduced various measures
Italy was divided into seven states of which only one, and practices that would create a sense of collective
Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely identity amongst the French people. The centralised
hopse. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs and administrative system was one of the measures taken
the southern regions were under the domination of for making uniform laws for all citizens within its
The Bourbon kings of Spain. territory.
Therefore assertion is true but reason is false. 6. Assertion : The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden
2. Assertion : Germany, Italy and Switzerland were to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national
divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose dress, and large numbers were forcibly driven out of
rulers had their autonomous territories. their homeland.
Reason : They were closely bound to each other inspite Reason : The English helped the Protestants of Ireland
of their autonomous rule. to establish their dominance over a largely Catholic
country.
Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but
Germany, Italy land Switzerland were divided into reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had their
autonomous territories. Diverse people lived within This situation refers to the unification of Britain,
the territories. They did not share a collective identity Assertion refers to Scotland and how they suffered
or a common culture. They spoke different languages because of the long-drawn-out process. Their
belonged to different ethnic groups, were were no close culture and political institutions were systematically
ties binding them. suppressed. However, the reason refers to how the
Irishmen suffered in the hands of Englishmen as it was
3. Assertion : Giuseppe Mazzini worked with the a country deeply divided between the Catholics and
conservatives for the monarchy. Protestants. It was largely a Catholic country but the
Reason : Italy had to continue to be a patchwork of Protestants got support from the English to suppress
small states and kingdoms. the Catholic revolts. It does not explain the assertion.
Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
7. Assertion : On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives
Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and revolted in the Frankfurt parliament.
his vision of democratic republics frightened the Reason : The elected representatives revolted against
conservatives. Italy had to be forged into a single the issue of extending political rights to women.
unified republic within a wider alliance of nations/ It Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
could not be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms.
Thus both assertion and reason are false. On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched
in a festive procession to take their places in the
4. Assertion : Culture played an important role in Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St
creating the idea of the nation. Paul. The issue of extending political rights to women
Reason : Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against was a controversial one within the liberal movement,
contractors who supplied raw material and gave them in which large numbers of women had participated
orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced actively over the years. Therefore, both assertion and
their payments. reason are false.
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Culture played an important role in creating the idea
of the nation: art and poetry, stories and music helped
express and shape nationalist feelings.
The year 1848 was a year when rise in food prices or
a year of bad harvest led to widespread pauperism in
town and country. Earlier in 1845, a large crowd of
weavers emerged from their homes and marched in
Chap 1.2 : Nationalism in India www.cbse.online
CHAPTER 1.2
CLASS : 10th
Nationalism in India
1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS Ans : (d) Customs
9. From which year, the National Movement spread

1. The Round Table Conferenc which was boycotted by to new areas incorporating new social groups and
the Congress. developing new modes of struggle?
(a) Second (b) First (a) 1914 (b) 1916
(c) Third (d) None of the above (c) 1919 (d) 1918
Ans : (b) First Ans : (c) 1919
2. Federation of Indian Commerce and Industries was 10. What created a new economic and political situation
formed by: in India during 1913-1918?
(a) British traders (b) Indian farmers (a) War (b) Femine
(c) Indian merchants (d) None of the above (c) Peace (d) Flood
Ans : (c) Indian merchants Ans : (a) War
3. Who was the President of Muslim League in 1930? 11. When did Mahatma Gandhi return to India?
(a) Sir Muhammad Iqbal (a) January 1912 (b) January 1914
(b) Shaukat Ali (c) January 1913 (d) January 1915
(c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah Ans : (d) January 1915
(d) Maulana Azad 12. When was the Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement
Ans : (a) Sir Muhammad Iqbal begin in India?
(a) January 1919 (b) January 1921
4. During the British India, how many provinces were (c) February 1920 (d) February 1922
there?
Ans : (b) January 1921
(a) Six (b) Eight
(c) Seven (d) Nine 13. Which class was mainly involved initially in Non-
Ans : (b) Eight cooperation Khilafat Movement?
(a) Elite class (b) Lower class
5. Who headed the ‘Oudh Kisan Sabha’ In Awadh? (c) Middle class (d) All of the above
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans : (c) Middle class
(b) Madan Mohan Malviya
(c) Bipin Chadra Pal 14. Which province did not boycott the council election?
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru (a) Madras (b) Ahmedabad
(c) Hyderabad (d) Lucknow
Ans : (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (a) Madras
6. This sense of collective belonging came partly through
(a) united struggles (b) peace struggles 15. A militant Guerrila movement spread in:
(c) individual struggles (d) None of these (a) Garo hills (b) Khasi hills
(c) Gudem hills (d) None of the above
Ans : (a) united struggles
Ans : (c) Gudem hills
7. In Which continent, modern nationalism came to be
associated with the formation of nation-state? 16. What did the Rowlatt Act, 1919 presume?
(a) Australia (b Europe (a) Detention of political prisoners without trial
(c) North America (d) Africa (b) Forced recruitment in the army
Ans : (b) Europe (c) Forced manual labour
(d) Equal pay for equal work
8. What was not used as a new link which redefined the
Ans : (a) Detention of political prisoners without
boundaries of communities and the making of the new
trial
national entity?
(a) New symbols (b) New songs and ideas 17. What did the term ‘picket’ refer to?
(c) Icons (d) Customs (a) Stealing from shops
Chap 1.2 : Nationalism in India www.rava.org.in
(b) Import of goods (b) It was formed in Britain.

(c) Protest by blocking shop entrances (c) It was set up in response to the nationalist
(d) Boycott of clothes and goods movement.
Ans : (a) Stealing from shops (d) All of the above
Ans : (a) It was an all British commission.
18. Where was Gandhi’s ashram located?
(a) Dandi (b) Sabarmati
(c) Allahabad (d) Nagpur 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
Ans : (b) Sabarmati
19. Oudh Kisan Sabha was set up and headed by: appropriate word(s).
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 1. .......... was known as ‘Lion of Punjab’.
Ans : (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Ans : Lala Lajpat Rai
20. In Awadh, peasants were led by which sanyasi who 2. Mahatma Gandhi return to India in 1915 from ......... .
had earlier been to Fiji, as an indentured labourer? Ans : South Africa
(a) Baba Ramdev (b) Baba Nagarjuna
(c) Baba Ramchandra (d) Baba Parmanand 3. Due to a violent incident in .......... , Gandhiji called
off the Non-cooperation Movement.
Ans : (c) Baba Ramchandra
Ans : Chauri-Chaura
21. The nation is most often symbolised in which of the
forms? 4. In .......... movement, women participated in large
(a) History and fiction (b) Figures or images numbers for the first time.
(c) Popular prints (d) Folklore or songs Ans : Civil Disobedience
Ans : (b) Figures or images 5. Gandhiji called Dalits as .......... .
22. With the growth of nationalism, who created the Ans : Harijans
image of Bharat Mata in the 20th Century?
(a) Nand Lal Bose
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
3. TRUE/FALSE
(c) Rabindranath Tagore DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay write if it is true or false.
Ans : (d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
1. Colonial exploitation under the British rule was the
23. In late 19th century India, which ideas was revived important factor of nationalism in Europe.
through a movement to develop nationalism? Ans : False
(a) Figure or images (b) Popular Prints
(c) History and fictions (d) Folklore or songs 2. Baba Ramchandra led the Civil Disobedience
movement.
Ans : (d) Folklore or songs
Ans : False
24. Who himself took interest to revive folklore in West
Bengal? 3. Alluri Sitaram Raju was the leader of militant Guerilla
(a) Rabindranath Tagore Movement in the Gudem Hills.
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattpadhyay Ans : True
(c) Abanindranath Tagore 4. The Rowlatt Act gave the British Government power
(d) All of the above to suppress political activity.
Ans : (a) Rabindranath Tagore Ans : True
25. What was the effect of the Non-cooperation movement 5. 300 miles were covered in Gandhiji’s Salt March.
on the plantation workers in Assam? Ans : False
(a) They left the plantations and headed home.
(b) They went on a strike.
(c) They destroyed the plantations.
4. ASSERTION AND REASON
(d) None of these
DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable :
Ans : (a) They left the plantations and headed home.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
26. What was the main problem with the Simon the correct explanation of assertion.
Commission? (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(a) It was an all British commission. not the correct explanation of assertion.
Chap 1.2 : Nationalism in India www.cbse.online
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
1. Assertion : In 1917, Gandhiji organised a satyagraha The Simon Commission was greeted with the
to support the peasants of the Kheda district of slogan ‘Go back Simon’ because it did not have a
Gujarat. single Indian member. They were all British but
Reason : The peasants were affected by crop failure had come to look into the functioning of the
and plague epidemic. They could not pay the revenue constitutional system in India and suggest
and were demanding that revenue collection be changes. Gandhiji went on Dandi March on 11
relaxed. March 1930. The reason thus does not explain the
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. * 6. Assertion : Gandhiji entered into Gandhi-Irwin Pact
The peasants wanted that their revenue collection be on 5 March 1931.
relaxed because they were at a complete loss because Reason : Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru
of the epidemic. Gandhiji came forward and organized were both put in jail, the Congress was declared
a Satyagraha to provide them with a platform to raise illegal, and a series of measures had been imposed
their voice. to prevent meetings, demonstrations and
boycotts.
2. Assertion : The council elections were boycotted in
most provinces except Madras.
Reason : In many places, merchants and traders
refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign With the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact,
trade. Gandhiji consented to participate in the Round
Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but Table Conference in London. However, the
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. negotiations broke down and Gandhiji returned to
India disappointed. New repressive measures by
The council elections were boycotted in most provinces the government declared the Congress illegal and
except Madras, where Justice Party, the party of the put Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru into jail.
non-Brahmins, felt that entering the council was one Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
way of gaining some power, something that usually not the correct explanation of assertion.
only Brahmins had access to.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true but 7. Assertion : Rich peasants became enthusiastic
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement,
organising their communities and at times forcing
3. Assertion : The Non-Cooperation Movement gradually reluctant members to participate in the boycott
slowed down for a variety of reasons in the cities. programmes.
Reason : As the boycott movement spread, and people Reason : However, they were deeply happy when
began discarding imported clothes and wearing only the movement was called off in 1931 with revenue
Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and rates being lowered.
handlooms went up.
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. The peasants were deeply disappointed when the
Civil Disobedience Movement was called off in 1931
Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass- without revenue rates being revised. They wanted
produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford the revenue rates revised and were thus actively
to buy it. Non-cooperation Movement was gradually participating in the movement but were deeply
turning violent, some leaders were by now, very tired hurt when they could not achieve the same.
of mass struggle, that is now it lost momentum. Therefore, The assertion is true but reason is false.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. 8. Assertion : Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote
‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland and
4. Assertion : In Awadh, the peasants were led by Alluri it was later included in his novel Anandamath and
Sitaram Raju. widely sung during the Swadeshi movement.
Reason : The movement here was against Oudh Kisan Reason : Rabindranath Tagore painted his famous
Sabha. image of Bharat Mata, which is portrayed as an
Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false. ascetic figure, who is calm, composed, divine and
In Awadh, the peasants were led by Baba spiritual.
Ramchandra, a sanyasi who had earlier been to Fiji as Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
indentured labourer. The movement here was against It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of
talukdars and landlords who demanded from peasants nationalism, that the identity of India came to be
exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other cesses. visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata.
Thus, both the assertion and the reason are wrong. The image of Bharat Mata acquired many
5. Assertion : When Simon Commission arrived in India, different forms, as it circulated in popular prints,
it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’. and was painted by different artists. Devotion to
Reason : This happened as Mahatma Gandhi was on this mother figure came to be seen as evidence of
Dandi March during that time. one’s nationalism, but this does not explain why
he wrote ‘ Vande Mataram’. Thus both of them are
true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
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Chap 1.4 : The Age of Industrialisation www.cbse.online

CHAPTER 1.4
CLASS : 10th
The Age of Industrialisation
10. Which of the following country is considered to be the

first industrial nation of the world?
(a) France (b) Germany
1. The paid servants of the East India Company was (c) Britain (d) Italy
known as: Ans : (c) Britain
(a) Seth (b) Mamlatdar
(c) Gomastha (d) Lambardar 11. Which of the following city was known as a
Ans : (c) Gomastha finishing centre of the cloth at the time of proto -
industrialisation?
2. Who devised the Spinning Jenny? (a) London (b) Berlin
(a) Samual Luck (b) Richard Arkwright (c) Paris (d) Rome
(c) James Hargreaves (d) James Watt
Ans : (a) London
Ans : (c) James Hargreaves
12. What makes Lancashire the best cotton-spinning
3. The fly shuttle was used for: locality in the world?
(a) Washing (b) Weaving (a) Nearness to coal mines
(c) Drying (d) Sowing (b) Temperate atmosphere
Ans : (b) Weaving (c) Humid atmosphere
4. When was contton piece good’s production in India (d) Abundance of power
doubled? Ans : (c) Humid atmosphere
(a) 1880-1890 (b) 1900-1912
(c) 1890-1900 (d) None of these 13. What does the age of industries indicate?
(a) Economic changes
Ans : (b) 1900-1912
(b) Technological changes
5. Which is the pioneer country in industrialisation? (c) Social changes
(a) Russia (b) India (d) Political changes
(c) England (d) None of these
Ans : (b) Technological changes
Ans : (c) England
14. What did the term ‘Orient’ refer to?
6. Which among these was a pre-colonial sea port? (a) England (b) Asia
(a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Chennai (c) Russia (d) America
(c) Hoogly (d) Cochin
Ans : (b) Asia
Ans : (c) Hoogly
15. Why were the weavers tied with the company traders?
7. Where was the first cotton mill set up?
(a) They were under loans.
(a) Surat (b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta (d) Kerala (b) They had no other place to work.
(c) They had less equipments.
Ans : (a) Surat
Ans : (a) They were under loans.
8. Who was a ‘Jobber’ ?
(a) Trusted worker (b) Painter 16. 18th Century India witnessed the decline of port
(c) Dancer (d) Soldier town?
(a) Surat (b) Bombay
Ans : (a) Trusted worker
(c) Calcutta (d) Madras
9. Who usually help industrialists to get new recruits in Ans : (a) Surat
their industries?
(a) Jobbers (b) Weavers 17. In which of the following decade, the earliest factories
(c) Koshtis (d) Exporters in England came up?
(a) 1710-20 (b) 1730-40
Ans : (a) Jobbers
(c) 1720-30 (d) 1740-50
Ans : (b) 1730-40
Chap 1.4 : The Age of Industrialisation www.rava.org.in
18. Which one is the most popular means for creating new 27. Which of the following is not an European managing
consumers? agency who controlled large sector of Indian industries
(a) Branding (b) Pricing during the First World War?
(c) Advertisement (d) Promotion (a) Bird Heiglers and Company
Ans : (c) Advertisement (b) Andrew Yule
(c) Jardine Skinner
19. Which among the following industrialists began selling
(d) East India Company
cloth in India with labels on cloth bundles?
(a) Manchester industrialists Ans : (d) East India Company
(b) Yorkshire industrialists
28. By the late 19th century, manufacturers were printing
(c) Lancashire industrialists .......... to popularise their products.
(d) Glasgow industrialists (a) diaries (b) files
Ans : (a) Manchester industrialists (c) calendars (d) clothes
Ans : (c) calendars
20. Which image of a God was most commonly used to
popularise baby products? 29. Which one product is being used even by people who
(a) Ram (b) Shiva could not read?
(c) Krishna (d) Hanuman (a) Newspapers (b) Calendar
Ans : (c) Krishna (c) Magazines (d) Journals
Ans : (b) Calendar
21. Which one of the following Goddess’ image was not
used on imported cloth labels? 30. Apart from images of Gods, which other figures were
(a) Kartika (b) Saraswati commonly used in advertisement?
(c) Lakshmi (d) Durga (a) Animals
Ans : (d) Durga (b) Nature
(c) Personages, emperors and nawabs
22. Who invented the steam engine in 1781 in England?
(d) Society
(a) Newcomen (b) C.E. Turner
(c) M.Jackson (d) James Watt Ans : (c) Personages, emperors and nawabs
Ans : (d) James Watt
23. In the first phase of industrialisation, the most 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
dynamic industries in Britain were
(a) Metals (b) Coal DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with
(c) Cotton (d) Both a and c appropriate word(s).
Ans : (d) Both a and c 1. First jute mill was established by .......... in India.
24. Which of the following companies gradually gained Ans : Seth Hukumchand
power in the 1750s after the decline of Indian
2. In 1850, .......... India started.
merchant’s trade capacity?
(a) Chinese companies (b) Russian companies Ans : Machine age
(c) English companies (d) European companies
3. .......... is the first industrial city in England.
Ans : (d) European companies Ans : London
25. In the last years of 17th century, the gross value 4. .......... industry was the flourishing industry of
of trade that passed through ......... had been < 16 England.
million. By the 1740 s it had slumped to ......... .
Ans : Iron and steel
(a) Surat, < 3 million
(b) Masulipatnam, < 7 million 5. Dwarkanath Tagore was an Indian .......... to set up six
(c) Hoogly, <5 million joint stock companies in India in 1830.
(d) Madras, < 9 million Ans : Entrepreneur
Ans : (a) Surat, < 3 million
26. Which of the following two ports grew after the 3. TRUE/FALSE
European companies gained power in trade?
(a) Surat and Hoogly DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
write if it is true or false.
(b) Madras and Masulipatnam
(c) Bombay and Calcutta 1. Elgin mill was set up in Kanpur.
(d) Kandla and Visakhapatnam Ans : True
Ans : (c) Bombay and Calcutta
Chap 1.4 : The Age of Industrialisation www.cbse.online
2. First Jute mill was established in Calicut. market collapsed, and the local market shrank, being
Ans : False glutted with Manchester imports. With the American
Civil War, the cotton supply to Britain from US were
3. Once the cloth was ready, the finishing was done in cut off. Britain turned to India. Thus, both assertion
London and it was known as ‘finishing centre’. and reason are false.
Ans : True 5. Assertion : In most industrial regions, workers came
from the districts around.
4. Advertisement by Indian manufacturers hardly gave
Reason : Peasants and Artisans who found no work
any nationalist message.
in the village went to the industrial centres in search
Ans : False of work.
5. The work of the fuller was to gather cloth. Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans : True
The reason justifies the assertion.
6. Assertion : From 1906, the export of Indian yarn to
4. ASSERTION AND REASON China declined.
Reason : After the First World War, Manchester could
DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable : never recapture its old position in the Indian market.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but
the correct explanation of assertion. reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is The reason does not justify the assertion. From 1906,
not the correct explanation of assertion. export of Indian yam to China declined as produce
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. from China and Japan flooded the Chinese market.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. 7. Assertion : In the twentieth century, handloom cloth
1. Assertion : When Manchester industrialists began production expanded steadily.
selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth Reason : This was partly because of technological
bundles. changes,
Reason : The label was a mark of Quality. When Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
buyers saw ‘MADE IN MANCHESTER’ written in reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
bold on the label, they were expected to feel confident The reason clearly justifies the assertion.
about buying the cloth.
8. Assertion : Like the images of gods and goddesses,
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
figures of important personages like emperors and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. J’
nawabs adorned advertisements and calendars.
The Assertion has been justly explained by the reason. Reason : This was done to show the pomp and glory
2. Assertion : The first symbol of the new era was cotton. of the nation.
Reason : In Victorian Britain, the industrialists did Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
not want to introduce machines that got rid of human This was done to win the confidence of the buyers to
labour and required large capital investment. buy the products. Hence the reason is false.
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Victorian Britain, however this does not explain the For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at
assertion. www.cbse.online for
3. Assertion : The consolidation of East India Company 1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question
power after the 1760s did not initially lead to a decline Bank
in textile exports from India. 2. Previous Ten Years Exam Paper (Paper-wise).
Reason : British cotton industries had not yet 3. 20 Model Paper (All Solved).
expanded and Indian fine textiles were in great 4. NCERT Solutions
demand in Europe. All material will be solved and free pdf. It will be
4. Assertion : The cotton weavers of India flourished
with the Manchester imports.
Reason : With the American Civil War, the cotton
supplies from US to Britain increased.
Cotton weavers in India faced two problems with
Manchester goods coming to India: their export
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12
Chap 1.5 : Print Culture and The Modern World www.cbse.online
CHAPTER 1.5
CLASS : 10th
Print Culture and The Modern World

Ans : (c) France
1. Who began to publish the weekly Bengal Gazette?

(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gangadhar Bhattacharya
(c) Raja Rammohun Roy
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya
Ans : (b) Gangadhar Bhattacharya
2. Who was James Lackington?

(a) Publisher (b) Painter
(c) Scholar (d) Reformer
Ans : (a) Publisher
3. Who wrote My Childhood and My University?

(a) Thomas Wood (b) Maxim Gorky
(c) George Eliot (d) Jane Austen
Ans : (b) Maxim Gorky
4. Which one of the following began to edit the ‘Bengal

Gazette’ a weeklya magazine?
(a) James Augustus Hickey (b) George Eliot
(c) Jane Austen (d) William Bolts
Ans : (a) James Augustus Hickey
5. Which scholar expressed a deep anxiety about

printing?
(a) Martin Luther (b) Erasmus
(c) Johann Gutenberg (d) None of these
Ans : (b) Erasmus
6. Which of the following countries had the earliest kind

of print technology?
(a) China (b) Korea
(c) Japan (d) All of these
Ans : (d) All of these
7. Who among the following religious reformers wrote

Ninty Five These criticising many of the religious
practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic church?
(a) Confucious (b) Kitagawa Utamaro
(c) Martin Luther (d) Hi-sang
Ans : (c) Martin Luther
8. At which of the following places, a children’s press was

set up in 1857?
(a) England (b) Spain
(c) France (d) China
9. Which book of Jyotiba Phule was based on the caste
system?
(a) Amar Jiban (b) Istri Dharam Vichar
(c) Sacchi Kavitayen (d) Gulamgiri
Ans : (d) Gulamgiri
10. Which of the following cities became the hub of the

Western style-school culture printing?
(a) Berlin (b) Shanghai
(c) Paris (d) Britain
Ans : (b) Shanghai
11. In which of the following years, Buddhist

missionaries from China introduced hand-printing
technology?
(a) 758-760 AD (b) 772-774 AD
(c) 768-770 AD (d) 776-778 AD
Ans : (c) 768-770 AD
12. Which of the following books is the oldest Japanese

book, printed in 868 AD containing six sheets of text
and woodcut illustrations?
(a) Diamond Sutra (b) Harshcharita
(c) Brihatsutra (d) Mrichkatika
Ans : (a) Diamond Sutra
13. Which of the following countries possessed a huge

bureaucratic system which recruited its personnel
through Civil Service Examination?
(a) China (b) Korea
(c) Japan (d) Britain
Ans : (a) China
14. What is calligraphy?

(a) Stylised writing (b) Poetry
(c) Textbooks (d) Flower arrangement
Ans : (a) Stylised writing
15. Who introduced the printing press in India?

(a) French (b) Italian
(c) Portuguese (d) None of these
Ans : (c) Portuguese
16. Printing was first developed in:

(a) Japan (b) Portugal
(c) China (d) Germany
Ans : (c) China
17. Which one of the following, created the possibility of

wide circulation of ideas, and introduced a new
world of debate and discussion?
(a) Print (b) Oral
Chap 1.5 : Print Culture and The Modern World www.rava.org.in
(c) Text (d) Ballad Ans : (d) Goa

Ans : (a) Print 26. In which of the two languages, 50 books were published
18. Which of the following classes emerged as a new in 1674?
reading class? (a) Konkani and Kanada
(a) Elite class (b) Working class (b) Malayalam and Manipuri
(c) Common people (d) Peasantry class (c) Telugu and Tamil
Ans : (a) Elite class (d) Oriya and Bhojpuri
Ans : (a) Konkani and Kanada
19. Which class of people normally live i the world of oral
culture attain knowledge? 27. At which place, Catholic priests printed the first
(a) Elite class (b) Common people Tamil book in 1579?
(c) Working class (d) Peasantry class (a) Cuttack (b) Cochin
Ans : (b) Common people (c) Calcutta (d) Madras
Ans : (b) Cochin
20. In which of the following countries, the rates of literacy
was very low till the 20th century? 28. What did Menocchio, the miller, do?
(a) European contries (b) Asian countries (a) Commissioned artists
(c) American contries (d) Australian contries (b) Enraged the Roman Catholic Church
Ans : (a) European contries (c) Wrote the Adages
(d) None of these
21. At which of the following places, the Grimm Brothers
spent years compiling traditional folk tales gathered Ans : (b) Enraged the Roman Catholic Church
from peasants? 29. What was Gutenberg’s first printed book?
(a) France (b) England (a) Ballads (b) Dictionary
(c) Germany (d) Spain (c) Bible (d) None of these
Ans : (c) Germany Ans : (c) Bible
NO NEED TO PURCHASE ANY BOOKS 30. Who was Martin Luther?

For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at (a) Painter (b) Poet
www.cbse.online for (c) Religious reformer (d) All of these
1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question Ans : (c) Religious reformer
Bank
2. Previous Ten Years Exam Paper (Paper-wise). 31. What were Penny Chapbooks?
3. 20 Model Paper (All Solved). (a) Ritual calendars (b) Journals
4. NCERT Solutions (c) Newspapers (d) Pocket-sized books
provided by 30 September and will be updated regularly. Ans : (d) Pocket-sized books
22. Which of the following is/are some of the best-known 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
women novelist during 19th century?
(a) Jane Austen (b) George Eliot DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with
(c) Bronte Sisters (d) All of these appropriate word(s).
1. In ancient India, .......... were copied on palm leaves or
23. When was leading libraries came into existence? on handmade paper.
(a) Fifteenth century (b) Seventeenth century Ans : Manuscripts
(c) Sixteenth century (d) None of above
2. The .......... Act was modelled on the Irish Press Laws.
Ans : (b) None of above Ans : Vernacular Press Act
24. Which of the following authors from New York had 3. .......... created the way of new writings.
perfected the power-driven cylindrical press?
Ans : Printing
(a) Richard M. Hoe (b) George Eliot
(c) Jane Austen (d) Martin Luthar 4. .......... Hindus believed that a literate girl would be
Ans : (a) Richard M. Hoe widowed if she gets educated.
Ans : Conservative
25. At which of the following places in India, first printing
press was established? 5. The Printing Press first came to .......... , in India with
(a) Bombay (b) Mardras a rise in the mid 16 century.
(c) Calcutta (d) Goa Ans : Goa
Chap 1.5 : Print Culture and The Modern World www.cbse.online
3. TRUE/FALSE
DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and write if it is true or false.
1. In 1870s, carticatures and cartoons were being published in journals and newspapers.
Ans : True
2. With the setting up of an increasing number of printing presses, visual images could be easily reproduced in multiple
copies.
Ans : True
3. In Punjab-Battala area was devoted to the printing of popular books.

Ans : False
4. The first printed book by mechanical press was Bible.

Ans : True
5. Gutenberg brought printing to Europe.

Ans : False

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion : In 1517, the religious reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety Five Theses criticising many of the practices
and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church.
Reason :,T his led to a division within the Church and to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. 4
A printed cojiy of the Theses was posted on a church door in Wittenberg. It challenged the Church to debate his
ideas. Luther’s writings were immediately reproduced in large numbers and read widely. The reason thus correctly
justifies the assertion.
2. Assertion : The new reading culture was accompanied by a new technology.
Reason : From hand printing there was a gradual shift to mechanical printing.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
The reason thus correctly justifies the assertion.
3. Assertion : The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand for books. Reason :
Chinese paper reached Europe via the silk route.
Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Copying was laborious, expensive and time-consuming. Manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle, and could not
be carried around or read easily. Therefore, their circulation remained limited. The reason does not explain or
justify the assertion.
4. Assertion : The first book that Gutenberg printed was the Bible.
Reason : About 500 copies were printed and it took two years to produce them.
About 180 copies were printed and it took three years to produce them. The reason is thus false.
5. Assertion : Print and popular religious literature stimulated many distinctive individual interpretations of faith even
among little-educated working people. Reason : Through the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, literacy rates
went up in most parts of Europe,
6. Assertion : As literacy and schools spread in African countries, there was a virtual reading mania.
Reason : Churches of different denominations set up schools in villages, carrying literacy to tribals.
As literacy and schools spread in European countries, there was a virtual reading mania. Churches of different
denominations set up schools in villages, carrying literacy to peasants and artisans.
7. Assertion : Children became an important category of readers.
Reason : Primary education became compulsory from the late nineteenth century.
8. Assertion : There was intense controversy between social and religious reformers and the Hindu orthodoxy over
matters like-widow immolation, monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and idolatory.
Reason : The Deoband Seminary founded in 1867, published thousands upon thousands off at was telling Muslim
readers how to conduct themselves in everyday lives, and explaining the meaning of Islamic doctrines.
The reason does not justify the assertion.
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Chap 2.1 : Resources and Development www.rava.org.in
CHAPTER 2.1
CLASS : 10th
Unit 4 : Contemporaray India - II
Resources and Development
(b) continuous and biological

1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (c) biotic and abiotic
(d) recyclable and non-recyclable
1. Resource planning is essential for .......... existence of
Ans : (c) biotic and abiotic
all forms of life.
(a) ecological balance (b) sustainable 5. Which state among the North-Eastern states has been
(c) exploitation (d) none of these fully surveyed for its land use?
Ans : (b) sustainable (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur
(c) Tripura (d) Assam
2. The resources of ownership are:
Ans : (d) Assam
(a) plantation (b) pasture land
(c) ponds (d) all of the above 6. The ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles is
Ans : (d) all of the above classified under which zone?
(a) Exclusive Economic Zone
3. Where was the first international Earth Summit held? (b) Export-processing Zone
(a) Rio de Janeiro (b) Geneva
(c) Switzerland (d) Philippines (c) Special Economic Zone
(d) None of these
Ans : (a) Rio de Janeiro
Ans : (a) Exclusive Economic Zone
4. On the basis of its origin, resources can be classified
into: 7. Which of the following is essential for sustainable
(a) renewable and non-renewable existence of all forms of life?
(a) Resource planning
needs is termed as:
(b) Resource management (a) technology (b) resource
(c) Resource extraction (c) natural vegetation (d) none of these
(d) Resource generation Ans : (b) resource
Ans : (a) Resource planning
9. Geothermal energy in Puga Valley and Parvati Valley
8. Everything available in our environment to satisfy our are:
(a) stock resources (b) developed resources
(c) reserve resources (d) potential resources
Ans : (b) developed resources
10. Which one of the following is the main cause of land

degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing
Ans : (b) Deforestation
11. Individual, community, national and International

resources are classified on the basis of
(a) origin (b) exhaustibility
(c) ownership (d) status of development
Ans : (c) ownership
12. Which of the following is not classified on the basis of

status of development?
(a) Potential resource
(b) Developed stock resource
(c) Reserves resource
(d) Renewable resource
Ans : (d) Renewable resource
NO NEED TO PURCHASE ANY BOOKS

For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at
www.cbse.online for
1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question
Bank
3. 20 Model Paper (All Solved).
4. NCERT Solutions
13. The resources which are obtained from biosphere and

have life are called
(a) biotic (b) abiotic
(c) parasitic (d) None of these
Ans : (a) biotic
14. What percentage of land in India consist of fertile

plains?
(a) 70% (b) 38%
Chap 2.1 : Resources and Development www.cbse.online
(c) 61% (d) 43% 24. The running water cuts through the clayey soils
Ans : (d)43% (a) bad land (b) gullies
(c) deltas (d) None of these
15. Which one of the following type of resource in iron Ans : (b) gullies
ore?
(a) Renewable (b) Biotic 25. In which one of the following states in terrace
(c) Flow (d) Non-renewable cultivation practised?
Ans : (d) Non-renewable (a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
16. Under which of the following type of resource can (c) Haryana
tidal energy be put?
(d) Uttarakhand
(a) Replenishable (b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic (d) Non-recyclable Ans : (d) Uttarakhand
Ans : (a) Replenishable
17. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
net sown area is known as
(a) fallow lands (b) gross cropped area DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with
(c) cropped area (d) grazing land appropriate word(s).
Ans : (b) gross cropped area 1. Resources are .......... accessible, economically ..........
and .......... acceptable.
18. The land which is left uncultivated for more than five
agricultural years is called ..........? Ans : technologically, economically, culturally
(a) grazing land 2. .......... aimed at achieving global sustainable
(b) fallow land development.
(c) culturable wasteland Ans : Agenda 21
(d) barren and waste land
3. On the basis of origin, resources are ......... and ......... .
Ans : (c) culturable wasteland
Ans : biotic and abiotic
19. Which of the following soil is more common in
Piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai? 4. The resources which can be renewed are known as
(a) Black sol (b) Laterite soil .......... .
(c) Alluvial soil (d) Red soil Ans : renewable resources
Ans : (c) Alluvial soil 5. .......... resources are accessible to all the members of
community.
20. Which soil is also known as regur soil?
(a) Black soil (b) Red soil Ans : community owned resources
(c) Alluvial soil (d) Laterite soil
Ans : (a) black soil 3. TRUE/FALSE
21. The lower horizons of the arid soil is occupied by
kankar due to increasing DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(a) Calcium content write if it is true or false.
(b) Potash content 1. Agenda - 21 was signed in 1992 after world war for
(c) Lime, potash and phosphorous content peace.
(d) Phosophorous content Ans : (F)
Ans : (a) Calcium content 2. Judicious use of resources is generally called the
22. How much is the total geographical area of India? Development of Resources.
(a) 3.28 million sq km (b) 4.28 million sq km Ans : (F)
(c) 2.28 million sq km (d) 5.28 million sq km
3. 95% of our basic needs for food shelter and clothing
Ans : (a) 3.28 million sq km are obtained from land.
23. In the snow covered areas of Himalayas, which of the Ans : (T)
following soil experiences denudation and is acidic in
4. Fallow land is the land put to agricultural use and for
nature with humus content?
grazing.
(a) Laterite soil (b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil (d) Forest soil Ans : (F)
Ans : (d) Forest soil 5. Afforestation and proper management is leading to

increased land degradation in cities.
Ans : (T)
Chap 2.1 : Resources and Development www.rava.org.in

DIRECTION : In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice
as :
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion : Alluvial soil is ideal for growth of paddy, wheat, cereal and pulse crops.
Reason : Alluvial soil is well-known for is capacity to hold moisture.
Alluvial soil contains adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of
sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. Not water-retention but this property makes it ideal for
the growth of wheat, paddy, cereal and pulse crops.
2. Assertion : The availability of resources is not the only necessary condition for the development of any region.
Reason : Not only availability of resources but also corresponding change in technology is necessary for
development of any region.
Mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology and institutions may hinder
development. Thus, both resources and advanced technologies contribute in development of a region.
3. Assertion : Resources are free gifts of nature.
Reason : Resources like soil, air, water are easily available in nature.
Resources are not free gifts of nature but are present tjue to interaction of human beings with nature, technology
and institutions. They are a function of human activities. They transform material available in our environment
into resources.
4. Assertion : Land is a natural resource of utmost importance.
Reason : Land can be used for various purposes.
Land is a natural resource of utmost importance as it supports human life and wild life, economic activities like
agriculture, mining, transport and communication system.
5. Assertion : Resource planning is an easy process in India.
Reason : Resource planning involves planning structure, identification and inventory of resource across the
regions.
Resource planning is a not an easy but a very complex process as it involves surveying, mapping, quantitative and
qualitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
6. Assertion : Soil is the most important renewable natural resource.
Reason : Soil supports different types of living organisms on earth.
Soil is a living system. Soil helps to grow plants, supports natural vegetation and economic activities like
agriculture Its universal usage proves that it is the most important renewable natural resource.
7. Assertion : Processes of soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously and creates a balance between the two.
Reason : The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is soil erosion
Soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously but this balance is disturbed due to human activities like
deforestation, over-grazing, construction , mining and natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil
erosion.
8. Assertion : Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation. Reason : Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and saline in
nature. It restricts the filtration of water.
Due to dry climate and high temperature, evaporation is faster and the soil lacks humus and moisture that is why it
becomes unfit for cultivation.
9. Assertion : Controlling on mining activities doesn’t control land degradation.
Reason : In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, deforestation has occurred due to overgrozing, not
minings
Activities of mining controls land degradation because mining sites are abandoned offer excavation work, this results
in over - burdening. Mining activities in the mentioned states has contribution to deforestation.
10. Assertion : Terrace cultivation does not restrict erosion.
Reason : Running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. This helps to cultivate
crops.
Terraces, out on slopes in forms of steps breaks up the force of the wind, thus preventing erosion. T gullies render
cultivation in those lands impossible.
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Chap 2.4 : Agriculture www.cbse.online

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 2.4
Agriculture
Ans : (c) Roca

3. What is ‘Boro’ ?
1. Which of the following methods have been changed (a) Kharif crop (b) Zaid crop
depending upon the characteristics of physical (c) Rabi crop (d) None of these
environment, technological know-how and socio- Ans : (a) Kharif crop
cultural practice?
(a) Industrial activity (b) Irrigation Pattern 4. Ragi is very rich in:
(c) Cultivation (d) None of these (a) Zinc (b) Iodine
(c) Iron (d) Phosphorous
Ans : (c) Cultivation
Ans : (c) Iron
2. Jhumming in Brazil is called:
(a) Ladang (b) Masole 5. .......... is a slash and burn agriculture.
(c) Roca (d) None of these (a) Extensive farming
(b) Commercial subsistence farming
9. Which out of the following is a Rabi crop?
(c) Jhumming (a) Barley (b) Paddy
(d) None of the above (c) Jute (d) None of these
Ans : (c) Jhumming Ans : (a) Barley
6. Agriculture contributes .......... to the national income 10. Which out of the following is a Zaid crop?
of India. (a) Moong (b) Mustard
(a) 33% (b) 22% (c) Urad (d) Watermelon
(c) 40% (d) none of these
Ans : (d) Watermelon
Ans : (d) none of these
11. For irrigation, most of the Indian farmers depend on
7. Rabi crops are sown in: (a) reservoirs (b) rivers
(a) winters (b) monsoon (c) monsoon (d) tube wells
(c) summers (d) none of these
Ans : (c) monsoon
Ans : (a) winters
12. The crops grown in Rabi season are:
8. Which of the following is the staple food crop of a (a) wheat, peas, barley and mustard
majority of the people in India? (b) rice, jute, maize, soyabean
(a) Jowar (b) Bajra
(c) pulses, melons, vegetables
(c) Wheat (d) Rice
(d) sugarcane and tobacco
Ans : (d) Rice
Ans : (a) wheat, peas, barley and mustard
13. Which of the following farming practice depends upon

monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of
other environmental conditions?
(a) Commercial farming
(b) Intensive subsistence farming
(c) Primitive subsistence farming
(d) Plantation
Ans : (c) Primitive subsistence farming
14. Which type of agriculture practice is famous in North-

Eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and
Nagaland?
(a) Jhumming
(b) Slash and burn farming
(c) Commercial farming
(d) Subsistence farming
Ans : (a) Jhumming
15. What population of India is engaged in agricultural

activities?
(a) Two-Third (b) Three-Fourth
(c) One-Fourth (d) Two-Fourth
Ans : (a) Two-Third
16. In which moths the kharif crops are harvested?

(a) April-June (b) September-October
(c) January-February (d) June-July
Ans : (b) September-October
Chap 2.4 : Agriculture www.rava.org.in
17. Important crops like paddy, maize, jowar, bajra etc appropriate word(s).
are grown during which of the following seasons?
1. India has three cropping seasons: .......... , .......... and
(a) Spring (b) Summer
(c) Monsoon (d) Winter .......... .
Ans : rabi, kharif, zaid
Ans : (c) Monsoon
2. Agriculture provides livelihood to more than 63
18. Aus, aman and boro are types of which crop?
percent of India’s .......... .
(a) Maize (b) Paddy
(c) Jowar (d) Bajra Ans : population
Ans : (b) Paddy 3. Millets are also called .......... .

Ans : Coarse grains
19. Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and
fodder crops are the types of 4. The three types of tea are .......... , .......... , .......... .
(a) Zaid crop (b) Kharif crop
Ans : Green, black, oolong
(c) Rabi crop (d) None of these
Ans : (a) Zaid crop 5. .......... is a name given to ‘slash and burn’ agriculture
in North-Eastern States of India.
20. Which of the following was the main focus of our First Ans : Jhumming
Five Year plan?
(a) Cost of food grains (b) Land reforms
(c) Industrialisation (d) Globalisation 3. TRUE/FALSE
Ans : (b) Land reforms
DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
21. Who was declared as spiritual heir of Gandhiji? write if it is true or false.
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru 1. Agriculture is an age-old and a primary economic
(c) Vinoba bhave activity.
(d) Sardar Patel Ans : True
Ans : (c) Vinoba bhave 2. Intensive subsistence farming is a bush or tree farming.
Ans : False
22. Which of the following is being used in making gunny
bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefacts? 3. Crops grown between March and June are known as
(a) Jute (b) Cotton ‘Zaid’ crops.
(c) Fibre (d) None of these
Ans : False
Ans : (a) Jute 4. Kharif crop requires temperature between 21cC to
27cC.
23. ..........., is a scheme introduced by the Government Ans : True
of India for the benefit of the farmers.
(a) Kisan Credit Card (b) Mudra Yojana 5. Coffee plantations are located in Odisha, Bengal and
(c) Farmer Scheme (d) Jan Dhan Yojana Bihar.
Ans : (a) Kisan Credit Card Ans : False
24. Tick the characteristics of commercial farming.

(a) Plots of land are fragmented. 4. ASSERTION AND REASON
(b) Transport and communication plays an important
role. DIRECTION : In the following questions, a statement of
(c) The yield is usually low. assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the
correct choice as :
(d) The pressure of population is high on land.
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason
Ans : (b) Transport and communication plays an
is the correct explanation of assertion.
important role.
(b) If Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
25. The crop that is used both, as food and fodder. not the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) ragi (b) jowar (c) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(c) maize (d) none of these (d) If Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans : (b) water
1. Assertion : India’s primary activity is Agriculture.
Reason : Two-thirds of its population is engaged in
2. FILL IN THE BLANK agricultural activities.
DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Agriculture is a primary activity, which produces most
Chap 2.4 : Agriculture www.cbse.online
of the food that we consume. Two-thirds of India’s population is involved in agricultural activities and earns
livelihood through it.
2. Assertion : Agriculture is not an old economic activity. Reason : Farming varies from subsistence to commercial
type.
Cultivation methods have changed significantly depending upon the characteristics of physical, environmental and
technological methods. Agriculture is definitely an old economic activity in India. Thus, both reason and assertion
are false.
3. Assertion : Plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Reason : Plantation is a type of commercial farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital
intensive inputs, with the help of migrant laborers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.
4. Assertion : Biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.
Reason : Doses of biochemical input are used to grow crops rapidly.
High doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production to meet the growing
demands of the people. The farmers continue to take maximum output from the limited land.
5. Assertion : Crops are grown depending upon the variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices. Reason : Crops
are also grown according to availability of water.
Variety of food and non food crops are grown in different parts of the country depending upon the variations is
soil, climate and cultivation practices. Major crops grown in India are rice, wheat, millets, pulies, tea, coffee,
sugarcane, oil seeds, cotton and jute, etc
6. Assertion : apple food crop in India is rice and requires less rain.
Reason : Our country is the fourth largest producer of rice in the world.
It is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India. Our country is the second largest producer of rice in
the world after China. Cultivation of rice requires annual rainfall above 100 cm . In the areas of less rainfall, it
grows with the help of irrigation.
7. Assertion : Pulses are not considered as a major source of protein in a vegetarian diet.
Reason : Rice is a rabi crop and requires lot of rain to grow.
Rice is a kharif crop and requires about 100 cm of rainfall. However India is the largest producer as well as the
consumer of pulses in the world. These are the major source of protein in a vegetarian diet.
8. Assertion : Tea cultivation, is a labour - intensive industry.
Reason : Cultivation can be done throughout the year .Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free climate.
The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well- drained soil,
rich in humus and organic matter. It is consumed on large basis in India being an important beverage crop.
9. Assertion : Organic farming is much in vogue. Reason : In organic forming, crops are grown using high doses to
increase production.
Organic farming is much in vogue today because it is practiced without factory made chemicals such as fertilizers
and pesticides. Hence, it does not affect environment and human beings in a negative manner.
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Chap 2.5 : Minerals and Energy Resources www.rava.org.in
CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 2.5
Minerals and Energy Resources
(c) tones (d) none of these

Ans : (b) minerals
1. In which kind of rocks are the minerals deposited and 7. Where is the largest wind farm cluster located in
accumulated in the stratas? India?
(a) Igneous rocks (b) Metamorphic rocks (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala
(c) Sedimentary rocks (d) None of these (c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (c) Sedimentary rocks Ans : (d) Tamil Nadu
2. The toothbrush and tube containing paste are made 8. Which of the following is a mineral?
up of plastic obtained from (a) Diamond (b) Talc
(a) Mica (b) Petroleum (c) Mica (d) All of these
(c) Fibre (d) Paper Ans : (d) All of these
Ans : (b) Petroleum
9. Large reserves of natural gas have been discovered in
3. Ferrous minerals account for about .......... of the total which place in India?
value of production of metallic minerals. (a) Arabian Sea
(a) One-fourth (b) Two-fourth
(c) Three-fourth (d) Two-third
Ans : (c) Three-fourth
4. Which of the following is the basic mineral and the

backbone of industrial development?
(a) Zinc ore (b) Iron ore
(c) Manganese ore (d) Silver ore
Ans : (b) Silver ore
5. Which one of the following metals can be obtained

from Bauxite?
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper
(c) Iron (d) Silver
Ans : (a) Aluminium
6. Oceans beds are a treasure house of:

(a) fishes (b) minerals
Ans : (a) 63%
(b) Andaman Nicobar Islands
(c) Krishna Godavari Basin 14. Which one of the following places is known for lignite
(d) Gulf of Mannar deposits?
(a) Khetri (b) Neyeli
Ans : (c) Krishna Godavari Basin
(c) Baliadila (d) Bokaro
10. Which out of the following metallic minerals is Ans : (b) Neyeli
obtained from veins and lodes?
(a) Zinc (b) Limestone NO NEED TO PURCHASE ANY BOOKS
(c) Rutile (d) Mica
Ans : (a) Zinc www.cbse.online for
11. In which of the following minerals is India sufficient? Bank
(a) Gold (b) Glass 2. Previous Ten Years Exam Paper (Paper-wise).
(c) Limestone (d) All of these 3. 20 Model Paper (All Solved).
Ans : (c) Lime Stone 4. NCERT Solutions
12. Minerals are generally found in: provided by 30 September and will be updated regularly.
(a) ores (b) rocks
(c) soil (d) none of these 15. Which type of sand in Kerala is rich in thorium?
Ans : (a ) ores (a) Monazite sands (b) Gypsum snads
(c) Silica sands (d) Black sands
13. What quantity of India’s petroleum production is
obtained from Mumbai High? Ans : (a) Monazite sands
(a) 63% (b) 36% 16. Which of the following mineral is used to reduce
(c) 69% (d) 65%
Chap 2.5 : Minerals and Energy Resources www.cbse.online
cavities in teeth? 4. Geographers study .......... as part of the earth’s crust

(a) Limestone (b) Aluminium oxide for a better understanding of landforms.
(c) Fluoride (d) Silica Ans : minerals
Ans : (c) Fluoride 5. Rocks are combinations of homogenous substances
17. The white colour in tooth paste comes from which of called .......... .
the following? Ans : minerals
(a) Titanium oxide (b) Fluoride
6. Fluoride which is used to reduce cavities comes from
(c) Silica (d) Limestone a mineral .......... .
Ans : (a) Titanium oxide Ans : flourite
18. The mineral having wide application in the electrical 7. Minerals are usually found in .......... .
industry is: Ans : ores
(a) nickel (b) manganese
(c) iron ore (d) zinc
Ans : (c) iron ore 3. TRUE/FALSE
19. Which is the finest iron ore with a very high content DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
of iron? write if it is true or false.
(a) Magnetite (b) Haematite
(c) Limonite (d) None of these 1. Thermal energy is obtained by altering the structure
of atoms.
Ans : (a) Magnetite
Ans : False
20. The Badamphar mine in Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar
2. Coal mining in Jowai and Cherapunjee is done by
district is situated in which of the following Indian
family member in the form of a long narrow tunnel,
state?
known as rat hole mining.
(a) Karnataka (b) Odisha
Ans : True
(c) Chattisgarh (d) Jharkhand
Ans : (b) Odisha 3. Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state in India.
Ans : True
21. In India, the Gulf of Khambhat, The Gulf of Kuchch
and Gangetic delta provide ideal condition for utilising 4. Mineral oil is the next major energy resource in India
which energy? after coal.
(a) Tidal energy Ans : True
(b) Wind energy
(c) Solar energy 5. Anthracite is the highest quality hard coal.
(d) Non-conventional energy Ans : True
Ans : (a) Tidal energy 6. Kudremukh mines Madhya Pradesh produces 52% of
India’s copper.
22. Iron ore is exported Japan and South Korea via which
Ans : False
port?
(a) Chennai (b) Vishakhapatnam 7. There are over 380 thermal plants in India.
(c) Haldia (d) Mangaluru Ans : False
Ans : (b) Vishakhapatnam
8. The largest solar plant of India is located at Madhpur,
near Bhuj.
2. FILL IN THE BLANK Ans : True

appropriate word(s). 4. ASSERTION AND REASON
1. In .......... and .......... rocks minerals may occur in the DIRECTION : In the following questions, a statement of
cracks, crevices, faults or joints. assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the
Ans : igneous, metamorphic correct choice as :
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason
2. The sparkle in some toothpaste comes from .......... .
Ans : mica
3. Although, over .......... minerals have been identified, not the correct explanation of assertion.
only a few are abundantly found in most of the rocks. (c) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
Ans : 2000 (d) If Both assertion and reason are false.
Chap 2.5 : Minerals and Energy Resources www.rava.org.in
1. Assertion : Uses of iron brought a radical change in heavy industries

human life.
Reason : Different kinds of tools where invented
by using minerals
Revolution in agriculture-different type of tools
invented like axe, hook, plough etc., revolution in
industry-different tools and machines like spinning
and also revolution in transportation- bullock- cart,
ships, boats etc brought a radical change in human life
2. Assertion : Mining activity is often called a “Killer
Industry”.
Reason : Mining helps in agriculture.
Mining is a source a deforestation, high risk is involved,
water sources get contaminated and mining doesn’t
help in agriculture.
3. Assertion : Iron ore is the basic mineral and the
backbone of India.
Reason : India is rich in good quality Iron ore.
Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of
industrial development. India is rich in good quality
iron ores. Iron ore is exported largely from India,
however the reason does not justify the assertion.
4. Assertion : Mica is a metallic mineral.
Reason : Mica mineral is the basic raw material
for cement industry
Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or
leaves. It is a non-metallic mineral and it is used in
electric and electronic industries.
5. Assertion : Minerals are an indispensable part of our
lives.
Reason : Minerals have a universal use, they are
used to manufacture everything we use in our day
to day lives.
Minerals are found in varied forms in nature. Even the
food that we eat contains minerals. Almost everything
we use, from a tiny pinto a towering building or a big
ship, all are made from minerals.
6. Assertion : Geological processes of mineral formation
is slow
Reason : Minerals resources are consumed way
quickly than they are formed.
Mineral formation is slow as it requires millions of
years to be created but are used very quickly in
comparison.
7. Assertion : Thermal power stations are located on or
near the coalfields.
Reason : Coal is a bulky material, which loses
weight on use as it is reduced to ash. Hence,
and thermal power stations are located on or Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
near the coalfields. Increased use of fossil fuels causes serious
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and environmental problems. Hence, there is a
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. pressing need to use renewable energy sources
like solar energy, wind, tide, biomass and energy
from waste material.
8. Assertion : Natural gas is referred as an
10. Assertion : Conservation of Energy Resources is
environment friendly fuel.
essential.
Reason : Natural gas contains low carbon
Reason : Energy is a basic requirement for
dioxide emissions.
economic development.
Natural gas is considered an environment
Energy saved is energy produced, the economic
friendly fuel because of low carbon dioxide
development plans implemented since
Emissions.
Independence necessarily required increasing
9. Assertion : Increased use of fossil fuels creates a amounts of energy to remain operational.
healthy environment.
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Reason : Fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas are
easily obtained from natural resource.
Chap 2.6 : Manufacturing Industries www.cbse.online

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 2.6
Manufacturing Industries
Ans : (d) Sugar

5. Which of the following country is the largest producer
1. Processing of jute and rubber falls under which of the of jute in the world?
following industries? (a) India (b) Pakistan
(a) Agro based (b) Mineral based (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
(c) Business based (d) None of these Ans : (c) Bangladesh
Ans : (a) Agro based
6. Which country has the largest installed capacity of
2. Which of the following is a mineral based product? spindles in the world?
(a) Woollen (b) Tea (a) Japan (b) Philippines
(c) Cotton (d) Cement (c) China (d) India
Ans : (d) Cement Ans : (c) China
3. Iron and steel industry is an example of which 7. Which of the following activities employees people in
industry? the manufacturing of primary materials into finished
(a) Basic industry goods?
(a) Secondary activities (b) Primary activities
(b) Mineral based industry
(c) Tertiary activities (d) None of these
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of these Ans : (a) Secondary activities
Ans : (c) Both of the above 8. Industries cause .......... pollution.
(a) land (b) water
4. Which of the following is produced for direct use of
(c) air (d) noise
consumers?
(a) Copper (b) Petrochemicals Ans : (c) air
(c) Aluminium (d) Sugar
9. Tools, implements, fertilisers, tractors, etc. are
supplied by:
(a) government (b) industry
(c) people (d) none of these
Ans : (b) industry
10. Which sector is considered as the backbone in the

overall economic development of a country?
(a) Manufacturing sector (b) Service sector
(c) Agriculture sector (d) None of these
Ans : (b) Service sector
11. The industries which have heavy types of raw

material are called:
(a) light industries (b) market
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
Ans : (d) none of these
12. Which of the following is transformed into a wide

variety of furnished goods of higher value?
(a) Manufactured goods (b) Raw material
(c) Industrial goods (d) All of these
Ans : (b) Raw material
13. Molasses are used to make:

(a) rum (b) rubber
(c) ethanol (d) none of these
Ans : (a) rum
14. What is the contribution of industry to GDP?

(a) 17% (b) 19% in total of 29%
(c) 21% in total of 31% (d) 23% in total of 33%
Ans : (a) 17%
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Bank
4. NCERT Solutions
15. Which out of the following is a mineral based industry?
(a) Sugar (b) Tea
(c) Coffee (d) Petrochemicals
Ans : (d) Petrochemicals
16. Which of following occurs after the increase in
Chap 2.6 : Manufacturing Industries www.rava.org.in
industrial activities? located in Odisha?

(a) Urbanisation (a) Durgapur (b) Bokaro
(b) Rural expansion (c) Rourkela (d) Jameshedpur
(c) Development (Loss of labour) Ans : (c) Rourkela
(d) All of these
Ans : (a) Urbanisation
2. FILL IN THE BLANK
17. ........... is caused by the presence of high proportion of
undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with
monoxide. appropriate word(s).
(a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution
1. Raw material is the prime consideration of .......... .
(c) Noise pollution (d) All of these
Ans : industries
Ans : (a) Air pollution
2. .......... industry provides employment to weavers at
18. Which of the following is emitted by chemical and home as a cottage industry.
paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting
Ans : Handspun khadi
plants?
(a) Fog (b) Smoke 3. India, is the largest exporter of Jute after .......... .
(c) Water vapour (d) All of these Ans : Bangladesh
Ans : (b) All of these
4. The .......... strength of a country in measured by the
19. Which one of the following is manufactured at Salem? development of an industry.
(a) Steel (b) Cotton Ans : economic strength
(c) Aluminium (d) Copper
5. The first textile mill was established in .......... .
Ans : (a) Steel
Ans : Gujarat
20. Which of the following adversely affects human
6. .......... is an agro-based raw material. (Jute/Cement)
health, animals, plants, building and the atmosphere
as whole? Ans : Jute
(a) Noise pollution (b) Thermal pollution 7. In India, most of the jute mills are located in .......... .
(c) Air pollution (d) Water pollution Ans : West Bengal
Ans : (c) Air pollution
21. Which of the following is caused by the discharge of 3. TRUE/FALSE

organic and inorganic industrial waste and affluents?
(a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(c) Noise pollution (d) Thermal pollution write if it is true or false.
Ans : (b) Water pollution
1. The jute industry supports one lakh workers directly.
22. Which one of the following organizations is responsible Ans : False
for the marketing of steel of the Public Sector
Undertaking? 2. Mineral-based industries use metals and minerals as
(a) TISCO (b) IISCO raw material.
(c) BHEL (d) SAIL Ans : True
Ans : (d) SAIL 3. Iron and steel is considered heavy industry.

Ans : (T)
23. Paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum
refineries and tanneries are agents of causing which 4. India occupies second place in the production of Gur
type of pollution? and Khandsari.
(a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution
Ans : False
(c) Noise pollution (d) None of these
Ans : (b) Water pollution 5. The first successful textile mill was established in
Mumbai in 1854.
24. Which is the only industry in India which is self- Ans : True
reliant?
(a) Textile industry (b) Iron and steel 6. The handspun khadi provides large scale employment
(c) Electrical (d) Sugar to weavers in their home as a cottage industry.
Ans : True
Ans : (a) Textile industry
25. Which one of the following iron and steel plants is

Chap 2.6 : Manufacturing Industries www.cbse.online
DIRECTION : In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
1. Assertion : Consumer industries produces goods for direct use by consumers.
Reason : Consumer industries are Agro based.
Consumer industries that produce goods for direct use by consumers like sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines,
fans are Agro-based. The reason does not explain the Assertion
2. Assertion : Industrial development cannot minimize environmental degradation.
Reason : Environmental degradation depends on the raw material used.
Proper fuel selection and utilization, smoke can be prevented by the use of oil instead of coal in industries and
equipment’s to control emissions can minimize environmental degradation.
3. Assertion : Industries gives boost to the agricultural sector.
Reason : Competetivenes of manufacturing industry has helped in increasing their production and also made
production process efficient.
4. Assertion : Textile industry occupies a unique position in Indian economy.
Reason : it contributes significantly to industrial production employment generation directly.
It is the only industry in the country, which is self- reliant and complete in the value Chain, from raw material to the
highest value added products. The reason justifies the assertion.
5. Assertion : Aluminum is a universally accepted metal for a large number of industries
Reason : Aluminum is flexible and a good conductor of heat and electricity.
In India, Aluminum smelting is the second largest industry. It is flexible, good conductor of heat and electricity and
hence is a universally accepted metal for a large number of industries. It is widely used as a substitute of copper, zinc,
lead and steel.
6. Assertion : Air pollution is caused by the presence of
high proportion of undesirable gases.
Reason : Air pollution does not affect human health, animals, plants, buildings and the atmosphere as a whole.
Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon
monoxide. Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke and
adversely affect human health, plants & animals.
7. Assertion : Chemical industries are lagging behind in India.
Reason : Only small scale industries are present and growth of this industry is very less comparatively.
Chemical industries in India are fast growing and diversifying .There is a rapid growth in the manufacture of organic
and inorganic chemicals.
8. Assertion : Most of the Jute mills of India located in West Bengal.
Reason : Bus facility is available to export the manufactured goods.
Most of the Jute mills are located in West Bengal due to:
a. Jute producing area is close to the jute mill.
b. Water is available in plenty.
c. Labour is cheap.
d. Water transport is cheap. The reason is right but does not explain the assertion.
9. Assertion : Harvesting of rainwater reduces Industrial pollution of fresh water.
Reason : Rainwater helps industry to meet water requirements.
Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes eight times the quantity of Freshwater, harvesting of
rainwater replenishes the water table and thus helps industry to meet its water requirements.
10. Assertion : The economic strength of the country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.
Reason : India’s prosperity lies in diversifying its manufacturing industries,
Industries creates a variety of good and thus reduce the dependence of the people on agriculture. Exports of
manufactured goods add value to the economy.
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Chap 2.7 : Lifelines of National Economy www.rava.org.in
CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 2.7
Lifelines of National Economy
(a) Delhi and Kanyakumari

1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (b) Delhi and Mumbai
(c) Jabalpur and Madurai
1. Tourism help in the development of international (d) Varanasi and Kanyakumari
understanding and ..........
Ans : (d) Varanasi and Kanyakumari
(a) Brotherhood (b) National pride
(c) Culture and heritage (d) Handicrafts 4. Which one of the following is the eastern terminal
Ans : (c) Culture and heritage of East-West Corridor?
(a) Shilong (b) Silvassa
2. Which of the following visits India for heritage (c) Silchar (d) Singrauli
tourism, eco tourism, adventure tourism, cultural
Ans : (c) Silchar
tourism, medical tourism and business tourism?
(a) Foreign tourists (b) Local tourists 5. Which two of the following extreme locations are
(c) Students as tourists (d) None of the above connected by the East-West Corridors?
Ans : (a) Foreign tourists (a) Srinagar and Kanyakumari
(b) Silcher and Porbandar
3. What locations are connected by the longest National (c) Mumbai and Kolkata
Highway-7?
(d) Nagpur and Siligudi
Sher-Shah Suri Marg?
Ans : (b) Silcher and Porbandar (a) National Highway-5 (b) National Highway-7
6. Which one of the following ports was developed to (c) National Highway-1 (d) National Highway-9
relieve the pressure on Kolkata port? Ans : (c) National Highway-1
(a) Haldia (b) Paradip
9. Countries like Nepal and Bhutan are called:
(c) Vishakhapatnam (d) Navasheva
(a) coastal countries (b) landlocked countries
Ans : (a) Haldia (c) gulf countries (d) none of these
7. The main type of water transport is: Ans : (b) landlocked countries
(a) ocean (b) inland waterways
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these NO NEED TO PURCHASE ANY BOOKS
Ans : (a) ocean For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at
www.cbse.online for
8. Which of the following National Highway is called 1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question
Bank
4. NCERT Solutions
10. Air transport was nationalised in the year:

(a) 1948 (b) 1953
(c) 1970 (d) 1960
Ans : (b) 1953
11. .......... has one of the largest road networks in the

world, aggregating to about 2.3 million km at present.
(a) India (b) China
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
Ans : (a) India
12. What is the major objective of the Super Highways?

(a) To reduce time and distance between mega cities.
(b) To break inter-state barriers.
(c) To compete with the railways in India.
(d) None of these
Ans : (a) To reduce time and distance between mega
cities.
13. Which of the following corridors links Srinagar and

Kanyakumari?
(a) North-South corridor (b) East-West corridor
(c) North-East corridor (d) Sout-West corridor
Ans : (a) North-South corridor
14. The National Highway 1 connects which of the

following places in India?
(a) Delhi-Amritsar (b) Delhi-Patiala
(c) Delhi-Kahmir (d) Delhi-Lucknow
Chap 2.7 : Lifelines of National Economy www.cbse.online
Ans : (a) Delhi-Amritsar pursuits?

(a) Tourism (b) Sports
15. Which of the following roads received special impetus
(c) Services (d) National Heritages
under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadal Yojana?
(a) Rural roads (b) Urban roads Ans : (a) Tourism
(c) District roads (d) National Highways
Ans : (a) Rural roads 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
16. How many type of important networks of pipeline
transportation are there in the country?
appropriate word(s).
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four 1. The first port developed soon after independence is
Ans : (c) Three .......... .
Ans : Kandla
17. Gas pipelines from Hazira in Gujarat connects
Jagdishpur in which of the following state? 2. The National Highway links .......... parts of the
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh country.
(c) Bihar (d) Himachal Pradesh Ans : extreme
Ans : (b) Uttar Pradesh 3. .......... are the cheapest means of transport.
18. Which of the following was the first port developed Ans : Waterways
soon after Independence to use the volume of trade on
4. Under the government scheme of .......... , every village
the Mumbai port?
of the country is linked to a major town in the country
(a) Kandla (b) Karachi
by a motorable road.
(c) Kochi (d) Vizag
Ans : Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojna
Ans : ( )
5. With the development in .......... and .......... , the area
19. Which of the following port was planned with a veiw of influence of trade and transport, expanded far and
to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a port to wide.
this region? Ans : science, technology
(a) Kandla port (b) Marmagao port
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru port (d) None of the above 6. .......... connect the district headquarters with other
places of the district.
Ans : (c) Jawaharlal Nehru port
Ans : Districts roads
20. How many railway zones are there in India?
(a) 14 zones (b) 15 zones
(c) 16 zones (d) 18 zones 3. TRUE/FALSE
Ans : (c) 16 zones DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
21. How much is the contribution of agriculture and allied write if it is true or false.
products in the export of India?
1. The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia is
(a) 7.5% (b) 4%
National Waterway No. 1.
(c) 9.9% (d) 6.3%
Ans : True
Ans : (c) 9.9%
2. Extreme south-eastern port of Tuticorn is in Kerala.
22. The highway projects are being implement by: Ans : False
(a) Central Public Words Department
(b) State Public Works Department 3. Pawanhans Helicopters Ltd. provides helicopter
(c) National Highway Authority of India services to oil and Natural Gas Corporation in its off-
shore operations to inaccessible areas.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans : True
Ans : (c) National Highway Authority of India
4. Air travel is within a reach of the common people.
23. What percentage of foreign tourists arrivals in the
Ans : False
country witnessed in the year 2010 against the year
2009? 5. Marmagao port is the premier iron ore exporting port
(a) 10.8% (b) 11.8% of the country.
(c) 12.8% (d) 13.8% Ans : True
Ans : (b) 11.8%
24. Which of the following promotes national integration 4. ASSERTION AND REASON
and provides support to local handicrafts and cultural
Chap 2.7 : Lifelines of National Economy www.rava.org.in
DIRECTION : In the following questions, a statement of of goods.

assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
correct choice as :
Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true and reason running costs are minimal. It rules out trans¬shipment
is the correct explanation of assertion. losses and delays.
7. Assertion : Transport and communications are called
not the correct explanation of assertion.
lifelines of our economy.
(c) If Assertion is true but reason is false. Reason : Transport and communications do not help
(d) If Both assertion and reason are false. in easy movement of goods and materials between
1. Assertion : Road transportation in India faces a countries
number of problems. Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Reason : Roads are unmetalied, their network is Transport and communications are called lifelines of
adequate. our economy as they reduces distances, brings people
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and close to another by promoting interdependence among
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. themselves and mainly helps in trade and commerce
Density of all roads varies, keeping in view the within the country. Thus the reason is false.
volume of traffic and passengers, the road network 8. Assertion : Tourism promotes national integration.
is inadequate, they are unmetalled and unfit for use, Reason : Millions of people are directly engaged in
posing a lot of problems for transportation. tourism industry.
2. Assertion : Communication is unessential requirement Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but
of human life. reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason : Communication between people does not Tourism promotes national integration and helps in
create awareness. the development of understanding among various
Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false. countries about our culture and heritage.
The increase in population and the change in the 9. Assertion : Mass communication promotes national
modes of communication are the result of increased integration and provides entertainment.
human movement and transport of materials and Reason : It strengthens democracy in the country
goods. These provide healthy entertainment. They are by providing news to the masses. They feel attached
thus essential in life, thus both Assertion and reason to the country and a feeling of Nationalism arises in
are false. them.
3. Assertion : Waterways are the cheapest means of Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
transport. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason : It is a fuel-efficient and environment friendly Mass communication provides entertainment and
mode of transport. helps in creating awareness among people. The reason
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and justifies the assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. WWW.CBSE.ONLINE
The reason justifies the Assertion.
4. Assertion : Trade is considered as the economic
barometer of the country. For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at
Reason : Trading helps largely in developing countries www.cbse.online for
like India. Advancement of trade is an index to its 1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question
economic prosperity. Bank
4. NCERT Solutions
The reason explains the assertion. All material will be solved and free pdf. It will be
5. Assertion : International trade has undergone a sea of provided by 30 September and will be updated regularly.
changes in the last decades.
Reason: Exchange of commodities and goods have
been superseded by the exchange of information and
knowledge
India has emerged as a software giant at the international
level and it is earning large foreign exchange through
the export of information technology.
6. Assertion : Cost of laying pipelines is less but
subsequent running costs are maximum
Reason : Pipelines do not facilitate easy transportation
Chap 3.1 : Power Sharing www.rava.org.in
CLASS : 10th
Unit 4 : Democtracis Politics - II
CHAPTER 3.1
Power Sharing
1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS Ans : (b) Civil war
10. Belgium has worked on the principles of:

1. Which one of the following countries does not share its (a) majoritarianism (b) accommodation
boundary with Belgium? (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
(a) France (b) Netherlands Ans : (b) accommodation
(c) Sweden (d) Luxembourg
Ans : (c) Sweden 11. Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres
from the Southern coast of
2. In Belgium, the percentage of French community is: (a) Goa (b) Kerala
(a) 54% (b) 40% (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Lakshadweep
(c) 30% (d) 20% Ans : (c) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (b) 40%
3. Which language is dominantly spoken in Belgium? 12. Majoritarianist constitution was adopted by:
(a) Dutch (b) Spanish (a) Belgium (b) India
(c) France (d) Italian (c) Sri Lanka (d) Pakistan
Ans : (a) Dutch Ans : (c) Sri Lanka
4. Power struggle demanding separate Eelam was 13. What is the percentage of Sinhala-speaking people in
launched by: Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhalese (b) Buddhists (a) 74% (b) 75%
(c) Tamilians (d) none of these (c) 14% (d) 19%
Ans : (c) Tamilians Ans : (a) 74%
5. Which of the following is the capital city of Belgium? 14. What is the percentage of Sri Lankan Tamils out of
(a) Bruges (b) Brussels the total population of Sri Lanka?
(c) Ghent (d) Antwerp (a) 10 percent (b) 19 percent
(c) 13 percent (d) 25 percent
Ans : (b) Brussels
Ans : (c) 13 percent
6. Belgium shares its border with:
(a) France (b) Germany 15. Power sharing is desirable because it
(c) Luxembourg (d) all of the above (a) helps the people of different communities to
celebrated their festivals.
Ans : (d) all of the above
(b) imposes the will of the majority community over
7. What proportion of population speaks French in the others.
capital city of Belgium? (c) reduces the conflict between social groups.
(a) Bruges (b) Brussels (d) ensures the stability of political order.
(c) Ghent (d) Antwep
Ans : (c) reduces the conflict between social groups.
Ans : (d) Antwep
8. Power shared among governments at different levels

is also called:
(a) horizontal distribution (b) vertical distribution
(c) slant distribution (d) none of the above
Ans : (b) vertical distribution
9. A war-like conflict between two opposite groups in a

country is called
(a) Cold war (b) Civil war
(c) Ethnic war (d) None of these
Chap 3.1 : Power Sharing www.cbse.online
16. Intelligent sharing of power is done among Ans : (c) Tamilians

(a) Legislature and Central Government
(b) Executive and Judiciary
(c) Legislature and Executive
(d) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
Ans : (d) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary appropriate word(s).
17. Division of power between higher and lower level of 1. In Belgium, three communities are living .......... ,
government is known as .......... and .......... .
(a) vertical division of power Ans : French, Dutch and German speaking
(b) horizontal distribution of power
(c) union division of power 2. .......... has started power struggle demanding separate
Eelam in Sri Lanka.
(d) community division of power
Ans : Tamilians political organisation
Ans : (a) vertical division of power
3. .......... was started in Sri Lanka due to distrust
18. The capital city of Belgium is: between the two communities.
(a) Dutch (b) France
Ans : Civil War
(c) Brussels (d) none of the above
Ans : (c) Brussels 4. Both .......... and .......... share power on an equal basis
at .......... in Belgium.
19. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of: Ans : Dutch, French speaking people, central
(a) population (b) political order government
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
Ans : (b) political order 5. In Belgium, lastly the power is shared between ..........
, .......... and .......... .
20. When power is shared among different organs of the Ans : Central, State, Community Government
government it is called as
(a) horizontal distribution of power
(b) community distribution of power 3. TRUE/FALSE
(c) coalition of power
(d) federal distribution of power DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
write if it is true or false.
Ans : (a) horizontal distribution of power
1. Power sharing increases the possibility of conflict
21. Which of the following is not the benefit of power between social groups.
sharing?
Ans : False
(a) It upholds the spirit of democracy.
(b) Political parties get their expected share. 2. Sri Lanka is facing the problems because of supporting
(c) It ensures political stability in the long-run. the Tamilians in the state.
(d) It reduces the possibility of conflicts between Ans : True
social groups.
3. Belgium has French people in majority whereas the
Ans : (b) Political parties get their expected share. others struggle for their rights.
22. An Act of recognising Sinhala as the official language Ans : False
was signed in:
4. Power sharing is desirable and reduces possibilities of
(a) 1942 (b) 1956
conflict within the country.
(c) 1954 (d) 1948
Ans : True
Ans : (b) 1956
5. Belgium and Sri Lanka are the two similar causes in
23. Which of the following is not the form of power
the struggle of people.
sharing?
Ans : True
(a) Vertical division of power
(b) Horizontal division of power 6. The feeling of accommodation has led to the problem
(c) Division of power between people in Sri Lanka.
(d) Division of power among social groups Ans : False
Ans : (c) Division of power between people
24. Power struggle demanding separating Eelam was 4. ASSERTION AND REASON
launched by:
(a) Sinhalese (b) Buddhists DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable :
(c) Tamilians (d) none of the above (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
Chap 3.1 : Power Sharing www.rava.org.in
the correct explanation of assertion. representation to all the communities.

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
1. Assertion : Tyranny of majority is highly desirable.
Reason : It helps in making the political order more
stable.
Tyranny of majority community is oppressive for the
minority community and can also ruin the majority.
It is a source of dissatisfaction and tension which is a
source of political instability.
2. Assertion : In Belgium, the leaders realized that the
unity of the country is possible by respecting the
feelings and interest of different countries.
Reason : Belgium favoured Dutch speaking
community.
Belgians adapted a power sharing arrangement in
which all the communities have equal representation.
This helped in relieving tension between the different
communities. Thus they did not favour am/ particular
community. Both the assertion and reason are false.
3. Assertion : French speaking community in Belgium
was rich and powerful.
Reason : Belgian Government favoured French
speaking community.
There was ethnic tension between French speaking
and Dutch speaking communities in Belgium. For
resolving, the government adopted a power sharing
armgemnt where all the communities got equal
representation.
4. Assertion : In a democracy, everyone has voice in the
shaping of public policies.
Reason : India has federal system.
In a democracy, people elect the representatives
who participate in the decision making process. Due
respect and proper representation is given to diverse
groups in a democratic system. Hence, in democracy
everyone has voice in the shaping of public policies.
However the reason does not justify the assertion.
5. Assertion : Power should reside with one person and
group located at one place in a democracy.
Reason : If the power is dispersed, it will not be
possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.
In a good democratic government, due respect is given
to diverse groups and views that exist in the society.
Hence, political power should be distributed among
citizens.
6. Assertion : Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced ethical
tension among different communities.
Reason : Both the countries resolved the conflict
by power sharing arrangement which gave equal
Community government is elected by people of one
language community, i.e. French, Dutch and German
Belgians adopted a power sharing model where all the speaking. Such a government has power related to
communities got equal representation; this helped in culture, education and language issues. It helps in
solving tension between different communities. resolving conflicts between different ethical groups by
However, Sri Lanka tried to promote the supremacy of safeguarding the interest of its group.
Sinhala community which eventually led to civil war.
9. Assertion : Sinhala was recognized as only official
Thus the reason is false.
language of Sri Lanka.
7. Assertion : There was a feeling of alienation among Sri Reason : The government of Sri Lanka wanted to
Lankan Tamils. establish the supremacy of Sinhala community.
Reason : The Sri Lankan government denied them Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
equal political rights and discriminated against them reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
in getting jobs and other opportunities,
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and The government of Sri Lanka passed an Act in 1956
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. to recognize Sinhala as only official language of Sri
Lanka. The government also formulated preferential
An act was passed in 1956 to recognize Sinhala as an policies to favour Sinhala applicants for university
official language. The government of Sri Lanka positions and government jobs. All this was done to
favoured people from Sinhala community for higher establish supremacy of Sinhala community. Thus the
education and government jobs. It led to resentment reason justifies the assertion.
among Sri Lankan Tamils as government was not
10. Assertion : Power Sharing is good.
sensitive to their culture and language.
Reason : It leads to ethical tension.
8. Assertion : Community government in Belgium is Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. /
elected by one language community.
Reason : Community government helped in resolving Power Sharing is good because it helps in reducing the
conflict between different linguistic groups. chances of conflict between different social groups and
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and ensures stability of the political system.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. WWW.CBSE.ONLINE
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Chap 3.2 : Federalism www.cbse.online

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 3.2
Unit 4 : Democtracis Politics - II
Federalism
government?
1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (a) Belgium, Spain and India
(b) USA Japan and Belgium
1. Belgium shifted from a unitary form of government to: (c) United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka
(a) democratic (b) federal (d) France, Germany and India
(c) authoritarian (d) none of the above Ans : (c) USA Japan and Belgium
Ans : (b) federal
5. In federal system, central government cannot order
2. Which type of government does the Belgium have? the:
(a) Federal (b) Communist (a) principal (b) local government
(c) Unitary (d) Central (c) state government (d) none of the above
Ans : (a) Federal Ans : (c) state government
3. In federalism, power is divided between various 6. A system of government in which power is divided
constituent units and: between a central authority and various constituent
(a) central authority (b) states unit of the country is called
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above (a) Federalism (b) Communal-ism
(c) Socialism (d) Democracy
Ans : (a) central authority
Ans : (a) Federalism
4. Which countries follow the unitary system of
7. State government has powers of its own for which it is
9. Power to interpret the constitution is with the:
not answerable to the:
(a) courts (b) judiciary
(a) central government (b) judiciary
(c) state government (d) none of the above
Ans : (b) judiciary
Ans : (b) judiciary
10. In Unitary form of government
8. Which country is an example of coming together
(a) all the power is divided between the centre/union
federation?
and the state provincial government.
(a) Belgium (b) USA
(b) all the power is with the citizens.
(c) Sri Lanka (d) India
(c) State Government has all the powers
Ans : (b) USA
(d) power is concentrated with the Central
Government.
Ans : (d) power is concentrated with the Central
Government.
11. The place of Rajasthan where India conducted its

nuclear tests is
(a) Kalikat (b) Pokharan
(c) Kavaratti (d) Karaikal
Ans : (b) Pokharan
12. The coming together federation is:

(a) India (b) Spain
(c) USA (d) Australia
Ans : (c) USA

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4. NCERT Solutions
13. The first and major test for democratic politics in our
country was
(a) caste problem
(b) language problem
(c) problems related to union territories
(d) creation of linguistic state
Ans : (d) creation of linguistic state
14. Indian official language is:

(a) Hindi (b) English
(c) Urdu (d) None of these
Ans : (a) Hindi
Chap 3.2 : Federalism www.rava.org.in
15. How many languages are included in the Eight Ans : (a) Decentralisation
Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 15 (b) 22
(c) 25 (d) 21 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
Ans : (b) 22
16. Which language has status of the national language appropriate word(s).
in India?
1. Holding together country decides to divide its power
(a) Tamil (b) Hindi
between the .......... and .......... .
(c) English (d) None of these
Ans : the national government, constituent states
Ans : (d) None of these
2. First major test of democratic politics in our country
17. The municipal corporation officers are called: was the creation of .......... .
(a) Mayors (b) MLAs Ans : linguistic states
(c) Sarpanchs (d) none of these
3. Under the .......... system, either there is only one level
Ans : (a) Mayors
of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the
18. Who can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned central government.
in the Union list? Ans : Unitary
(a) Local Government (b) State Government
4. .......... list includes subjects of national importance
(c) Union Government (d) State and Union
such as defence of the country, foreign affairs etc.
Ans : (c) Union Government Ans : Union
19. Federations have been formed with the two kinds of: 5. The .......... overseas the implementation of
(a) states (b) routes constitutional and procedures.
(c) people (d) none of the above Ans : Judiciary
Ans : (a) state
6. .......... in India enjoys a special status. This state has
20. The state which violently demanded that the use of its own constitution.
English for official purpose should be continued, is Ans : Jammu and Kashmir
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (c) Tamil Nadu
3. TRUE/FALSE
21. To make India a strong federation, we need: DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(a) written constitution (b) rigid constitution write if it is true or false.
(c) independent judiciary (d) all of the above
1. Besides Hindi, India has 21 official languages.
Ans : (d) all of the above Ans : True
22. Major step towards decentralisation in India was 2. 1980s was the era of coalition governments.
taken up in
Ans : False
(a) 1992 (b) 1993
(c) 1991 (d) 1990 3. Second test for the Indian Federation was the language
Ans : (a) 1992 policy
Ans : True
23. Who has special power in administering the Union
Territories in India? 4. When the power is taken from the local and state
(a) Central Government (b) Chief Minister government and given to central government, it is
(c) President (d) Governor called decentralisation.
Ans : False
Ans : (a) Central Government
5. Decentralisation helps to build effective communication.
24. Who is the head of urban local government?
(a) Sarpanch (b) Ward commissioner Ans : True
(c) Mukhiya (d) Mayor
Ans : (d) Mayor 4. ASSERTION AND REASON
25. When power is taken away from state governments
and is given to local government, it is called
(a) Decentralisation (b) Centralisation (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(c) Panchayat Samiti (d) Federalism the correct explanation of assertion.
Chap 3.2 : Federalism www.cbse.online

1. Assertion : Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’ federation.
Reason : A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.
The power of a large country is divided between constituent states and national government. The central government
is more powerful than the states.
2. Assertion : Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.
Reason : It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.
Hindi is the identified as official language of India. However, it is spoken by only 40 per cent of Indians. Thus, to
safeguard the rights of other linguistic communities, 21 other languages were recognized as Scheduled Languages by
the Constitution.
3. Assertion : It is very simple to make the changes in the basic structure of the constitution.
Reason : Both the houses have power to amend the constitution independently.
It is difficult to make changes in the constitution in the federal system. Any change has to be first passed through
both the houses of Parliament through atleast two-third majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of
atleast half of the total states. Thus both reason and assertion are false.
4. Assertion : India is a federation.
Reason : Power resides with the central authority. Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
India is a federal government and there is three-tier system of power sharing with central government, state
government and local self government. It is a union of states and not a federation.
5. Assertion : Coalition government is formed during dearth of coal in the country.
Reason : It helps in overcoming coal crisis.
When no party is able to prove clear cut majority, several regional parties come together to form coalition government.
It has no connection with scarcity of coal in the country.
6. Assertion : The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and Concurrent List are considered as
residuary subjects.
Reason : The subjects included that came after constitution was made and thus could not be classified. Ans : (a)
Both assertion and reason are true and
The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and Concurrent List are considered as
Residuary subjects. It includes the subjects such as computer software that came after constitution was made. Union
Government has power to legislate on these ‘residuary’ subjects.
7. Assertion : India has a federal system.
Reason : Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate
to central government.
India has a federal government. There is a central government for the entire country and state governments for
different regions. The reason is also true but does not justify the statement.
8. Assertion : Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.
Reason : Mayor is the head of municipalities.
Panchayat samitis of a district together form the zilla parishad. Zilla Parishad chairperson is the political head of
the zilla parishad. Municipalities are set up in towns. Mayor is the head of municipalities. The reason does not
however explain the assertion.
9. Assertion : A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992 by amending the constitution.
Reason : Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more powerful and effective.
The constitution was amended in 1992 to make the third tier more powerful and effective. It includes steps like
regular elections for local government bodies, reservation of seats for OBC, SC, ST and women and creation of
State Election Commission. The reason thus justifies the assertion.
10. Assertion : Third-tier of government is local government.
Reason : It made democracy weak.
The third tier of government is done through decentralisation. It helped in making democracy stronger by
Biging it to grass root level. Thus, the reason is false but assertion stands true.
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Chap 3.3 : Democracy and Diversity www.rava.org.in

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 3.3
Unit 3 : Democractic Politics - II
Democracy and Diversity
Ans : (a) Black Power Movement

5. What is the term used to refer mainly to the descendants
1. By the end of 17th century, people got the liberty of: of Africans who were brought into America as slaves
(a) speech (b) choosing government between the 17th and early 19th century?
(a) Asian-Americans (b) Black-Americans
(c) African Slaves (d) Native Americans
Ans : (b) choosing government
Ans : (b) Black-Americans
2. Tommie Smith and John Carlos belong to which
ethnic group of America? 6. In Northern Ireland, difference between Protestants
(a) African-American (b) Black-American and Roman Catholics led to:
(a) civil war (b) social division
(c) American tribe (d) Asian-American
(c) social differences (d) none of the above
Ans : (a) African-American
Ans : (a) civil war
3. In which year, Olympics were held in the Mexico City?
(a) 1988 (b) 1986 7. Who won the Silver Medal in 200 metre race in Mexico
Olympics 1968?
(c) 1968 (d) 1966
(a) John Carlos (b) Peter Smith
Ans : (c) 1968 (c) Tommie Smith (d) Peter Norman
4. End of racism in USA was led by: Ans : (d) Peter Norman
(a) Black Power Movement (b) Racism Movement
8. Uniqueness about the 1968 Olympics held at Mexico
City was that
Ans : (c) Afro-American athletes protested against racial
(a) racism was ended by UN.
discrimination in USA
(b) US Athletes won all the silver medals.
(c) Afro-American athletes protested against racial 9. The government which can balance plural diversities
discrimination in USA. is:
(d) Mexico organised Olympics for three consecutive (a) democracy (b) authoritarian
years. (c) military rule (d) none of the above
Ans : (a) democracy
10. The French Revolution was influenced by the French

philosopher.
(a) Rousseau (b) Montesquieu
(c) Cornwallis (d) James II
Ans : (b) Montesquieu
11. Who won the Gold Medal in 200 metre race in Mexico
Olympics 1968?
(a) Tommie Smith (b) Peter Norman
(c) Peter Smith (d) John Carlos
Ans : (a) Tommie Smith
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12. Who won the Bronze Medal in 200 metre race in
Mexico Olympic 1968?
(a) Peter Smith (b) John Carlos
(c) Peter Norman (d) Tommie Smith
Ans : (b) John Carlos
13. Civil Rights Movement in US was led by

(a) Martin Luther King (b) Martin Luther
(c) Martin Luther King Junior (d) All of the above
Ans : (c) Martin Luther King Junior
14. How many countries semerged after disintegration of

Yugoslavia?
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 3
Ans : (c) 6
15. The ideas of Rousseau and Voltaire influenced the:

(a) American people (b) Indian people
(c) European people (d) none of the above
Chap 3.3 : Democracy and Diversity www.cbse.online
Ans : (c) European people their .......... .

Ans : leaders
16. Which country have political and religious relations
with the Northern Ireland? 4. As per the International Olympic Association, Tommie
(a) Germany (b) UK Smith and John Carlos violated the Olympic spirit by
(c) USA (d) Scotland making a .......... .
Ans : (b) UK Ans : Political Statement
17. Who represent the interests of catholics in the 5. In Sri Lanka, there are religious as well as ..........
Northern Ireland? differences.
(a) Socialists (b) Liberals Ans : Linguistic
(c) Nationalists (d) Unionists
Ans : (c) Nationalists 3. TRUE/FALSE
18. Who represent the interests of protestants in the
Northern Ireland? DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and write if
(a) Republicanists (b) Unionists it is true or false.
(c) Liberals (d) Socialists 1. UK’s population is majorly divided into two major
Ans : (b) Unionists sectors of Catholics and Protestants.
Ans : True
19. India is a vast country with:
(a) languages (b) communities 2. Democracy involves domination of a particular party.
(c) religions (d) All of these Ans : False
3. Outcomes of polities of social divisions depends mainly
20. What is the percentage of protestants in Northern on 3 factors.
Ireland? Ans : True
(a) 43 (b) 67
4. Social divisions do not affect politics.
(c) 2 (d) 53
Ans : False
Ans : (d) 53
5. Political competition along religious ending ethnic
21. Which of the following governments can accommodate lines led to the disintegration of Yugoslavia.
diversity?
Ans : True
(a) Communism (b) Democracy
(c) Dictatorship (d) Monarchy
Ans : (b) Democracy 4. ASSERTION AND REASON
22. The origin of democracy for ordinary people dates DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable :
back to:
(a) 1988 (b) 1688 (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) 1588 (d) 1788
Ans : (b) 1688 not the correct explanation of assertion.
23. When did violence end in UK? (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) 1990 (b) 1966 (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(c) 1998 (d) 1992 1. Assertion : Civil rights movement continued in the
Ans : (c) 1998 United States from 1954-68 which protested against
racial discrimination.
Reason : Racial discrimination is inhumane and should not
2. FILL IN THE BLANK be practiced for it promotes discriminatory and
prejudiced attitude.
DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
appropriate word(s). the correct explanation of assertion.
1. The social differences are mostly based on .......... . Civil rights movement in the USA (1954-1968) practiced
non-violent means to protest against racial
Ans : Accident of birth
discrimination. Racial discrimination is not justified
2. People who feel marginalised, deprived and and should be completely ousted from the mentalities
discriminated have to fight against the .......... . of the people. The reason justifies the assertion.
Ans : Injustices 2. Assertion : The difference between the Blacks and
Whites becomes Social division in the US.
3. In democracy, people get the opportunity to choose Reason : Social divisions do not always lead to social
Chap 3.3 : Democracy and Diversity www.rava.org.in
differences 8. Assertion : Social divisions exist in only big countries

Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is like India.
not the correct explanation of assertion. Reason : Small countries are homogenous.
The difference between tire Blacks and Whites becomes Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Social division in the US. Social division takes place Social divisions can exist in any country regardless of the
when some social difference overlaps with other size of the country. For example, Sri Lanka is a small
differences. However, the reason does not justify the country yet it has conflict over social differences
assertion. between Sinhala speaking and Tamil speaking people.
3. Assertion : Social divisions affect voting in most 9. Assertion : India has a lot of social differences.
countries. Reason : India is a democratic nation.
Reason : People from one community tend to prefer Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
some party more than others. not the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is India has a lot of social differences based on caste,
the correct explanation of assertion. religion and languages, and it is the largest democracy
Social divisions affect voting in most countries. People is the world, yet the reason does not justify the
from one community tend to prefer some party more assertion.
than others because of their prejudices towards some WWW.CBSE.ONLINE
social groups or the other, they tend to vote for the
groups they connect or relate to. NO NEED TO PURCHASE ANY BOOKS
4. Assertion : Racial discrimination helps in bringing For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at
people closer. www.cbse.online for
Reason : Racial discrimination is highly desirable by all. 1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question
Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false. Bank
Racial discrimination leads to domination of one social
group by other. Hence, it leads to oppression and
4. NCERT Solutions
feeling of hatred and not integration of society. All material will be solved and free pdf. It will be
5. Assertion : In Northern Ireland, class and religion provided by 30 September and will be updated regularly.
overlap with each other.
Reason : Catholics and Protestants are likely to be
equally rich or poor.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion.
In Northern Ireland, class and religion overlap with each
other. Catholics and Protestants are likely to be
equally rich or poor. So, there are no conflicts in
Catholic and Protestants.
6. Assertion : Social differences always lead to social
division.
Reason : Homogenous society is desirable for avoiding
social difference.
Social differences do not always lead to social division. It
leads to social division only when people use it
negatively to segregate themselves from others or to
demean/degrade some group. For example, Caste,
Religion, Racial group, etc. Social differences do not
always need to be avoided, for example the Olympics
held at Mexico city taught the same lesson.
7. Assertion : Democracy is the best way to accommodate
diversity.
Reason : Democracy helps in creating homogenous
society.
Democracy helps in accommodating diversity by giving
equal rights to people from all social groups and
communities. The reason however is false because
heterogeneous society is created by democracy.
Chap 3.4 : Popular Struggles and Movements www.cbse.online

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 3.4
Popular Struggles and Movements
10. Who form an organisation and undertake activities to

promote their interests or view points?
(a) Interest groups (b) Pressure groups
1. Democracy is the: (c) Both a and b (d) Self Help groups
(a) conflict of goals (b) conflict of interests Ans : (c) Both a and b
(c) conflict of viewpoints (d) all of the above
Ans : (d) all of the above 11. BAMCEF stands for:
(a) Backward Authorities Communities Employees’
2. Who was killed in the mysterious massacre of 2001 in Federation
Nepal? (b) Bihari and Muslim Community Employees’
(a) King Gyanendra (b) King Birendra Federation
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these
(c) both (a) and (b)
Ans : (b) King Birendra (d) none of the above
3. In which of the following year, Nepal witnessed Ans : (a) Backward Authorities Communities
transition from absolute monarchy to constitutional Employees’ Federation
monarchy?
(a) 1980 (b) 1990 12. Who led Bolivia water wear?
(c) 1920 (d) 2000 (a) Socialist Party (b) Seven Party Alliance
(c) FEDECOR (d) All of these
Ans : (b) 1990
Ans : (c) FEDECOR
4. Nepal movement took place in:
(a) 2005 (b) 2006 13. Bolivia faced:
(c) 2007 (d) 2008 (a) water struggle (b) food struggle
Ans : (a) 2005
Ans : (a) water struggle
5. Movement in Nepal was led by:
(a) SPA (b) PPA 14. Backward and Minority Communities Employees
(c) DNA (d) none of the above Federation is an example of
(a) Self Help Group
Ans : (a) SPA
(b) Public Interest Group
6. Bolivia is a poor country in (c) Sectional Interest Group
(a) Latin America (b) North America (d) None of the above
(c) Asia (d) Europe
Ans : (b) Public Interest Group
Ans : (a) Latin America
15. Which of the following is a Social or Identity group?
7. AITUC is a: (a) FICCI (b) Ramakrishna Mission
(a) social group (b) identity group (c) CII (d) None of the above
(c) institutional group (d) advocate group
Ans : (b) Ramakrishna Mission
Ans : (c) institutional group
16. Which of the following parties grew out of movements?
8. The organised politics has many agencies like (a) Asom Gana Parishad (b) DMK
(a) Political parties (b) Movement groups (c) AIADMK (d) All of these
(c) Pressure groups (d) All of the above
Ans : (d) All of the above
9. Pressure groups use method of: 2. FILL IN THE BLANK

(a) strikes (b) dharna
(c) protests (d) all of the above
Ans : (d) all of the above appropriate word(s).
1. .......... is an example of movement growing into

Chap 3.4 : Popular Struggles and Movements www.rava.org.in
political parties.
Ans : Asom Gana Parishad
2. The SPA choose .......... as the new PM of the interim government.

Ans : Girja Prasad Koirala
3. .......... refused to accept democractic rule in Nepal.

Ans : King Gyanendra
4. Bolivia government sold rights of water to .......... .

Ans : A multinational company
5. Nepalese movement led to .......... of democracy.

Ans : Suspension
3. TRUE/FALSE
1. Many democratic governments provide the Right to Information (RTI) to the citizens,
Ans : True
2. Nepal movement took place in 2006.

Ans : True
3. Protest Movement in Bolivia was called FEDECOR.

Ans : False
4. Bolivia is a poor country in South Africa.

Ans : False
5. FICCI is an association.
Ans : True

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
1. Assertion : The story of Poland applies to the struggle for establishing or restoring democracy. Reason :
Democracy evolves through popular struggles
Defining moments of democracy usually involve conflict between those groups who have exercised power and
those who aspire for a share in power. The assertion and reason are both true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
2. Assertion : In 1984, the Karnataka government set up a company called Karnataka Pulpwood Limited. Reason :
The company began to plant eucalyptus trees on this land, which could be used for making
paper pulp.
The reason and assertion are both true but the reason does not justify the assertion.
3. Assertion : Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in a variety of ways.
Reason : These groups try to influence the government by contesting elections.
Pressure groups try to gain public support and sympathy for .their goals and their activities by carrying out
information campaigns, organizing meetings, filing petitions, etc. Most of these groups try to influence the media
into giving more attention to these issues. The reason is false while the assertion is true.
4. Assertion : Interest groups seek to promote the interests of a particular section or group of society. Reason : They
are sectional because they represent a section of society: workers, employees, businesspersons, industrialists,
followers of a religion, caste group, etc.
The principal concern of these interest groups is the betterment and well-being of their members, not society in
general. Thus, the reason and assertion are both true and the reason explains the assertion completely.
5. Assertion : Single-issue movements are similar to movements that are long term and involve more than one issue.
Reason : The environmental movement and the women’s movement are examples of multiple issue movements.
Both the reason and assertion are false, because Women’s movement and environmental movements are single
issue movements, which are completely different from movements with multiple issues.
6. Assertion : It fessure groups and movements have deepened democracy.
Reason : Putting pressure on the rulers is an unhealthy activity in a democracy as long as everyone gets this
opportunity.
Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. The reason is false, while the assertion is true.
WWW.CBSE.ONLINE
Chap 3.5 : Gender, Religion and Caste www.cbse.online
CHAPTER 3.5
CLASS : 10th
Gender, Religion and Caste
(a) Low gender ratio (b) Caste system

1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (c) Communalism (d) None of these
Ans : (a) Low gender ratio
1. Women also do outside work like:
(a) fetching water (b) collecting fuel 5. Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is
(c) working in fields (d) all of the above the principal basis of :
(a) social community (b) society
Ans : (d) all of the above (c) people (d) none of the above
2. It is believed that the main responsibility of a girl is Ans : (b) society
to:
(a) take care of house 6. Choose the correct option about matriarchal society.
(a) Educated society
(b) look after children to cook
(b) Male dominated society
(c) to cook
(c) Female dominated society
(d) all of the above
(d) Equal gender society
Ans : (d) all of the above
Ans : (c) Female dominated society
3. The participation of women in public life is very high
in 7. Urban areas have become particularly .......... for
(a) Sweden (b) Norway women.
(c) Finland (d) All of these (a) safe (b) Unsafe
Ans : (b) Unsafe
4. Which is not a threat to Indian democracy?
8. The hierarchical unequal roles assigned to men and
9. Gender means differentiation between male and
women by the society is known as
female based on:
(a) sex ratio (b) equal wages ratio
(c) gender division (d) male ratio (a) sex (b) society
(c) religion (d) none of the above
Ans : (c) gender division
Ans : (a) sex
10. “Religion can never be separated from politics” is said

by
(a) BR Ambedkar (b) GK Gokhale
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Swami Vivekananda
Ans : (c) Mahatma Gandhi
11. Family law deals with

(a) marriage (b) divorce
(c) adoption (d) inheritance
Ans : (d) inheritance
12. Most of the victims of communal riots in our country

are
(a) people from religious minorities
(b) women and children
(c) illiterate people
(d) All of the above
Ans : (a) people from religious minorities
13. Communalism problem is associated with

(a) religion (b) caste
(c) secularism (d) inequalities
Ans : (a) religion
14. Communal politics is based on the idea of

(a) caste is the basis of social community
(b) religion and caste are the basis of social community
(c) religion is the basis of social community
(d) None of the above
Ans : (c) religion is the basis of social community
15. The women’s movement is called:

(a) Women’s movement (b) Female Agitation
(c) Feminist Movement (d) none of the above
Ans : (c) Feminist Movement
16. Which social division is unique to India?

(a) Economic division (b) Caste division
(c) Racial division (d) Religious division
Ans : (b) Caste division
17. Heredity, rituals, birth are the basis of

(a) economic system (b) caste system
(c) racial division (d) class system
Chap 3.5 : Gender, Religion and Caste www.rava.org.in
Ans : (b) caste system discrimination against the .......... groups.

Ans : outcaste
18. Who among the following fought against caste
inequalities?
(a) Periyar Ramaswami Naiker 3. TRUE/FALSE
(b) BR Ambedkar
(c) Jotiba Phule DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(d) All of them write if it is true or false.
Ans : (d) All of them 1. In today’s scenario, we can claim that casteism has
19. Which factor does not weaken the caste inequalities? completely disappeared from our society and politics.
(a) Urbanisation (b) Literacy growth Ans : False
(c) Education (d) Politics
2. To a political party, ‘Vote Bank’ of a caste means
Ans : (d) Politics a large proportion of the voters from the caste may
probably vote for a particular party.
20. The literacy rate among the women as compared to
men in only: Ans : True
(a) 54% (b) 98% 3. Political parties and candidates hardly use caste
(c) 68% (d) 70% sentiments.
Ans : (a) 54% Ans : False
21. Literacy rate means ratio of 4. How are boys and girls brought up in India for the
(a) educated people in a country division of labour?
(b) uneducated people in a country Ans : True
(c) educated women in the country
(d) All of the above 5. Shifting of population from rural to urban areas is
known as migration.
Ans : (a) educated people in a country
Ans : False
22. The gender division is mainly:
(a) private (b) public
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 4. ASSERTION AND REASON
Ans : (c) both (a) and (b) DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable :
23. In 2011, sex ratio was (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(a) 914 (b) 900 the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) 850 (d) 950 (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
Ans : (a) 914 not the correct explanation of assertion.
1. Assertion : Sex-selective abortion led to decline of sex
DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with ratio in India.
appropriate word(s). Reason : Desire of for a male child makes Indian
families abort girl.
1. Women’s movements have argued that .......... of all Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
religious discriminate against women. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans : family laws Sex-selective abortion led to decline of sex ratio in
2. Sex selective abortion led to a .......... in child sex ratio India. Indian parents want to have son and want ways
in the country to merely 914. to abort girl child. However, sex-selective abortion is
immoral and legally banned in India. The reason thus
Ans : decline
explains the assertion.
3. A communal mind often leads to quest for .......... of 2. Assertion : Universal Adult Franchise gives right to
one’s own religious community. vote to everyone.
Ans : political dominance Reason : Right to vote should be given to people of
upper caste and class for taking wise decision.
4. .......... of gender division has helped to improve Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
women’s role in public life.
Universal Adult Franchise gives right to vote to
Ans : political expression
everyone irrespective of caste, religion, colour or
5. Caste system was based on exclusion of and gender. It is based on the principle of equality. Right
to vote should be given to everyone because that is the
whole essence of a democracy, equal representation.
Chap 3.5 : Gender, Religion and Caste www.cbse.online
Class cannot determine wisdom.

3. Assertion : Stereotypical gender roles for males and females helps in avoiding conflicts.
Reason : India is a matriarchal society.
Stereotypical|gender roles where females are expected to do household work and males are expected to earn living is
unjustifiable. The female should also get equal rights as the male. Also, India is a patriarchial society, Men are in
authority over women in different aspects of society.
4. Assertion : Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, provides that equal wages should be paid for equal work, irrespective of
gender and caste.
Reason : Women are physically weak so they are righteously paid less than men.
Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, provides that equal wages should be paid for equal work. However, women are
considered to be inferior to men and that is why, they are paid less. However, this belief is not correct and should not
be justified. Thus, unequal payment should not be advocated. This belief is unjustifiable as both are equal.
5. Assertion : Communal ism is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community. Reason :
Caste should be kept away from politics.
Communalism is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community. It considers that people of
different religion can’t be equal citizen and one should dominate the other. Caste creates social conflicts and should
be kept away from politics as it leads to violence. The reason, however true, does not explain the assertion.
6. Assertion : Women face discrimination and disadvantage in India in many ways.
Reason : India is a patriarchal society.
India is a patriarchal society where men are considered superior to women. Hence, women face discrimination and
disadvantage in India in many ways. Yet, it is not justifiable. The reason explains the assertion.
7. Assertion : A casteist is a person who thinks that caste is the principal basis of community. Reason : All castes are
equal and man-made.
A castiest is a person who thinks that caste is the principal basis of community. However, such a belief is faulty as
everyone is equal and no caste is superior to other. Thus, both reason & assertion are true but the reason does not
explain the assertion.
8. Assertion : India is a secular state.
Reason : Constitution gives freedom to everyone to profess, practice and propagate any religion without
prejudices or any discrimination.
India is a secular state. The Constitution gives freedom to everyone to profess, practice and propagate any religion.
There is no official religion of India. The reason explains the assertion.
9. Assertion : Sometimes a caste group becomes vote bank for a party.
Reason : Selecting the candidate from same caste helps in ensuring better governance.
Sometimes a caste group becomes vote bank for a party as people select the candidate belonging to their own caste.
This helps in representing and communicating their personal interests on a wider front. However, it is wrong to
select a candidate on the basis of caste instead of personal abilities. Thus the assertion is true,-the reason is false.
10. Assertion : Men and women should be given equal rights.
Reason : Men are superior to women physically and emotionally.
Men and women should be given equal rights as both are equal is every respect. Thus the reason is false.
WWW.CBSE.ONLINE
Chap 3.6 : Political Parties www.rava.org.in

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 3.6
Political Parties
(b) reducing the role of money

1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (c) state funding of election
1. Which is not the component of a political party?
(a) The leaders (b) The followers
(c) The active members (d) The ministers 7. The political parties of a country have a fundamental
Ans : (d) The ministers political .......... in a society.
(a) choice (b) division
2. The clearly visible institutions of a democracy are: (c) support (d) power
(a) people (b) societies
Ans : (b) division
(c) political parties (d) pressure groups
Ans : (c) political parties 8. Political parties are there in a country to give people:
(a) freedom (b) choice
3. Which is not a function of political party? (c) protection (d) none of the above
(a) To contest election
Ans : (b) choice
(b) Faith in violent methods
(c) Political education to the people
(d) Form public opinion
Ans : (b) Faith in violent methods
4. Without the political parties, the utility of the

government will remain:
(a) uncertain (b) powerful
(c) peaceful (d) none of the above
Ans : (a) uncertain
5. .......... is an organised group of person who come

together to contest election and try to hold power in
government.
(a) Political party (b) Democracy
(c) Parliament (d) None of these
Ans : (a) Political party
6. Political parties can be reformed by

(a) reducing the role of muscle power
9. Members of ruling party follows the directions of:
(a) people (b) party leaders
(c) pressure groups (d) None of the above
Ans : (b) party leaders
10. Which of the following is a regional party?

(a) Bhartiya Janta Party (BJP)
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
(c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(d) Communist Party of India (Marxist) CPI
Ans : (c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)

11. Name the party that emerged out of mass movement. For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at
(a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) www.cbse.online for
(b) Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP) 1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question
(c) Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) Bank
(d) Janta Dal 2. Previous Ten Years Exam Paper (Paper-wise).
Ans : (a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) 4. NCERT Solutions
12. Which is the essential element of a political party?
(a) Organisation
(b) National interest
(c) Fundamental principles
13. A political party is an association of:

(a) people (b) children
(c) parties (d) none of the above
Ans : (a) people
14. Parties are a necessary condition for a:

(a) democracy (b) authoritarian
(c) dictatorship (d) none of the above
Ans : (a) democracy
15. Choose the wrong statement about political party.

(a) Political party contests election.
(b) Political party acts as an opposition party.
Chap 3.6 : Political Parties www.cbse.online
(c) Political party does not make law.

Ans : (c) Political party does not make law.
16. How many national parties are there in India.? (a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 07 (d) 20
Ans : (c) 07
17. How many political parties are in India (approximately)?

(a) 200 (b) 750
(c) 500 (d) 650
Ans : (b) 750
18. In a democratic country, any group of citizens is free to form:

(a) a political party (b) society
(c) religion (d) all of the above
Ans : (a) a political party
19. Under which system, only one-party is allowed to function?

(a) Single-party system (b) Bi-Party system
(c) Multi-party system (d) None of these
Ans : (a) Single-party system
20. Elephant is the election symbol of

(a) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
(b) Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP)
(c) Indian National Congress (INC)
(d) Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD)
Ans : (a) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
21. Bhartiya Jana Sangh is the mother party of

(a) Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP)
(b) Indian National Congress (INC)
(c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(d) Samajwadi Party (SP)
Ans : (a) Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP)
22. Bahujan Samaj Party stands for the cause of

(a) interest of literate
(b) interest of oppressed people
(c) interest of elite class
Ans : (b) interest of oppressed people
23. Lack of Internal democracy is the challenge faced by

(a) national party (b) regional party
(c) political party (d) None of the above
Ans : (c) political party

DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with appropriate word(s).
1. .......... , .......... , .......... , .......... , .......... and ..........
are recognised as national parties in India.
Ans : INC, BJP, BSP, CPI, CPI-M, NCP Congress
2. A political party has components like .........., .......... and .......... .

Ans : leaders, the active members, the followers
3. Every party in the country has to register within the

.......... .
Ans : Election Commission
Note : Question 3 is not available in book.
3. TRUE/FALSE
1. In some cases, parties support criminals who can win elections.

Ans : True
2. National parties have representation in less than four states.

Ans : False
3. BSP was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.

Ans : True
4. The state party secures atleast 6 percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assemblies of a state.
Ans : True
5. BJP was founded in 1988 as a result of the split in INC.

Ans : False
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Chap 3.8 : Challenges to Democracy www.rava.org.in

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 3.8
Challenges to Democracy
(a) People (b) Leaders

1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (c) Political parties (d) None of these
Ans : (c) Political parties
1. Which legal Act is the best to empower people to
carry out democratic reforms? 4. Democratic reforms are to be carried out mainly by
(a) Right to Freedom (a) Political activists
(b) Right to Information Act (b) Political parties
(c) Right to Education (c) Movements and politically conscious citizens
(d) Right to Move Freely (d) All of the above
Ans : (a) Right to Freedom Ans : (d) All of the above
2. The ‘challenge’ which involves the strengthening of 5. The full form of RTI is:
institutions and practices of democracy is called: (a) Right to Intelligence
(a) foundational challenge (b) Right to Ice-cream
(b) challenge of expansion (c) both (a) and (b)
(c) challenge of deepening of democracy (d) none of the above
(d) none of these Ans : (d) none of the above
Ans : (c) challenge of deepening of democracy
6. Which of the following is a challenge to democracy?
3. Who carries out democratic reforms? (a) Corrupt leaders (b) Communal-ism
(c) Illiterate citizens (d) All of the above
impact of “The Right to Information Act”?
7. In India, people are still living in abject: (a) It supplements the existing laws that banned
(a) poverty (b) illiteracy corruption.
(c) unemployment (d) none of the above (b) It enables the people to became law abiding good
citizens.
Ans : (a) poverty
(c) It empowers the people to find out what is
8. Which of the following statements reflects the right happening in government.
(d) It acts as a water dog of democracy.
Ans : (c) It empowers the people to find out what is
happening in government.
9. Every established democracy faces

(a) Challenge of expansion
(b) Dictatorship
(c) Challenge of foundation
(d) Deepening of democracy
Ans : (d) Deepening of democracy
10. What is a challenge to democracy?

(a) Vote bank (b) Corruption
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Ans : (c) Both (a) and (b)
11. The challenges of making the transition to democracy

from a non democratic
(a) Challenge of expansion
(b) Foundational challenge
(c) Deepening of democracy
Ans : (b) Foundational challenge
12. Write the full form of GDP.

(a) Gross Dam Policy
(b) Gross Production Departure
(c) Gross Domestic Production
Ans : (c) Gross Domestic Production
13. Which of the following is a foundational challenge?

(a) Extension of federal principle to all the units of
federation
(b) Greater power to local governments
(c) Bringing down the existing non democratic region
(d) To increase people’s participation
Ans : (c) Bringing down the existing non democratic
region
14. Which of the following countries disintegrated due to

the ethnic tension?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bolivia
Chap 3.8 : Challenges to Democracy www.cbse.online
(c) Yugoslavia (d) Belgium 23. The bureaucrats should be made more:
Ans : (c) Yugoslavia (a) responsive (b) regular
15. In which country did the ethnic riots between Serbs Ans : (a) responsive
and Albanians take place?
(a) Poland (b) India
(c) Pakistan (d) Yugoslavia 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
Ans : (d) Yugoslavia
16. Which one of the following is challenge of expansion appropriate word(s).
for the established democracies?
(a) Ensuring greater power to local government 1. Any person, who can read and write in any Indian
(b) Strengthening of institutions language is known as .......... .
(c) Bringing down non-democratic regime Ans : Literate
(d) Establishing a sovereign and functional state
2. .......... disintegrated due to the ethnic tension between
Ans : (a) Ensuring greater power to local Serbs and Albanians.
government Ans : Yugoslavia
17. Which one of the following is different from the other 3. According to the text [NCERT], .......... of the globe is
three with reference to challenge of democracy? still not under democratic government.
(a) Deepening of democracy
Ans : One fourth
(b) Foundational challenge
(c) Religious beliefs in democracy 4. As per the text, .......... of the world is working under
(d) Challenge of expansion democratic government.
Ans : Three fourth
Ans : (c) Religious beliefs in democracy
5. The ideology of believing in supremacy of one’s caste
18. Which one of the following is not true regarding how
is known as .......... .
politics can be reformed?
(a) There is need to strengthen government practices. Ans : Casteism
(b) Only legal constitutional changes can reform
politics.
3. TRUE/FALSE
(c) Citizens organisation and media should play an
active role. DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(d) The citizens should be empowered through rights write if it is true or false.
like the Right to Information.
Ans : (b) Only legal constitutional changes can reform 1. Citizens should become more active and enlightened
politics. to keep democracy functioning.
Ans : True
19. Women representation in governance is not even:
(a) 70% (b) 80% 2. The bureaucrats should not be made responsive to the
(c) 6% (d) 10% needs of people.
Ans : (d) 10% Ans : False
20. Society is divided in the name of: 3. Protests itself is a testimony of democracy.
(a) religion (b) caste Ans : True
(c) language (d) none of the above
4. Deeping of democracy is strengthening of institution.
Ans : (b) caste
Ans : True
21. Aung San Suu Kyi spent house arrest for more than
5. Political reforms should not promote democracy.
.......... years under the military regime of
Myanmar. (a) 20 (b) 25 Ans : False
(c) 15 (d) 28
Ans : (c) 15 4. ASSERTION AND REASON
22. .......... a feeling when the people living in a particular
region of country awaken to their separate existence.
(a) Regionalism (b) Democracy (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(c) Communalism (d) Casteism the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans : (a) Regionalism (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
Chap 3.8 : Challenges to Democracy
www.rava.org.i
n

1. Assertion : At least one fourth of the globe is still
not under democratic government.
Reason : Because the challenge for democracy in
these parts of the world is very stark.
2. Assertion : Any legal change must carefully look at

what results it will have on politics.
Reason : As sometimes the results may be
counter- productive.
3. Assertion : Power sharing is the spirit of

democracy. Reason : As the rights of the people are
not limited to the right to vote, stand in elections
and form political organizations.
4. Assertion : The rulers elected by the people must

not take all the major decisions.
Reason : Democracy cannot be the brute rule of
majority and a respect for minority voice is
necessary for democracy.
5. Assertion : Democratic reforms are to be brought

about principally through political practice.
Reason : Any proposal for political reforms should
think only about what is a good solution but not
care about who will implement it and how.
6. Assertion : The third challenge of deepening of

democracy is usually not faced by every democracy
in one form or another.
Reason : This involves strengthening of the country
and practices of democracy.
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Chap 4.1 : Development www.rava.org.in

CLASS : 10th
Unit 4 : Understanding Economic Developmenet
CHAPTER 4.1
Development
group is called
1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (a) net attendance ratio (b) literacy rate
(c) gross enrolment ratio (d) level of
education
1. The total number of children attending school as a
percentage of total number of children in the same age Ans : (a) net attendance ratio
2. Per capita income hides
8. Development of an individual refers to
(a) disparities (b) average income
(c) total population (d) none of these (a) mental development (b) physical development
(c) spiritual development (d) overall
Ans : (a) disparities development
3. Per capita income of Kerala is higher than that of Ans : (d) overall development
(a) Bihar (b) Punjab
9. Classical view of economic development includes
(c) Gujarat (d) none of these
(a) per capita income (b) national Income
Ans : (a) Bihar (c) none of these (d) both a and b
4. Dividing the total income of country with its Ans : (a) per capita income
population, we get
10. Development goal for landless agricultural labour is
I. Per-Capita income
(a) high prices for crops
II. National income
III. Average Income (b) more days of work
IV. Total Income (c) cheap labour
(a) Only III (b) I and II (d) pollution free environment
(c) All of the above (d) None of these
Ans : (b) more days of work
Ans : (a) Only III
11. Per capita income of low-income countries is
5. The per-capita income of different countries is counted (a) < 30,000 or less (b) < 37,000 or less
in which currency? (c) < 40,000 or less (d) none of these
(a) Rupees (b) Pounds Ans : (b) < 37,000 or less
(c) US Dollars (d) Canadian Dollars
Ans : (c) US Dollars 12. If industrialists want more dams then why do local
people resist it?
6. Among Haryana, Kerala and Bihar, the lowest per- (a) They will be displaced.
capita income state is Bihar. It shows that (b) Their lands will be submerged.
(a) Bihar has high standard of living
(c) Their will be no source of earning for them.
(b) People are earning less in Kerala
(c) Maharashtra has more number of rich people
(d) On an average, people in Bihar have low income
Ans : (d) On an average, people in Bihar have low 13. IMR stands for
income (a) Infant Mortality Ratio
(b) Indian Mortality Ratio
7. Meaning of development is different for
(c) International Mortality Ratio
(a) different people (b) alien people
(c) same people (d) none of these (d) none of these
Ans : (a) different people Ans : (a) Infant Mortality Ratio
14. People may have different developmental goals; what

is development for one, may even be ........... for the
other.
(a) destructive (b) constructive
(c) same (d) equal
Ans : (a) destructive
15. Development criteria include

(a) income (b) equal treatmen
(c) freedom (d) all of these
Ans : (a) income
16. The literacy rate is highest in Kerala while the infant
Chap 4.1 : Development www.cbse.online
mortality rate is highest in Bihar. What does it DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with
show? appropriate word(s).
(a) Most of the people in Kerala and Bihar have good
living conditions. 1. The average income is also known as .......... .
(b) Both Bihar and Kerala lack basic necessities of Ans : Per capita income
life. 2. BMI stands for .......... .
(c) The standard of living in Kerala is batter than Ans : Body Mass Index
Bihar.
(d) The standard of living in Bihar is better than 3. Per capita income of the US is .......... .
Kerala. Ans : $59,500 (2017 Est) as per the World Book
Ans : (c) The standard of living in Kerala is batter Fact
than Bihar.
4. HDI rank of India is .......... .
17. The Human Development Report (HDR) published Ans : 130 (2018-DHI Report)
by UNDP compares countries based on literacy rate,
health status and ........... . 5. Literacy rate in Bihar in the year 2001 was ......... .
(a) National income (b) Per-capita income Ans : 62%
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
Ans : (b) Per-capita income
3. TRUE/FALSE
18. Full form of SED is
(a) sustainable economic development DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(b) simple economic development write if it is true or false.
(c) sound economic development 1. Average income and per capita income both are the
(d) none of these same concepts.
Ans : (a) sustainable economic development Ans : True
19. A good way to measure the quality of life in countries 2. HDI is compared on the basis of education only.
across the world is by comparing their........... . Ans : False
(a) per capita Income
3. Adult Literacy Rate means people of 7 years and
(b) human development index
above.
(c) gross national income
Ans : False
(d) sustainable development
Ans : (b) human development index 4. Literacy rate of India is 67%
Ans : False
20. Which among the following is not a public facility?
(a) Transport and electricity 5. Life expectancy is age at the time of death.
(b) Roads and bridges Ans : False
(c) Private schools
(d) Government hospitals
Ans : (c) Private schools
DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable :‘
21. The ........... helps in maintaining the nutritional levels
of poor people by proving food at lower cost. (a) If Both assertion and reason are true, and reason
(a) BMI body mass indez is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) PDS public distribution system (b) If Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
(c) GNI gross national income is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(d) HDI human development index (c) If Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans : (b) PDS public distribution system
1. Assertion : The crude oil reserves are going down
22. Economic development by maintaining the natural for the entire world, and the countries need to find
resources for present and future use is known as substitute fuel for crude oil.
(a) sustainable development Reason : A country that is dependent on imports
(b) planned development for crude oil will demand more crude oil in the
(c) human development Index future.
(d) development Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but
Ans : (a) Sustainable development reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
The crude oil resource is becoming scarce, and
the countries need to resolve the issue as most of
2. FILL IN THE BLANK the production tasks are dependent on oil. It is
obvious that demand for oil will increase in
future as the world population is increasing so
the demand for oil will also
Chap 4.1 : Development www.rava.org.in
increase.
2. Assertion : The average income of a country is about USS 12,056; however, the country is still not a developed
country.
Reason : The income levels are highly skewed for the country.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
A country can have skewed data of income level, i.e., certain sections of the society are extremely rich; however, a
majority of the people are poor. In such a case, the average income is likely to be high for the nation, but the nation
cannot be called developed as the income is not distributed in an equitable manner.
3. Assertion : Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the countries.
Reason : Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly measures are adopted for carrying out
production processes.
Sustainable development is essential for economic growth as it involves judicious use of resources which leads to
economic growth by reducing wastage.
4. Assertion : Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net attendance ratio in secondary stage is 47%.
Reason : More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary education.
Ans : (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of
total number of children in the same age group. If the students were going to other states for higher education, the
total students available in the state would go down and the net attendance ratio would not be so low. The low net
attendance ratio is indicative of students dropping out of elementary school.
5. Assertion : A state has a per capita income of Rs. 2, 25, 000 per annum. The infant mortality rate in the state is 2%.
So, the state cannot be considered a developed state.
Reason : There are medical facilities in the state, but people fail to take their children to hospital in time. Ans : (c)
Assertion is true, but reason is false.
The assertion is true; however, the reason is false because if the parents are earning well and medical facilities are
available, then they would definitely take their child for timely treatment. Also, some parents may fail to do so, but not
so many that the infant mortality rate would be as high as 62%.
6. Assertion : A small town has a high rate of robbery; however, a locality in this town has well- maintained law and
order.
Reason : The people in the locality are aware of the importance of having security guards, and they collectively
pay to have the security guards in the locality.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and
It is cheaper to have collective security for the entire locality than having a security man for each house. Also, if
people have their personal security guards in certain parts of a locality, the robbery can still happen in houses without
a security man. Therefore, paying for the collective benefit of the society helps to resolve issues.
7. Assertion : A country that was extremely rich in natural resources has mainly relied on oil extraction for revenue
generation for several centuries. However, the scientists predict that the country may become poor in the future if
other means of generating income are not devised.
Reason : Oil is a non-renewable resource, and it is likely to get exhausted if not used judiciously.
If the country has relied on oil extraction for several centuries, it is likely that the country’s oil wells may start
drying up as oil is a non-renewable source of energy. So, if the country would not find a substitute method of
generating income, then the pressure on oil wells will increase and the country is likely to become poor in absence
of oil.
8. Assertion : Different people have different developmental goals.
Reason : The capitalist approach to development is detrimental to poor section of the society.
Ans : Ans. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Different people have different developmental goals because the notion of development is different for
different,groups of people.
9. Assertion : Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.
Reason : Non-renewable resources can be replenished over a period of time.
Non-renewable resources are fixed in amount and will get exhausted after several years of usage.
10. Assertion : A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being or human development in a country.
Reason : Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health facilities and public facilities in a
country.
Higher average income is not the only indicator of human development in a country. Factors like level of literacy
rate, health facilities and public facilities are also important.
Chap 4.2 : Sectors of The Indian Economy www.cbse.online

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 4.2
Sectors of The Indian Economy
1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 4. The goods that are used as raw materials for further
production are known by which name?
(a) Final goods (b) Consumer goods
1. MGNREGA guarantees job to poor for
(c) Material goods (d) Intermediate goods
(a) 100 days (b) 90 days
(c) 60 days (d) 50 days Ans : (d) Intermediate goods
Ans : (a) 100 days 5. Which of the following is not an example of tertiary
sector?
2. ATM is an example of (a) Banking (b) Transport
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector
(c) Trade (d) Forestry
(c) tertiary sector
Ans : (d) Forestry
Ans : (c) tertiary sector
6. Hidden unemployment is also called
3. Animal Husbandry is a part of (a) organised sector
(a) Primary sector (b) secondary sector
(b) disguised unemployment
(c) tertiary sector (d) none of these
(c) tertiary sector
Ans : (a) Primary sector (d) contractual unemployment
Ans : (b) disguised unemployment
Ans : (c) Employment is insecure
7. GDP of a country is based on
9. Which among the following activities is not related to
(a) total value of good and services
primary sector?
(b) final value of goods and services (a) Fishing
(c) initial value of goods and services (b) Natural gas extraction
(d) all of these (c) Making of sugar
Ans : (b) final value of goods and services (d) Mining
8. Which among the following is a feature of unorganised Ans : (c) Making of sugar
sector?
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4. NCERT Solutions
10. Which among the following workers are not very

productive in tertiary sector?
(a) Educated and trained professionals
(b) Repair persons and daily wage earners
(c) People in defence services
(d) People working in health centres and hospitals
Ans : (b) Repair persons and daily wage earners
11. Places of work which follow rules and regulation are

termed as
(a) organised sector (b) unorganised sector
(c) tertiary sector (d) secondary sector
Ans : (a) organised sector
12. All economic activities that directly involve conversion

of natural resources are classified under
(a) secondary sector (b) primary sector
(c) tertiary sector (d) government sector
Ans : (b) primary sector
13. The sector in which the productive units are owned,

maintained and managed by government
(a) organised sector (b) primary sector
(c) public sector (d) industrial sector
Ans : (c) public sector
14. Public health is responsibility of

(a) primary sector (b) government
(c) private sector (d) none of these
Chap 4.2 : Sectors of The Indian Economy www.rava.org.in
Ans : (b) government 25. In terms of ownership, enterprises owned by individuals

are known as ..........
15. The secondary sector is also known as .......... as this (a) public sector (b) primary sector
sector produces useful items from natural products.
(c) unorganised sector (d) private sector
(a) manufacturing (b) construction
(c) building (d) making Ans : (d) private sector
Ans : (a) manufacturing

16. Service is
(a) tangible (b) intangible
(c) both a and b (d) physical Product appropriate word(s).
Ans : (c) both a and b
1. Transport, communication and banking come under
17. Converting iron is a part of ......... sector.
(a) primary activity (b) secondary activity Ans : Tertiary
(c) tertiary sector (d) all of these
2. The goods produced by exploiting natural resources
Ans : (b) secondary activity comes under the category of .......... .
18. The sum total of production of all goods and services Ans : Primary sector
in the three sectors are combinedly
3. Another name for tertiary sector is .......... .
(a) NDP (b) NI
Ans : Service sector
(c) GNI (d) GDP
Ans : (d) GDP 4. Another name for secondary sector is .......... .
Ans : Industrial sector
19. The task of collection of data in all the three sectors
of the economy is done by which of the following 5. Tertiary is a larger sector in ......... country.
anlanizations. Ans : Developed
(a) NSSO (b) BPO
(c) KPO (d) UNDP
Ans : (a) NSSO 3. TRUE/FALSE
20. In the last 100 years, the sector gaining prominance is DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and
(a) secondary sector (b) primary sector write if it is true or false.
(c) tertiary sector (d) all of these
1. Unorganised sector are registered with the government.
Ans : (c) tertiary sector
Ans : False
21. In India, .......... sector is largest employer while .........
2. Maximum share of GDP comes from Public Sector.
sector is largest income generator.
(a) secondary, tertiary (b) tertiary, primary Ans : True
(c) primary, tertiary (d) tertiary, secondary 3. Provision of appointment letter is not there in
Ans : (c) primary, tertiary unorganised sector.
Ans : True
22. The type of unemployment in which more number of
people work than actually needed is known as 4. Tertiary sector is gaining importance in India.
(a) disguised unemployment Ans : True
(b) seasonal unemployment
5. People cannot expect job security in an organised
(c) underemployed
sector.
(d) over employed
Ans : True
Ans : (a) disguised unemployment
23. Information and Technology is a part of 4. ASSERTION AND REASON

(a) tertiary sector (b) primary sector
(c) secondary sector (d) all of these DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable :‘
Ans : (a) tertiary sector (a) If Both assertion and reason are true, and reason
24. A labourer working under a contractor, is in which
type of sector? (b) If Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
(a) Public sector (b) Unorganised sector is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Service sector (d) None of these (c) If Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans : (b) Unorganised sector
1. Assertion : In India, over the forty years between
Chap 4.2 : Sectors of The Indian Economy www.cbse.online
1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all the produced within the domestic territory of a country
three sectors has increased, it has increased the in a year.
most in the tertiary sector. Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and
Reason : Tertiary sector is the only organized sector in reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
the economy so the government spends a lot of money
GDP is the value of all final goods and services produced
for creating jobs in tertiary sector.
within a country. A higher GDP is indicative of higher
Ans : (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. production level and higher economic activity. Also, a
There are several reasons for increased production higher GDP implies people of the country are earning
in tertiary sector such as increase in demand tor more so it is indicative of the size of an economy.
education, health, communication and transportation, 6. Assertion : Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker
development of agriculture sector, increase in level who earns a high monthly salary as he is employed in
of income and development of information and a private bank in a city.
technology sector. Reason : All service sectors in India are growing
2. Assertion : Reliance industries is a privately-owned extremely well and each individual engaged in any
firm. kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.
Reason : Government is a major stakeholder is Ans : Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
reliance industries.
In India, not the entire service sector is growing equally
well. Service sector in India employs many different
Reliance industry is a privately-owned firm as the kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number
assets and delivery of goods and services in Reliance of services that employ highly skilled and educated
is controlled by private individuals. workers. At the other end, there are a very large
number of workers engaged in services such as small
shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc.
For session 2019-2020 free pdf will be available at These people barely manage to earn a living and yet
www.cbse.online for they perform these services because no alternative
1. Previous 15 Years Exams Chapter-wise Question opportunities for work are available to them.
Bank
7. Assertion : Leela works five days a week, receives her
income on the last day of each month and gets medical
facilities from her firm.
4. NCERT Solutions
All material will be solved and free pdf. It will be Reason : Leela is working in organized sector.
provided by 30 September and will be updated regularly. Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and
3. Assertion : The development of agriculture and The firms in organized sector are registered by the
industry leads to the development of service sector. government and have to follow its rules and regulations
Reason : As the primary and secondary sectors which are given in various laws such as the Factories
develops, the demand for transport, storage structures, Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment offcratuity Act,
banks, insurance, etc., increases. Shops and Establishments Act etc
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and 8. Assertion : Mohan is a shopkeeper who pays his taxes
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. on time. He has employed two workers Rakesh and
As the primary and secondary sector develops the Raghu in his shop. He pays them well, however, none
demand for the aforementioned tertiary activities of the workers get any paid leaves in the year.
increase. Not just the demand for mentioned services Reason : Rakesh and Raghu are employed in
increases, but as individuals become better off, the unorganized sector.
demand for education, health services, professional Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and
training and communication also increase. Therefore, reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
the development of primary and secondary sectors If Rakesh and Raghu were employed in organized
leads to the development of service or tertiary sector. sector, they would receive benefits such as paid leaves,
4. Assertion : An individual who manufactures flour medical insurance and pension schemes from the
from wheat is engaged in primary sector. employer. Mohan is not following labour laws as he
Reason : When some process of manufacturing is used does not provide any paid leave to his employees in
the product is a part of secondary sector. the year.
Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false. 9. Assertion : When calculating the total value of goods
and services produced in a country, the value of all
An individual who manufactures flour from wheat is
goods and services at each stage of production should
engaged in secondary sector as the products that are
be calculated.
not manufactured directly from nature but require
Reason : At each stage of production some value is
some manufacturing process are a part of secondary
added to a good or service, therefore, the value added
sector.
at each stage of production is added to derive the
5. Assertion : GDP shows how big an economy is. total value of gods and services in an economy.
Reason : GDP is the value of all goods and services Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Chap 4.2 : Sectors of The Indian Economy
www.rava.org.i
n
When calculating the total value of goods and

services produced in a country, the value of final
goods and services is calculated. If we add the
value of goods and services at each stage of
production, we will get an inflated GDP as the
same value would be included multiple times.
10. Assertion : There are several goods and services
that the society needs; however, the private sector
does not produce all of them.
Reason : Private sector is profit driven.
Some of the services such as defense require a lot of
spending and do not provide any profit. Therefore,
private sector does not invest in such activities.
Also, certain services such as public transportation
and irrigation facilities require massive spending
which is beyond the capacity of private sector.
11. Assertion : Id India, the primary sector is the
largest employer.
Reason : The demand for services has increased
enormously.
Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but
The primary sector remains the largest employer
in India because not enough jobs were created in
the secondary and tertiary sectors. However, the
demand for services has increased owing to
increase in demand for education, health,
communication and transportation, development
of agriculture sector, increase in level of income
and development of information and technology
sector.
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Chap 4.3 : Money And Credit www.cbse.online

CLASS : 10th
CHAPTER 4.3
Money And Credit
(d) none of these

Ans : (a) double coincidence of wants
1. Money is based on 2. A system where goods were exchanged without using

(a) double coincidence of wants money is batter known as
(b) single coincidence of wants (a) goods system (b) exchange system
(c) barter system (d) no-money system
(c) Both a and b
Ans : (c) no-money system
3. Money is a measured of
(c) cooperative credit (d) none of these
(a) currency (b) value
(c) transfer (d) all of these Ans : (b) formal credit
Ans : (a) currency 9. What is the most important function of money?
4. A porter making pots, wants to exchange pots for (a) Used in banking transactions
wheat. Lukily, he meets a farmer who has wheat and (b) Payment of loans
is willing to exchange it for the pots. What is this (c) Medium of exchange
situation known as? (d) Stock market exchange
(a) Incidence of wants
Ans : (c) Medium of exchange
(b) Double coincidence of wants
(c) Barter system of wants
(d) None of the above 10. Bank laying down norms for bank is
Ans : (b) Double coincidence of wants (a) RBI (b) SBI
(c) syndicate bank (d) all of these
5. The problem of similar wants made exchange difficult, Ans : (a) RBI
so a new medium of exchange was developed known as
(a) capital (b) cost 11. Raghav has surplus money so he opens a bank account
(c) rent (d) money and deposits in it. Whenever he needs money. he can
Ans : (d) money go to his bank and withdraw from there. This kind of
deposit with the banks are known as
6. A substitute of cash and cheque is (a) demand deposit
(a) credit card (b) coin (b) term deposit
(c) currency (d) demand deposit (c) fixed deposit
Ans : (a) credit card (d) surplus deposit
7. Modern forms of money include which of the following? Ans : (a) demand deposit
(a) Currency notes and coins
12. A person can withdraw money by issuing a cheque.
(b) Cowrie shells and stones What is a cheque?
(c) Gold and silver coins (a) Loan taken by the bank.
(d) Grains and cattle (b) Loan taken by the depositor from the bank.
Ans : (a) Currency notes and coins (c) Paper instructing the bank to pay a specific
amount.
8. Organised credit is also called
(d) Paper valid to withdraw money
(a) informal credit (b) formal credit
Ans : (c) Paper instructing the bank to pay a specific
amount.
13. In agricultural stage grains were used as

(a) money (b) commodity
(c) ingredient (d) none of these
Ans : (a) money
Chap 4.3 : Money And Credit www.rava.org.in
14. What is the most important function of the banks? 23. A trader provides farm inputs on credit on the
(a) Accept deposits and extend loans. condition that farmers will sell their crop
(b) Give loans to government. produce to him at .......... prices so that he
(c) Open as many bank accounts as possible. could sell them at .......... prices in the market.
(a) high, medium (b) low, high
(d) Give loans to businesses.
(c) medium, high (d) high, low
Ans : (a) Accept deposits and extend loans.
Ans : (b) low, high
15. Banks give out loans and charge .......... on the loan
amount from the borrower. 24. Which of the following is not a feature of Self Help
(a) rent (b) wages Groups (SHGs)?
(c) interest (d) money (a) It consists of 15-20 members or more.
(b) Here members pool their savings which acts as
Ans : (c) interest
collateral.
16. All the banks act as mediator between .......... and (c) Loans are given at nominal rate of interest.
.......... . (d) It is an informal source of credit.
(a) rural people, urban people
Ans : (d) It is an informal source of credit.
(b) literates, illiterates
(c) people, government 25. Ram and Shyam are small farmers. Ram has taken
(d) depositors, borrowers credit 1.5% per month on < 20000 from a trader while
Shyam has taken credit at 8% per annum from bank
Ans : (d) depositors, borrowers on the same amount. Who is better off?
(a) Ram is better because he has to do no paperwork.
17. Percentage of formal sector in total credit in India in
poor household is (b) Shyam is better because his interest payment is
(a) 15 (b) 20 less.
(c) 70 (d) 80 (c) Ram is better because he has not paid any
Ans : (a) 15 collateral.
(d) Both Ram and Shyam are equal so no one is
18. Which among the following lenders will possibly not better off.
ask the borrower to sign the terms of credit? Ans : (b) Shyam is better because his interest payment
(a) Banks is less.
(b) Moneylenders
(c) Cooperatives
(d) Private agencies 2. FILL IN THE BLANK
Ans : (b) Moneylenders
19. Chit fund come under appropriate word(s).
(a) organised credit (b) unorganised credit
1. .......... is used as a substitute for cash.
(c) discounted coupon (d) none of these
Ans : Credit card
Ans : (b) unorganised credit
2. Modern forms of money include .......... (gold coins/
20. Method of repayment of loan is called
paper notes)
(a) mode of payment (b) method of payment
(c) mode of repayment (d) none of these Ans : Paper notes
Ans : (c) mode of repayment 3. Banks in India these days, hold about .......... % of
their deposits as cash.
21. Which among the following is not a feature of informal
Ans : 15%
source of credit?
(a) It is supervised by the Reserve Bank of India. 4. Deposits in bank accounts withdrawn on demand are
(b) Rate of interest is not fixed. called ......... .
(c) Terms of credit are very flexible. Ans : Demand deposits
(d) Traders, employers, friends, relatives, etc provide
informal credit source. 5. Since money acts as an intermediate in the exchange
process, it is called .......... .
Ans : (a) It is supervised by the Reserve Bank of Ans : Medium of exchange
India.
6. Major portion of the deposits is used by banks for
22. An example of cooperative society can be of
.......... .
(a) farmers (b) workers
(c) women (d) all of these Ans : Extending loans
Ans : (d) all of these

3. TRUE/FALSE
Chap 4.3 : Money And Credit www.cbse.online
DIRECTION : Read each of the following statements and 3. Assertion : The facility of demand deposits makes it
write if it is true or false. possible to settle payments without the use of cash.
Reason : Demand deposits are paper orders which
1. The main source of income for banks is interest on
make it possible to transfer money from one person’s
deposits.
account to another person’s account.
Ans : False
2. In a SHG, most of the decisions regarding savings and The facility of cheques against demand deposits makes
loan activities are taken by government. it possible to directly settle payments without the use
Ans : False of cash. Since demand deposits are accepted widely
as a means of payment, along with currency, they
3. A ‘debt trap’ means overspending till no money is left. constitute money in the modern economy.
Ans : False 4. Assertion : Banks keep only a small proportion of
4. The collateral demand that lenders make loans against their deposits as cash with themselves.
are vehicle and building of the borrower. Reason : Banks in India these days hold about 15 per
cent of their deposits as cash.
Ans : True
5. Gramin Bank is the success story that met the credit reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
needs of the poor at reasonable rates in Bangladesh Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits
Ans : True as cash with themselves because they use the major
portion of the deposits to extend loans as there is a
huge demand for Ioans for various economic activities.
5. Assertion : Banks charge a higher interest rate on
loans than what they offer on deposits.
4. ASSERTION AND REASON Reason : The difference between what is charged from
borrowers and what is paid to depositors is their main
DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable :‘ source of income.
(a) If Both assertion and reason are true, and reason Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and
is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If Both assertion and reason are true, but reason Banks in India hold about 15 per cent of their deposits
is not the correct explanation of assertion. as cash as the remaining deposits are used to provide
(c) If Assertion is true, but reason is false. loans. The interest charged on Ioans is higher than the
interest paid on deposits and the difference between
the two interest rates is the major source of income
1. Assertion : The modern currency is used as a medium for banks.
of exchange; however, it does not have a use of its 6. Assertion : Rohan took credit in the form of advance
own. payment from a buyer and he delivered the goods to
Reason : Modem currency is easy to carry the buyer on time and also earned profit. The credit
Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but made Rohan better off in this situation.
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. Reason : Credit can never push a person into a debt
The modern currency is used as a medium of exchange trap.
because it is accepted and authorized as a medium of Ans : (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
exchange by a country’s government. The credit made Rohan better off in this situation,
2. Assertion : In India, no individual can refuse to accept however, Rohan would have been worse off if he
a payment made in rupees. had failed to deliver the goods on time or he had
Reason : Rupee is the legal tender in India. made a loss in the production process. The latter two
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and situations may have caused Rohan to fall in a debt
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. trap.
The law legalizes the use of rupee as a medium of 7. Assertion : Credit would be useful or not depends on
payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions the risk involved in a situation.
in India. Reason : The chance of benefitting from credit is
highest in agriculture sector.
Whether credit would be useful or not depends on
the risks in the situation and whether there is some
support, in case of loss.
8. Assertion : Collateral is an asset that the borrower
owns (such as land, building, vehicle, livestock,
deposits with banks) and uses this as a guarantee to a
Chap 4.3 : Money And Credit www.rava.org.in
lender until the loan is repaid.
Reason : Collateral is given as the lender can sell the
collateral to recover the loan amount if the borrower
fails to repay the loan.
Property such as land titles, deposits with banks,
livestock are some common examples of collateral
used for borrowing. In case of failure of repayment
of loan, the lender can sell the collateral to recover
the loan amount.
9. Assertion : The terms of deposit are same for all
credit arrangements.
Reason : Credit arrangements are very complex
process so to remove the complexities same terms
of deposits are used.
The terms of credit vary substantially from one
credit arrangement to another. They may vary
depending on the nature of the lender and the
borrower.
10. Assertion : The Reserve Bank of India supervises the
functioning of formal sources of loans.
Reason : The RBI sees that the banks give loans
not just to profit-making businesses and traders
but also to small cultivators, small scale
industries, to small borrowers etc.
The RBI oversees the functioning of commercial
banks. The reason statement substantiates the
assertion but it is not the explanation for the
assertion.
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Chap 1.1 : The Rise of Nationalism in Europe www.rava.org.

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

9. Treaty of Constantinople recognised .......... as an

8. What was ‘Young Italy’ ?

4. ASSERTION AND REASON pairs up to the mansion of their contractor demanding

1. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS Ans : (d) Customs

9. From which year, the National Movement spread

(b) Import of goods (b) It was formed in Britain.

Chap 1.4 : The Age of Industrialisation www.cbse.online

The Age of Industrialisation

10. Which of the following country is considered to be the

Print Culture and The Modern World

1. Who began to publish the weekly Bengal Gazette?

2. Who was James Lackington?

3. Who wrote My Childhood and My University?

4. Which one of the following began to edit the ‘Bengal

5. Which scholar expressed a deep anxiety about

6. Which of the following countries had the earliest kind

7. Who among the following religious reformers wrote

8. At which of the following places, a children’s press was

10. Which of the following cities became the hub of the

11. In which of the following years, Buddhist

12. Which of the following books is the oldest Japanese

13. Which of the following countries possessed a huge

14. What is calligraphy?

15. Who introduced the printing press in India?

16. Printing was first developed in:

17. Which one of the following, created the possibility of

(c) Text (d) Ballad Ans : (d) Goa

NO NEED TO PURCHASE ANY BOOKS 30. Who was Martin Luther?

3. In Punjab-Battala area was devoted to the printing of popular books.

4. The first printed book by mechanical press was Bible.

5. Gutenberg brought printing to Europe.

4. ASSERTION AND REASON

(b) continuous and biological

10. Which one of the following is the main cause of land

11. Individual, community, national and International

12. Which of the following is not classified on the basis of

NO NEED TO PURCHASE ANY BOOKS

13. The resources which are obtained from biosphere and

14. What percentage of land in India consist of fertile

Ans : (d) Forest soil 5. Afforestation and proper management is leading to

4. ASSERTION AND REASON

Chap 2.4 : Agriculture www.cbse.online

Ans : (c) Roca

13. Which of the following farming practice depends upon

14. Which type of agriculture practice is famous in North-

15. What population of India is engaged in agricultural

16. In which moths the kharif crops are harvested?

Ans : (b) Paddy 3. Millets are also called .......... .

24. Tick the characteristics of commercial farming.

Minerals and Energy Resources

(c) tones (d) none of these

4. Which of the following is the basic mineral and the

5. Which one of the following metals can be obtained

6. Oceans beds are a treasure house of:

cavities in teeth? 4. Geographers study .......... as part of the earth’s crust

DIRECTION : Complete the following statements with

1. Assertion : Uses of iron brought a radical change in heavy industries