Cost of Capital PDF
Cost of Capital PDF
Cost of Capital PDF
COST OF CAPITAL
LEARNING OUTCOMES
r Discuss the need and sources of finance to a business entity.
r Discuss the meaning of cost of capital for raising capital
from different sources of finance.
r Measure cost of individual components of capital
r Calculate weighted cost of capital and marginal cost of
capital, Effective Interest rate.
CHAPTER OVERVIEW
Cost
of
Capital
Weighted
Average Cost of
Capital (WACC)
4.1 INTRODUCTION
The cost of capital i.e. cost of having capital for long period from different sources
of finance. Generally the sources of finance for non corporate entity could be either
internal (savings, investments in current and non-current assets etc.) or external
borrowings (loan from financial institutions, local borrowings etc.).
Cost of
Equity
Cost of
Long term
Debt.
X Ltd. Y Ltd.
(` in lakh) (` in lakh)
Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) 100 100
Interest paid to debenture holders - (40)
Profit before tax (PBT) 100 60
Tax @ 35% (35) (21)
Profit after tax (PAT) 65 39
A comparison of the two companies shows that an interest payment of 40 by the Y Ltd.
results in a tax shield (tax saving) of `14 lakh (` 40 lakh paid as interest × 35% tax rate).
Therefore the effective interest is ` 26 lakh only.
Based on redemption (repayment of principal) on maturity the debts can be categorised
into two types (i) Irredeemable debts and (ii) Redeemable debts.
ILLUSTRATION 1
Five years ago, Sona Limited issued 12 per cent irredeemable debentures at
` 103, at ` 3 premium to their par value of ` 100. The current market price of these
debentures is ` 94. If the company pays corporate tax at a rate of 35 per cent what is its
current cost of debenture capital?
SOLUTION
Cost of irredeemable debenture:
I
Kd = (1- t )
NP
` 12
Kd = (1- 0.35) = 0.08297 or 8.30%
` 94
4.5.3 Cost of Redeemable Debentures (using approximation method)
The cost of redeemable debentures will be calculated as below:
I (1- t )+
(RV-NP )
Cost of Redeemable Debenture (Kd) = n
(RV+NP )
2
Where,
I = Interest payment
NP = Net proceeds from debentures in case of new issue of deb or Current
market price in case of existing debt.
RV = Redemption value of debentures
t = Tax rate applicable to the company
n = Life of debentures.
The above formula to calculate cost of debt is used where only interest on debt is tax
deductable. Sometime, debts are issued at discount and/ or redeemed at a premium.
If discount on issue and/ or premium on redemption are tax deductible, the following
formula can be used to calculate the cost of debt.
I+
(RV-NP )
Cost of Redeemable Debenture (Kd) = n (1- t)
(RV+NP)
2
In absence of any specific information, students may use any of the above formu-
lae to calculate the Cost of Debt (Kd) with logical assumption.
ILLUSTRATION 2
A company issued 10,000, 10% debentures of ` 100 each at a premium of 10% on
1.4.2017 to be matured on 1.4.2022. The debentures will be redeemed on maturity.
Compute the cost of debentures assuming 35% as tax rate.
SOLUTION
The cost of debenture (Kd) will be calculated as below:
I (1- t )+
(RV-NP )
Cost of debenture (Kd) = n
(RV+NP)
2
I = Interest on debenture = 10% of `100 = `10
NP = Net Proceeds = 110% of `100 = `110
RV = Redemption value = `100
n = Period of debenture = 5 years
t = Tax rate = 35% or 0.35
` 10 (1- 0.35)+
(` 100- ` 110)
5 years
Kd =
(` 100 +` 110)
2
` 10×0.65 - ` 2 ` 4.5
Or Kd = = = 0.0428 or 4.28%
` 105 ` 105
ILLUSTRATION 3
A company issued 10,000, 10% debentures of ` 100 each on 1.4.2017 to be matured on
1.4.2022. The company wants to know the current cost of its existing debt and the market
price of the debentures is ` 80. Compute the cost of existing debentures assuming 35%
tax rate.
SOLUTION
I (1- t )+
(RV-NP )
Cost of debenture (Kd) = n
(RV+NP)
2
I = Interest on debenture = 10% of `100 = `10
NP = Current market price = `80
RV = Redemption value = `100
n = Period of debenture = 5 years
t = Tax rate = 35% or 0.35
` 10 (1- 0.35)+
(` 100- ` 80)
5 years
Kd =
(` 100+` 80)
2
` 10×0.65+` 4 ` 10.5
Or, = = = 0.1166 or 11.67%
` 90 ` 90
4.5.3.1 Cost of Debt using Present value method [Yield to maturity (YTM)
approach)]
The cost of redeemable debt (Kd) is also calculated by discounting the relevant cash
flows using Internal rate of return (IRR). (The concept of IRR is discussed in the
Chapter- Investment Decisions). Here YTM is the annual return of an investment
from the current date till maturity date. So, YTM is the internal rate of return at
which current price of a debt equals to the present value of all cashflows.
The relevant cash flows are as follows:
Year Cash flows
Net proceeds in case of new issue/ Current market price in case of
0
existing debt (NP or P0)
1 to n Interest net of tax [I(1-t)]
n Redemption value (RV)
Steps to calculate relevant cash flows:
Step-1: Identify the cash flows
Step-2: Calculate NPVs of cash flows as identified above using two discount rates
(guessing).
Step-3: Calculate IRR
NPVL 6.74
IRR = L+ (H-L ) = 10%+ (15%-10%) = 12.21%
NPVL -NPVH 6.74-(-8.51)
C1 C2 Cn
VB = + +.......+
(1+Kd) (1+Kd)
1 2
(1+Kd)n
n
Ct
VB = ∑
(1+K )
t=1 d
t
ILLUSTRATION 4
RBML is proposing to sell a 5-year bond of ` 5,000 at 8 per cent rate of interest per
annum. The bond amount will be amortised equally over its life. What is the bond’s
present value for an investor if he expects a minimum rate of return of 6 per cent?
SOLUTION
The amount of interest will go on declining as the outstanding amount of bond will be
reducing due to amortisation. The amount of interest for five years will be:
First year : `5,000 x 0.08 = ` 400;
Second year : (`5,000 – `1,000) x 0.08 = ` 320;
Third year : (`4,000 – `1,000) x 0.08 = ` 240;
Fourth year : (`3,000 – `1,000) x 0.08 = ` 160; and
Fifth year : (`2,000 – `1,000) x 0.08 = ` 80.
The outstanding amount of bond will be zero at the end of fifth year.
Since RBML will have to return `1,000 every year, the outflows every year will consist
of interest payment and repayment of principal:
First year : `1,000 + ` 400 = `1,400;
Second year : `1,000 + ` 320 = `1,320;
Third year : `1,000 + ` 240 = `1,240;
Fourth year : `1,000 + ` 160 = `1,160; and
Fifth year : `1,000 + `80 = ` 1,080.
The above cash flows of all five years will be discounted with the cost of capital. Here
the expected rate i.e. 6% will be used.
Value of the bond is calculated as follows:
` 1, 400 ` 1,320 ` 1,240 ` 1,160 ` 1,080
VB = + + + +
(1.06)1 (1.06)2 (1.06)3 (1.06)4 (1.06)5
` 1, 400 ` 1,320 ` 1,240 ` 1,160 ` 1,0
080
= + + + +
1.06 1.1236 1.1910 1.2624 1.3382
= `1,320.75 + `1,174.80 + `1,041.14 + `918.88 + `807.05 = ` 5,262.62
I (1- t )+
(RV-NP ) 15 (1- 0.35)+
(153.12-100)
n 5 9.75+10.62
Kd = = = = 16.09%
(RV+NP) (153.12+100) 126.53
2 2
Alternatively:
Using present value method
Year Cash flows Discount Present Discount Present
factor @ 15% Value factor @ 20% Value
0 100 1.000 (100.00) 1.000 (100.00)
1 to 5 9.75 3.352 32.68 2.991 29.16
5 153.12 0.497 76.10 0.402 61.55
NPV +8.78 -9.29
NPVL 8.78
IRR = L+ (H-L ) = 15%+ (20%-15%) = 0.17429 or 17.43%
NPVL -NPVH 8.78-(-9.29)
PD+
(RV-NP )
Cost of Reedemable Preference Share (Kp) = n
(RV+NP)
2
Where,
PD = Annual preference dividend
RV = Redemption value of preference shares
NP = Net proceeds on issue of preference shares
n = Life of preference shares.
The cost of redeemable preference share could also be calculated as the discount
rate that equates the net proceeds of the sale of preference shares with the present
value of the future dividends and principal payments.
ILLUSTRATION 5
XYZ Ltd. issues 2,000 10% preference shares of ` 100 each at ` 95 each. The company
proposes to redeem the preference shares at the end of 10th year from the date of issue.
Calculate the cost of preference share?
SOLUTION
PD+
(RV-NP )
Kp = n
(RV+NP )
2
100 - 95
10 +
10
Kp = = 0.1077 (approx.) = 10.77%
100 + 95
2
PD
Cost of Irredeemable Preference Share (KP) =
P0
Where,
PD = Annual preference dividend
P0 = Net proceeds in issue of preference shares
ILLUSTRATION 6
XYZ & Co. issues 2,000 10% preference shares of ` 100 each at ` 95 each. Calculate
the cost of preference shares.
SOLUTION
PD
KP =
P0
(10 × 2,000) 10
Kp =
(95 × 2,000) = 95 = 0.1053 = 10.53%
ILLUSTRATION 7
If R Energy is issuing preferred stock at `100 per share, with a stated dividend of `12, and
a floatation cost of 3% then, what is the cost of preference share?
SOLUTION
Preferred stock dividend
Kp =
Market price of preferred stock (1 - floatation cost)
` 12 ` 12
= = = 0.1237 or 12.37
` 100(1- 0.03) ` 97
D
Cost of Equity (K e ) =
P0
Where,
Ke = Cost of equity
D = Expected dividend
P0 = Market price of equity (ex- dividend)
This model assumes that dividends are paid at a constant rate to perpetuity. It ignores
taxation.
Dividend Price Approach with Constant Growth: As per this approach the rate of
dividend growth remains constant. Where earnings, dividends and equity share price
all grow at the same rate, the cost of equity capital may be computed as follows:
D1
Cost of Equity (K e )= +g
P0
Where,
D1 = [D0 (1+ g)] i.e. next expected dividend
P0 = Current Market price per share
g = Constant Growth Rate of Dividend.
In case of newly issued equity shares where floatation cost is incurred, the cost of
equity share with an estimation of constant dividend growth is calculated as below:
D1
Cost of Equity (K e )= +g
P1 -F
Where, F = Flotation cost per share.
ILLUSTRATION 8
A company has paid dividend of ` 1 per share (of face value of ` 10 each) last year and
it is expected to grow @ 10% next year. Calculate the cost of equity if the market price
of share is ` 55.
SOLUTION
D ` 1(1+0.1)
K e = 1 +g= +0.1 = 0.12 = 12%
P0 ` 55
Dividend Discount Model with variable growth rate is explained in chapter 10 i.e.
Dividend Decision
D0
Growth rate (g) = n -1
Dn
Where,
D0 = Current dividend,
Dn = Dividend in n years ago
Trick: Growth rate can also be found as follows:
Step-I: Divide D0 by Dn, find out the result, then refer the FVIF table,
Step-II: Find out the result found at Step-I in corresponding year’s row
Step-III: See the interest rate for the corresponding column. This is the growth rate.
Example: The current dividend (D0) is `16.10 and the dividend 5 year ago was `10.
The growth rate in the dividend can found out as follows:
Step-I: Divide D0 by Dn i.e. `16.10 ÷ `10 = 1.61
Step-II: Find out the result found at Step-I i.e. 1.61 in corresponding year’s row
i.e. 5th year
Step-III: See the interest rate for the corresponding column which is 10%. Therefore,
growth rate (g) is 10%.
(ii) Gordon’s Growth Model
Unlike the Average method, Gordon’s growth model attempts to derive a future
growth rate. As per this model increase in the level of investment will give rise to
an increase in future dividends. This model takes Earnings retention rate (b) and
rate of return on investments (r) into account to estimate the future growth rate.
It can be calculated as below:
Growth (g) = b × r
Where,
r = rate of return on fund invested
b = earnings retention ratio/ rate*
*Proportion of earnings available to equity shareholders which is not distributed as
dividend
(This Model is discussed in detail in chapter 10 i.e. Dividend Decision )
The risks, to which a security is exposed, can be classified into two groups:
(i) Unsystematic Risk: This is also called company specific risk as the risk is related
with the company’s performance. This type of risk can be reduced or eliminated
by diversification of the securities portfolio. This is also known as diversifiable risk.
(ii) Systematic Risk: It is the macro-economic or market specific risk under which a
company operates. This type of risk cannot be eliminated by the diversification
hence, it is non-diversifiable. The examples are inflation, Government policy,
interest rate etc.
As diversifiable risk can be eliminated by an investor through diversification, the non-
diversifiable risk is the risk which cannot be eliminated; therefore a business should be
concerned as per CAPM method, solely with non-diversifiable risk.
The non-diversifiable risks are assessed in terms of beta coefficient (b or β) through
fitting regression equation between return of a security and the return on a market
portfolio.
Where,
Ke = Cost of equity capital
Rf = Risk free rate of return
ß = Beta coefficient
Rm = Rate of return on market portfolio
(Rm – Rf ) = Market premium
Despite these shortcomings, the CAPM is useful in calculating cost of equity, even
when the firm is suffering losses.
The basic factor behind determining the cost of equity share capital is to measure the
expectation of investors from the equity shares of that particular company. Therefore,
the whole question of determining the cost of equity shares hinges upon the factors
which go into the expectations of particular group of investors in a company of a
particular risk class.
ILLUSTRATION 10
Calculate the cost of equity capital of H Ltd., whose risk free rate of return equals 10%.
The firm’s beta equals 1.75 and the return on the market portfolio equals to 15%.
SOLUTION
Ke = Rf + ß (Rm − Rf )
Ke = 0.10 + 1.75 (0.15 − 0.10)
= 0.10 + 1.75 (0.05)
= 0.1875 or 18.75%
The cost of retained earnings is often used interchangeably with the cost of equity,
as cost of retained earnings is nothing but the expected return of the shareholders
from the investment in shares of the company. However, sometime cost of retained
earnings remains below the cost of equity due to saving in floatation cost and
existence of personal tax.
The Cost of Retained Earnings (Ks) is calculated as below:
In absence of any information on personal tax (tp):
Cost of Retained Earnings (Ks) = Cost of Equity Shares (Ke)
If there is any information on personal tax (tp):
Ks = Ke -tp
Floatation Cost: The new issue of a security (debt or equity) involves some
expenditure in the form of underwriting or brokerage fees, legal and administrative
charges, registration fees, printing expenses etc. The sum of all these cost is known
as floatation cost. This expenditure is incurred to make the securities available to the
investors. Floatation cost is adjusted to arrive at net proceeds for the calculation of
cost of capital.
ILLUSTRATION 11
ABC Company provides the following details:
D0 = ` 4.19 P0 = ` 50 g = 5%
Calculate the cost of retained earnings.
SOLUTION
D1 D0(1+g)
Ks = +g= +g
P0 P0
` 4.19(1+0.05)
= +0.05
`50
Step 3: Multiply the proportion as calculated in Step 2 above with the respective
cost of capital.
(i.e. Ke × Proportion (%) of equity share capital (for example) calculated in
Step 2 above)
Step 4: Aggregate the cost of capital as calculated in Step 3 above. This is the WACC.
(i.e. Ke + Kd + Kp + Ks as calculated in Step 3 above)
Example:
Calculation of WACC
Capital Component Cost of % of total capital Total
capital structure
Retained Earnings 10% (Kr) 25% (Wr) 2.50% (Kr × Wr)
Equity Share Capital 11% (Ke) 10% (We) 1.10%(Ke × We)
Preference Share Capital 9% (Kp) 15% (Wp) 1.35%(Kp × Wp)
Long term debts 6% (Kd) 50% (Wd) 3.00%(Kd × Wd)
Total (WACC) 7.95%
The cost of weighted average method is preferred because the proportions of various
sources of funds in the capital structure are different. To be representative, therefore,
cost of capital should take into account the relative proportions of different sources
of finance.
Securities analysts employ WACC all the time when valuing and selecting investments.
In discounted cash flow analysis, WACC is used as the discount rate applied to future
cash flows for deriving a business’s net present value. WACC can be used as a hurdle
rate against which to assess return on investment capital performance. Investors use
WACC as a tool to decide whether or not to invest. The WACC represents the minimum
rate of return at which a company produces value for its investors. Let’s say a company
produces a return of 20% and has a WACC of 11%. By contrast, if the company’s return
is less than WACC, the company is shedding value, which indicates that investors
should put their money elsewhere.
Therefore, WACC serves as a useful reality check for investors.
But there are problems in determination of weighted average cost of capital. These
mainly relate to:-
1. Computation of equity capital and;
2. Assignment of weights to the cost of specific source of financing. Assignment of weights
can be possible either on the basis of historical weighting or marginal weighting.
4.10.1 Choice of weights
There is a choice weights between the book value (BV) and market value(MV).
Book Value(BV): Book value weights is operationally easy and convenient. While
using BV, reserves such as share premium and retained profits are included in the BV
of equity, in addition to the nominal value of share capital. Here the value of equity
will generally not reflect historic asset values, as well as the future prospects of an
organisation.
Market Value(MV): Market value weight is more correct and represent a firm’s
capital structure. It is preferable to use MV weights for the equity. While using MV,
reserves such as share premium and retained profits are ignored as they are in effect
incorporated into the value of equity. It represents existing conditions and also take
into consideration the impacts of changing market conditions and the current prices
of various security. Similarly, in case of debt MV is better to be used rather than the BV
of the debt, though the difference may not be very significant.
ILLUSTRATION 13
Calculate the WACC using the following data by using:
(a) Book value weights
(b) Market value weights
The capital structure of the company is as under:
(`)
Debentures (` 100 per debenture) 5,00,000
Preference shares (` 100 per share) 5,00,000
Equity shares (` 10 per share) 10,00,000
20,00,000
© The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
4.26 FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
D1 `1
Cost of Equity (Ke) = +g= +0.05 = 0.1 or 10%
P0 -F `24 - ` 4
RV − NP 100 − NP
I(1 − t ) + 10(1 − 0.5) +
n n
Cost of Debt (Ke) = =
RV + NP RV + NP
2 2
(100 - 96)
10(1 - 0.5) +
Cost of debt = (Kd) =
10 5 + 0.4
= = = 0.055 (approx.)
(100 + 96) 98
2
2
5+
10 5.2
Cost of preference shares =Kp = 198 = 99 =0.053 (approx.)
2
(a) Calculation of WACC using book value weights
Source of capital Book Value Weights After tax cost WACC (Ko)
of capital
(a) (b) (c) = (a)×(b)
10% Debentures 5,00,000 0.25 0.055 0.0137
5% Preference shares 5,00,000 0.25 0.053 0.0132
Equity shares 10,00,000 0.50 0.10 0.0500
20,00,000 1.00 0.0769
WACC (Ko) = 0.0769 or 7.69%
© The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
COST OF CAPITAL 4.27
(`)
14% Debentures 30,000
11% Preference shares 10,000
Equity Shares (10,000 shares) 1,60,000
2,00,000
The company share has a market price of ` 23.60. Next year dividend per share is 50%
of year 2017 EPS. The following is the trend of EPS for the preceding 10 years which is
expected to continue in future.
Year EPS (`) Year EPS (`)
2008 1.00 2013 1.61
2009 1.10 2014 1.77
2010 1.21 2015 1.95
2011 1.33 2016 2.15
2012 1.46 2017 2.36
The company issued new debentures carrying 16% rate of interest and the current market
price of debenture is ` 96.
Preference share ` 9.20 (with annual dividend of ` 1.1 per share) were also issued. The
company is in 50% tax bracket.
(A) Calculate after tax:
(i) Cost of new debt
(ii) Cost of new preference shares
(iii) New equity share (consuming new equity from retained earnings)
(B) Calculate marginal cost of capital when no new shares are issued.
(C) How much can be spent for capital investment before new ordinary shares must be
sold. Assuming that retained earnings for next year’s investment are 50 percent of
2017.
(D) What will the marginal cost of capital when the funds exceeds the amount calculated
in (C), assuming new equity is issued at ` 20 per share?
SOLUTION
(A) (i) Cost of new debt
I(1- t)
Kd =
P0
16 (1 - 0.5)
= = 0.0833
96
Calculation of D1
D1 = 50% of 2013 EPS = 50% of 2.36 = ` 1.18
(B) Calculation of marginal cost of capital
Type of Capital Proportion Specific Cost Product
(1) (2) (3) (2) × (3) = (4)
Debenture 0.15 0.0833 0.0125
Preference Share 0.05 0.12 0.0060
Equity Share 0.80 0.15 0.1200
Marginal cost of capital 0.1385
(C) The company can spend the following amount without increasing marginal
cost of capital and without selling the new shares:
Retained earnings = (0.50) (2.36 × 10,000) = ` 11,800
The ordinary equity (Retained earnings in this case) is 80% of total capital
11,800 = 80% of Total Capital
` 11,800
∴ Capital investment before issuing equity = = ` 14,750
0.80
(D) If the company spends in excess of ` 14,750 it will have to issue new shares.
` 1.18
\ Capital investment before issuing equity = + 0.10 = 0.159
20
The marginal cost of capital will be:
Type of Capital Proportion Specific Cost Product
(1) (2) (3) (2) × (3) = (4)
Debentures 0.15 0.0833 0.0125
Preference Shares 0.05 0.1200 0.0060
Equity Shares (New) 0.80 0.1590 0.1272
0.1457
SUMMARY
Cost of Capital: In simple terms Cost of capital refers to the discount rate that
is used in determining the present value of the estimated future cash proceeds
of the business/new project and eventually deciding whether the business/new
project is worth undertaking or now. It is also the minimum rate of return that a
firm must earn on its investment which will maintain the market value of share at
its current level. It can also be stated as the opportunity cost of an investment, i.e.
the rate of return that a company would otherwise be able to earn at the same risk
level as the investment that has been selected.
Components of Cost of Capital: In order to calculate the specific cost of each
type of capital, recognition should be given to the explicit and the implicit cost.
The cost of capital can be either explicit or implicit. The explicit cost of any source
of capital may be defined as the discount rate that equals that present value of the
cash inflows that are incremental to the taking of financing opportunity with the
present value of its incremental cash outflows. Implicit cost is the rate of return
associated with the best investment opportunity for the firm and its shareholders
that will be foregone if the project presently under consideration by the firm was
accepted.
Measurement of Specific Cost of Capital for each source of Capital: The first
step in the measurement of the cost of the capital of the firm is the calculation
of the cost of individual sources of raising funds. From the viewpoint of capital
budgeting decisions, the long term sources of funds are relevant as they constitute
the major sources of financing the fixed assets. In calculating the cost of capital,
therefore the focus on long-term funds and which are:-
Long term debt (including Debentures)
Preference Shares
Equity Capital
Retained Earnings
Weighted Average Cost of Capital:- WACC (weighted average cost of capital)
represents the investors’ opportunity cost of taking on the risk of putting money
into a company. Since every company has a capital structure i.e. what percentage
of funds comes from retained earnings, equity shares, preference shares, debt and
bonds, so by taking a weighted average, it can be seen how much cost/interest
the company has to pay for every rupee it borrows/invest. This is the weighted
average cost of capital.
` 100-` 91.75 *
` 15(1- 0.35)+
11 years
= ` 100+` 91.75 *
2
` 15×0.65+ ` 0.75 ` 10.5
= = = 0.1095
` 95.875 ` 95.875
*Since yield on similar type of debentures is 16 per cent, the company would be
required to offer debentures at discount.
` 41.99
Using Market Value = = 0.172 or 17.2%
` 244.15
2. Market value of equity, E = 5,00,000 shares x `1.50 = `7,50,000
Market value of debt, D = Nil
D1 ` 0.27
Cost of equity capital, Ke = = = 0.18
P0 ` 1.50
Since there is no debt capital, WACC = Ke = 18 per cent.
Where,
Ke = Cost of equity
D1 = DO(1+ g)
D0 = Dividend paid (i.e., 50% of EPS = 50% × ` 4 = ` 2)
g = Growth rate
P0 = Current market price per share
` 2(1.1) ` 2.2
Then, K e = +0.10 = +0.10 = 0.05+0.10 = 0.15 = 15%
` 44 ` 44