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UNIT – I
1.The term ‘Environment’ has been derived from the French word ……………………which means to encircle or
surround
a) Environ
b) Oikos
c) geo
d) Aqua
2. The objective of environmental education is
a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions

b) To teach environmentally appropriate behavior
c) Create an environmental ethic
d) All the above
3. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the least storage capacity for matter?
a) Atmosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Biosphere
4. Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters of matter?
a) Atmosphere and Lithosphere

b) Atmosphere and Hydrosphere
c) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere
d) Biosphere and Lithosphere
5. Biosphere is
a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth

b) The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of the earth compromising of all the living things
c) The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres
d) All the above
6. Atmosphere consists of 79 percent Nitrogen and 21 percent Oxygen by
a) Volume
b) Weight
c) Density
d) All the three
7. Which of the following is a biotic component of the ecosystem?
a) Fungi
b) Solar light
c) Temperature
d) Humidity
8. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is
a) Bidirectional
b) Cyclic
c) Unidirectional
d) Multidirectional
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9. Which pyramid is always upright
a) Energy
b) Biomass
c) Numbers
d) Food chain
10. In complex ecosystem the degree of species diversity is
a) poor
b) high
c) medium
d) none
11The organisms which directly feed on producers are called
a) Herbivores
b) Carnivores
c) Decomposers
d) Saprophytes
12. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called
a) Food chain
b) Carbon cycle
c) Hydrological cycle
d) Anthroposystem
13. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem

b) Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds
c) Energy is recycled in an ecosystem
d) Respiration process release energy
15. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is
a) Oceans
b) Atmosphere
c) Biosphere
d) Fossil fuels
16. In aquatic ecosystems phyto planktons can be considered as a
a) consumer
b) producer
c) saprotrophic organisms
d) macroconsumer
17. The basic requirements of human beings are provide by
a) Industrialisation
b) Agriculture
c) Nature
d )Urbanisation
18. Environment is the life support system that includes

a) Air
b) Water
c) Land
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d) All of the above
19. In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by
a) Producer
b) Consumer
c) Decomposer
d) All of the above
20. Organisms which feed directly or indirectly on producers are called
a) Prey
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Detritus
21. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are
a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants

b) Herbivores
c ) Carnivores
d) Bacteria and other micro-organisms
22. Abiotic component includes
a) soil
b) temperature
c) water
d) All the above
23. Which of the following statements is true
a) Green plants are self-nourishing

b) Producers depends on consumers
c) Biotic components includes all non-living components
d) Herbivores depend on carnivores
24. Primary consumer is
a) Herbivores
b) Carnivores
c) Macro consumers
d) Omnivores
25. A predator is
a) An animal that is fed upon

b) An animal that feeds upon another animal
c) Animal that feeds upon both plants and animals
d) A primary consumer
26. Access to food is mainly determined by
a) Household income
b) Food assistance programmes
C) Human resources
d) Society/community
27. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from
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a) Greek
b) French
c) Spanish
d) English
28. Which among the following is a climatic factor?
a) pressure
b) humidity
c) temperature
d) all of the above
29. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Ozone
d) Helium
30. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface?
a)Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere
d)Exosphere
31.Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?
a)forest
b) grassland
c) desert
d) all of the above
32. Ecological pyramids are studies of
a) pyramid numbers
b) pyramid of biomass
c) pyramid of energy
d) all of the above
33. World environment day is on
a) 5th may
b) 5th june
c) 18th july
d) 16th august
34. Factors responsible for balanced eco-system are
a) balance between predator and prey

b) balance between vegetation, herbivores and carnivores
c) balance between competing species and biotic fators
d) all of the above
35. Which of the following is absorbed by green plants from the atmosphere?
a) carbon dioxide
b) water
c) nutrients
d) all of the above
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36. Habitat refers to
a) Physical conditions of the place where organisms live

b) Chemical conditions of the place where organisms live
c) Both a and b
d) None
37. Essential component of social security are
a) Meeting personal growth and development

b) Maintaining natural capital
c) Fairness and equity distribution of costs of resources
d) Community resilience
38. Socio-economic security in environmental aspects involves
a) Fairness and equity distribution costs for complete existing generation

b) Welfare of the present generation
c) Intra and inter generational equity of resources
d) All of the above
39. A food web consists of
a) a portion of food chain

b) an organisms position in a food chain
c) interlocking food chains
d) a set of similar consumers
40. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Man is not dependent on nature

b) Resources are unlimited, so one can use them as per one’s wish
c) Energy can be converted from one form to another, but some percentage of it is lost into the environment
d) Matter can be generated afresh. It need not be recycled or reused
41. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled to ensure food security?
a) Food must be available

b) Each person must have access to it
c) Food utilized/consumed must fulfil nutritional requirements
d) All of the above
UNIT II
1.which of the following is not the environmental effect of industrialisation, in general?
a. solid waste
b. water pollution
c. air pollution
d. economic growth
2. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?

a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. soil degradation
d. all of the above
3. Sustainable development means

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a. meeting present needs without compromising on future needs
b. progress of human beings
c. balance between human needs and the ability of earth to provide the resources
d. all of the above
4. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialisation is
a. industry should be closed

b. don’t allow new industrial units
c. industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal
d. industries should be shifted far away from human habitats
5. Mining means
a. to conserve and preserve minerals
b. to check pollution due to mineral resources
c. to extract minerals and ores
d. none
6. E.I.A can be expanded as
a. Environmental and industrial act

b. Environment and impact activities
c. Environmental impact assessment
d. Environmental important activity
7. E.I.A is related to
a. Resource conservation
b. Efficient equipment/process
c. Waste minimization
d. all of the above
8.In order to protect health of the people living along the adjoining areas of roads, one should
a. Plant trees alongside of the roads

b. Not allow diesel driven vehicles
c. Shift them (people) to other places
d. None of the above
9. The pollution caused by transportation/vehicular activities depends on
a. Type of the vehicle’s engine

b. Age of the vehicle
c. Traffic congestion
d. All of the above
10. Sustainable development will not aim at
a. Social economic development which optimizes the economic and social benefits available in the present, without spoiling
the likely potential for similar benefits in the future
b. Reasonable and equally distributed level of economic well being that can be perpetuated continually
c. Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of future generations to meet their own
needs
d. Maximising the present day benefits through increased resource consumption
11. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?
a. Scoping
b. Screening
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c. Identifying and evaluating alternatives
d. All of the above
12. ‘Earth day’ is held every year on
a. June 5th
b. November 23rd
c. April 22nd
d. May 7th
13.Eutrophication is
a. an improved quality of water in lakes

b. a process in carbon cycle
c. the result to accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies
d. a water purification technique
14. Major purpose of most of the Dams around world is
a. Power generation
b. Drinking water supply
c. Flood control
d. Irrigation
15. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agricultural practice?
a. Using chemical fertilizers

b. Using insecticides
c. Organic farming
16. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is
a. Water pollution
b. Soil degradation
c. Water logging
d. All of the above
17. Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains
a. Organic matter
b. Plant nutrients
c. Both a and b
d. none of the above
18. Water logging is a phenomenon in which
a. Crop patterns are rotated

b. Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation
c. Erosion of soil
19. The impact of construction of dams
a. Submerged forest
b. Loss of wild life habitat
c. Damages down stream ecosystem
d. All of the above
20. Which of the following statements is false

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a. Soil erosion effects the productivity
b. It takes 300 years for 1 inch of agricultural top soil to form
c. The amount of soil erosion depends on soil type, slope, drainage pattern and crop management practices
d. Soil erosion helps to retain water and nutrients in the root zone
21. Which of the following statements are true
a. Surface runoff do not carry pesticides into streams

b. Water percolating downwards through agriculture lands carries with it dissolved chemicals and contaminate ground water
c. Present agricultural practice does not contaminate water
22. Farmers have a tendency to
a. Use optimum quantity of water

b. to over irrigate crops
c. To conserve water
d. All of the above
23. Organic farming is
a. Farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers

b. Enhances biodiversity
c. Promotes soil biological activity
d. All of the above
24. What would you do to prevent environmental damage
a. Plant trees
b. Halt deforestation
c. Control pollution
d. All of the above
25. Environmental impact assessment
a. is the study of feasibility of a project

b. is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a human action
c. Both a and b
26. EIA study will help
a. Maximising the benefits without overloading the planets ecosystem

b. To estimate the future needs of the society
c. To smooth implementation of the project
d. To cope up with rapid growth of population
27. Ecosystem is disturbed by housing activity because
a. Large volume of raw materials like brick, stone, timber, cement, steel, plastic etc., are required to be produced
b. Housing is required to provide shelter to growing population
c. Majority of housing projects are concentrated in cities only
d. Standard of living is increased by modern houses
28. Environmental impact of mining
a. Brings order into social setup

b. Devastation of eco-system
c. Present mining activity is a sustainable development
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d. Mining has no adverse effect on ecosystem as it is located in remote areas
29. Effect of modern agriculture on soil is due to
a. Erosion
b. Acidification
c. Salinization
d. All
30. Bio-remediation means the removal of contamination from
a. Soil
b. Wastewater
c. Groundwater
d. Both soil and ground water
UNIT III
1. Plants use ………..gas for photosynthesis
a. oxygen
b. methane
c. nitrogen
d. carbon dioxide
2. Deforestation means
a. preservation of forests
b. destruction of forests
c. monocrop cultivation
d. agriculture
3. What percentage of it’s geographical area of a country should be under forest cover
a. 23%
b. 43%
c. 13%
a. d.33%
4. About ………% of earth’s surface is covered by water
a. 53%
b. 19%
c. 71%
d. 90%
5. During photosynthesis, trees produce
a. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide
c. nitrogen
d. carbon dioxide
6. Forest prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their
a. stems
b. roots
c. leaves
d. buds
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7. Major causes of deforestation are
a. shifting cultivation
b. Fuel requirements
c. Raw materials for industries
d. All of these
8. Blue baby syndrome (methaemoglobinemia) is caused by the contamination of water due to
a. Phosphates
b. Sulphur
c. Arsenic
d. Nitrates
9. Which of the following statements about forests is not correct?
a. Forest reduces soil erosion

b. Provides recreational opportunities
c. Provides a source of economic development
10. India has largest share of which of the following
a. manganese
b. mica
c. copper
d. diamond
11. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one cause minimum water pollution?
a. nitrogen
b. phosphorous
c. potassium
d. organic matter
12. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per Indian standards
a. 6 to9
b. 6.5 to 7.5
c. 6 to 8.5
d. 6.5 to 8.5
13. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?
a. 1.0 milligram per litre

a. b.1.25 milligram per litre
b. 1.50 milligram per litre
c. 1.75 milligram per litre
14. Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause
a. Blue babies
b. Fluorosis
c. taste and colour
d. intestinal irritation
15. Which of the following is a non point source of water pollution
a. Factories
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a. b, Sewage treatment plants
b. Urban and suburban lands
c. All of the above
16. The movement of carbon between __________ is called carbon cycle
a. Atmosphere & biosphere

b. Atmosphere & hydrosphere
c. Geo-sphere & Atmosphere
d. Biosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere & geo-sphere
17. The depletion of trees is causing accumulation of
a. Nitrogen dioxide
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Oxygen
18. Earth’s atmosphere contains ___________ % of oxygen
a. 98%
b. 12%
c. 21%
d. 78%
19. Plants can take up nitrogen in two forms
a. Ammonium and ammonia

b. Ammonia and nitrogen
c. Nitrate
d. Nitrogen
20. Conversion of ammonium to nitrate by chemical oxidation is termed as
a. Mineralisation
b. Leaching
c. Nitrification
d. De-nitrification
21. Nitrogen fixing bacteria exists in __________ of plants
a. Leaf
b. roots
c. stem
d. flower
22. Sulphur occurs in soil and rocks in the form of ______
a. oxides of Zn and Fe
b. Sulphates of Zn and Fe
c. Nitrates of Zn and Fe
d. Sulphides of Zn and Fe
23. Livestock waste release large amount of _____ into the environment
a. Ammonium
b. Ammonia
c. Nitrate
d. NO4
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24. Conversion of nitrates into gases of nitrogen is called ________
a. nitrification
b. nitrogen fixing
c. reduction
d. de-nitrification
25. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in
a. Western ghats
b. Bandipur
c. Nagarhole
d. d.Mangalore
26. _________ are referred to as earth’s lungs
a. Forests
b. Carbon cycles
c. Water sources
d. Mines
27. Among the fresh water available in the earth, the percentage of surface water is about
a. 50%
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. Less than 1%
28. Important factor that causes water born disease is
a. Using contaminated sewage for irrigation

b. leaching of untreated faecal and urinary discharges into water bodies
c. discharge of industrial waste water
d. by eating contaminated food
29. Cholera and Typhoid are caused by
a. Worms
b. Virus
c. Bacteria
d. Fungus
30. Major source of fluoride is
a. river water
b. toothpaste
c. bacteria
d. fungus
31. Hepatitis is caused by
a. protozoa
b. virus
c. bacteria
d. fungus
32. Excessive nitrate in drinking water causes
a. Fever
b. Cough and cold
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c. Blue babies
d. Gastro-Enteritis
33. Mineral resources are
a. renewable
b. available in plenty
c. non-renewable
d. equally distributed
34. Control of water borne diseases can be achieved effectively by
a. Treatment of diseases
b. By consuming mineral water
c. By proper treatment of waste water & protecting the source of water
d. By vaccination
35. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?
a. Asbestos
b. Feldspar
c. Phosphate
d. Nitrogen
36. Forests are extremely important because they
a. Provide clean water and clean air

b. Provide habitat for wildlife
c. Provide recreation and a change from hectic urban life
d. All of the above
37. Deforestation means
a. Conversion of forest land for agricultural/pasture/homes etc..,

b. Creation of new forest land for the wild life
c. Planting trees in the cities
d. Not managing the forest properly
38. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth containing:
a. 95% of earth’s water

b. 85% of earth’s water
c. 97% of earth’s water
d. 75% of earth’s water
39. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle
a. Precipitation
b. Infiltration
c. Transpiration
d. Perspiration
40. The ground water depends on
a. Amount of rain fall

b. Geological formations
c. Run off
d. All of the above
41. In India ground water is rich in

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a. plains of river Kaveri and Krishna
b. the plains of Netravati and Kapila
c. the gangetic plains
d. the deccan plateau
42. The required iron content in water as specified by BIS is
a. 330 mg/l
b. 30 mg/l
c. 3 mg/l
d. 0.3 mg/l
43. pick out which is not concerned to carbon cycle
a. Respiration
b. Combustion of fossil fuels
c. Photo-synthesis
d. Transpiration
44. Fixation of nitrogen is done by
a. lightening
b. fixing bacteria
c. fertilizer factory
d. All of the above
45. Sulphur dioxide is used in
a. Paper manufacture
b. Textile manufacture
c. Processing of fossil fuels
d. Both (a) and (b)
UNIT IV
1. Which of the following is considered as an alternate fuel ?
a. CNG
b. Kerosene
c. Coal
d. Petrol
2. Solar radiation consists of
a. UV
b. Visible light
c. Infrared
d. All of these
3.Reduction in usage of fuels cannot be brought by:
a. using alternate fuels

b. changing lifestyles
c. reducing car taxes
d. both (a) and (b)
4.Which of the following is a hazard of a nuclear power plant
a. Accident risk when tankers containing fuel cause spill

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b. Radioactive waste of the power plant remains highly toxic for centuries
c. Release of toxic gases during processing
d. All of these
5.The most important fuel used by nuclear power plant is
a. U-248
b. U-235
c. U-238
d. U-236
6. Biogas is produced by
a. Microbial activity
b. Harvesting crop
c. Both (a) and (b)
7. Oil and gas are preferred because
a. Strong smell
b. Cheap
c. Easy transportation
d. All of these
8. Biomass power generation uses
a. Crops
b. Animal dung
c. Wood
d. All of these
9. Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in the year
a. 1984
b. 1952
c. 1986
d. 1987
10. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
a. Fossil fuels
b. Solar energy
c. Tidal wave energy
d. Wind energy
11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy resources
a. highly polluting
b. high waste disposable cost
c. unreliable supply
d. high running cost
12. ‘OTEC’ is an energy technology that converts
a. energy in large tides of ocean to generate electricity

b. energy in ocean waves to generate electricity
c. energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate electricity
d. energy in the fast moving ocean currents to generate electricity
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13. Which of the following source of energy is less eco-friendly?
a. Bio-gas
b. Wind
c. Solar
d. Nuclear
14. India’s position in the Bio-gas plants globally
a. 5th
b. 2nd
c. 4th
d. 7th
15. Solar energy is stored in
a. carbon-carbon bonds
b. green leaves
c. fossil fuels
d. biomass
16. Which resources are in-exhaustible?
a. renewable
b. fossil fuel
c. non-renewable
d. mineral
17. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following
a. Coal
b. Fuel cells
c. Wind power
d. Wave power
18. Electromagnetic radiation can cause
a. Plague
b. Malaria
c. Cancer
d. Dengue fever
19. Harnessing the wind energy is done by
a. Wind mill
b. Ball mill
c. Flour mill
d. Pig mill
20. Wind farms are located in
a. River basin
b. Plain area
c. Hilly area
d. Valley areas
21. Wind energy generation depends on
a. Direction of wind
b. Velocity of wind
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c. Humidity
d. Valley areas
22. With a minimum resource maximum energy can be created by
a. Solar radiation
b. Nuclear fuels
c. Wind
d. Tidal waves
23. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by
a. Solar photo voltaic system

b. Solar diesel hybrid system
c. Solar thermal system
d. Solar air heater
24. In hydropower plants power is generated by
a. Hot springs
b. Wind
c. Sun
d. Water
25. Hydrogen energy can be tapped through
a. Heat pumps
b. Fuel cells
c. Photo-voltaic cells
d. Gasifiers
26. Problems of hydrogen fuel are
a. Storage and distribution

b. Availability of hydrogen
c. Creates pollution
27. Nuclear power is being produced from
a. Carbon-14
b. Nuclear fission
c. Petroleum combustion
d. Natural gas
28. Nuclear fusion uses the following as a fuel
a. Carbon
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Nitrogen
29. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate at which it is used?
a. Coal
b. Petroleum
c. Oil
d. Biomass
30. Biomass consists of

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a. Lignin
b. Hemi-cellulose
c. Cellulose
d. All of the above
31. Which of the following is used as moderator in nuclear fuel
a. Graphite
b. Helium gas
c. Heavy water
d. All of the above
32. Nuclear waste is active for
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 50 years
d. Centuries
33. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at
a. Bhadravathi
b. Sandur
c. Raichur
d. Kaiga
34. Biomass energy in green plants is produced in presence of
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Sunlight
d. All of the above
35. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by
a. Burning
b. Cooling
c. Sublimation
d. Melting
36. Natural gas contains
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen
c. Methane
d. Nitrogen
37. In which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented
a. Goa
b. Karnataka
c. Kerala
d. Andhra Pradesh
38. Highest producer of oil and petroleum is
a. Middle east countries

b. America
c. China
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d. India
39. Cow dung can be used
a. as manure
b. for production of biogas
c. as fuel
d. all of the above
40. The source of electromagnetic radiation is
a. Sun
b. Moon
c. Water
d. Stars
41. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of
a. Methane and carbon dioxide

b. Methane and hydrogen sulphide
c. Methane and carbon monoxide
42. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate
a. Bio-diesel
b. Hydrogen
c. Bio-ethanol
d. Bio-methanol
UNIT V
1. Environmental pollution is due to
a. rapid urbanisation
b. deforestation
c. a forestation
d. a&b
2. Which of the following is air pollutant
a. CO
b. O2
c. N2
d. All
3. Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution
a. Volcanic eruption
b. Solar flair
c. Earth quake
d. All
4. Which of the following are biodegradable pollutants
a. Plastics
b. Domestic sewage
c. Detergent
d. All
5. Mining practices lead to

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a. Population growth
b. Rapid urbanisation
c. Loss of fertile grazing land
d. None of these
6. Which of the following is source of fly ash
a. Vehicular exhaust
b. Sewage
c. Thermal power plant
d. All
7. The liquid waste from bath and kitchens is called Sullage
a. Domestic sewage
b. Storm waste
c. Run off
8. Noise pollution can be minimised by
a. Urbanisation
b. Maintaining silence
c. Reducing noise at source
d. None
9. BOD means
a. Biochemical oxygen demand

b. Chemical oxygen demand
c. Biophysical oxygen demand
d. All
10. Which of the following industry generates coloured waste?
a. Software industry
b. Textile industry
c. Bio-medical industry
d. None
11. Physical pollution of water is due to
a. Dissolved oxygen
b. Turbidity
c. pH
d. None of these
12. Which of the following source is surface water?
a. Springs
b. Streams
c. Deep wells
d. All
13. Deforestation can
a. Increase the rain fall

b. Increase soil fertility
c. Introduce silt in the rivers
d. None of these
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14. Which of the following non-point source of water pollution?
a. Factories
b. Sewage treatment plants
c. Urban and sub-urban lands
d. All of the above
15. Sound beyond which of the following level can be regarded as pollutant
a. 40dB
b. 80dB
c. 120dB
d. 150dB
16. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution of water bodies
a. Sewage treatment plants

b. Thermal power plants
c. Solid water disposal
d. All
17. Smog is
a. A natural phenomenon
b. Combination of smoke and fog
c. Colourless
d. All of the above
18. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting
a. Electrostatic precipitator
b. Wet scrubber
c. Catalytic converter
d. All of the above
19. bWhich of the following statements about carbon monoxide is true?
a. Forms complex with haemoglobin

b. Forms complex with leg-haemoglobin
c. Formed by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels
d. Both a & c
20. Definition of noise is
a. Loud sound
b. Unwanted sound
c. Constant sound
d. Sound of high frequency
21. Noise pollution is controlled by
a. Reducing the noise at the source

b. Preventing it’s transmission
c. Protecting the receiver
d. All
22. Noise pollution limit at residential areas
a. 45 dB
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b. 80 dB
c. 55 dB
d. 90 dB
23. Noise pollution limits in industrial areas
a. 45 dB
b. 80 dB
c. 65 dB
d. 90 dB
24. Which of the following is non-biodegradable?
a. Plastics
b. Domestic sewage
c. Detergent
d. a&c
25. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant
a. CO
b. SO2
c. Ozone
d. CO2
26. Pesticides causes
a. Eye irritation
b. Skin irritation
c. Respiratory ailments
d. All of the above
27. Blarring sounds known to cause
a. Mental distress
b. High cholesterol
c. Neurological problems
d. All of the above
28. Which of the following is major cause of soil pollution?
a. Accident involving vehicles that are transporting

b. Pesticides and chemical fertilizers
c. Improper solid waste disposal
d. All of the above
29. “Minimata disease” is caused due to
a. Lead
b. Arsenic
c. Mercury
d. Cadmium
UNIT VI
1. The major automobile pollutants include
a. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM

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b. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and CH4
c. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM
d. CO, NOx, Freon and SPM
2. Petroleum based vehicles emit traces of
a. CO & NOx
b. SPM
c. Aldehydes
d. CH4
3. Heavy duty diesel vehicles contribute more
a. NOx
b. particulate matter
c. CO
d. Both a and b
4. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are
a. CO and hydrocarbons
b. CO and NOx
c. CH4 and CO2
d. all the above
5. The 4-stroke engines produce less of the following as compared to 2-stroke engines
a. CO and hydrocarbons
b. NOx and SO2
c. Both a and b
6. Alternative eco-friendly fuel for automobile is:
a. Petrol
b. diesel
c. CNG
d. Kerosene
7. Increase in asthma attacks has been linked to high levels of :
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Air-borne dust particles
d. All of the above
8. Population explosion will cause
a. Bio-diversity
b. Stress on ecosystem
c. more employment
d. none of these
9. Which of the following is having high population density
a. India
b. China
c. USA
d. Western Europe
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10. Which of the following is not the effect of urbanization
a. Air pollution
b. Thermal pollution
c. Solid waste production
d. Noise pollution
11. Which of the following is the facility that the urban people enjoy?
a. Better communication access

b. better quality of air
c. large land at cheap rates
d. none of these
12. Urbanisation is
a. Local environment issue

b. National environment issue
c. Both a and b
d. not at all an issue
13. Which of the following is an ill effect of urbanisation?
a. Decrease in area of agricultural land

b. Loss of greenery
c. Loss of water bodies
d. All of the above
14. The major cause of global population growth in 18th and 19th centuries was
a. Decrease in death rates

b. Decrease in birth rates
c. Industrial revolution
d. None of these
15. The world population in 2000 was around
a. 8 billion
b. 6.1 billion
c. 7.1 billion
d. 5 billion
16. The average life expectancy around the world is currently
a. Decreasing
b. Increasing
c. Not changing
d. Stabilizing
17. Which of the following is a problem not associated with population growth?
a. Increased resource consumption

b. Environmental pollution
c. Food and energy shortages
18. The major objectives of family welfare programs in India Is
a. Disease control
b. Population growth rate control
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c. Employment generation none of these
d. None of these
19. Population ageing is
a. The increase in the average age of the population

b. The result of decreased death and birth rates
c. The trend where more people live to reach old age while fewer children are born
d. all of the above
20. Which of the following is not a population characteristic
a. Doubling time
b. Total fertility rate
c. Gross domestic product growth rate
d. Infant mortality rate
21. Demography is the study of
a. Animal behaviour
b. Population growth
c. River
d. None of these
22. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming
a. Reducing fossil fuel consumption

b. Planting more trees
c. De-forestation
23. The meaning of global warming is
a. Increase in the temperature of climate

b. A planet hotter than earth
c. Solar radiation
d. Cooling effects
24. Global warming may bring about the following changes In the climate of the earth
a. Increase in the rain fall

b. Desertification
c. Drought
d. All of the above
25. Which green house gas is known as colourless, non-flammable, sweetish odour and laughing gas?
a. Methane
b. CO2
c. Nitrous Oxide
d. Sulphur hexa fluoride
26. The first major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was
a. Water act
b. Air act
c. Environmental act
d. Noise pollution act
25
27. Which of the following substantially reduces CO2 emission from automobiles?
a. Bio fuels like ethanol and bio diesel

b. fossil fuels like coal and lignite
c. Nuclear elements like uranium
d. Voltaic cells
28. The international protocol to protect the ozone layer is
a. Vienna protocol
b. Kyoto protocol
c. Cartagena protocol
d. Montreal protocol
29. The protocol that reduces
a. Kyoto protocol
b. Cartagena protocol
c. Montreal protocol
d. Vienna protocol
30. population explosion will cause
a. socio economic problems

b. food scarcity
c. energy crisis
d. all of these
31. Which of the following is not a green house gas
a. Hydro chlorofluorocarbons
b. Methane
c. CO2
d. SO2
32. Global warming could affect
a. climate
b. increase in sea levels
c. melting of glaciers
d. all of the above
33. Primary cause of acid rain around the world is due to
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Ozone
34. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?
a. Reducing fossil fuel consumption

b. Planting more trees
c. Deforestation
35. Which of the following is an air pollutant
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
26
c. Nitrogen
d. Particulate matter
UNIT VII
1) The pH value of acid rain water is
a. 5.7
b. 7.0
c. 8.5
d. 6.0
2) Which of the following is the remedial measure for acid rain?
a. reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur into the atmosphere
b. use of coal, free from sulphur
c. use of electro-static precipitator and catalytic converters
d. all of the above
3) The primary cause of acid rain around the world is
a. CFC
b. SO2
c. CO
d. O3
4) Acid rain can be controlled by
a. Reducing SO2 and NO2 emissions

b. Increasing number of lakes
c. Increasing the forest cover
d. Reducing oxygen emission
5) Atmospheric oxidation of SO2 and SO3 is influenced by
a. sunlight
b. humidity
c. presence of hydrocarbons
d. all of the above
6) Reduction in brightness of the famous Taj mahal is due to
a. Global warming
b. Air pollution
c. Ozone depletion
d. Afforestation
7) The effect of acid rain is
a. reduces soil fertility

b. increases atmospheric temperature
c. causing respiratory problems
d. skin cancer
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8) The process of movement of nutrients from the soil by the acid rain is called
a. Transpiration
b. Evaporation
c. Leaching
d. Infiltration
9) Ozone layer is present on

a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Thermosphere
10) Which of the following statements about Ozone is true

a. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
b. Ozone protects us from the harmful uv radiation of sun
c. Ozone is highly reactive
d. All of the above
11) Major compound responsible for the destruction of stratospheric ozone layer is
a. Oxygen
b. CFC
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Methane
12) Normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe is around
a. 200 DU
b. 300 DU
c. 400 DU
d. 500 DU
13) Ozone layer thickness is measured in

a. PPM
b. PPB
c. Decibels
d. Dobson units
14) Chloro fluoro carbons(CFC) are

a. non-toxic
b. non-flammable
c. non-carcinogenic
d. all of the above
15) Ozone layer absorbs

a. UV rays
b. Infra red rays
c. Cosmic rays
d. CO
16) Which of the following is not an ill effect of acid rain

a. results in killing fish
b. causes stone leprosy
c. leaches nutrients from the soil
d. cause cataract
17) Formation of ozone layer is explained by

a. Rosenmund reaction
b. Handerson’s reaction
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c. Chapman’s reaction
d. Perkin’s reaction
18) Each chlorine radical can destroy the following number of ozone molecules
a. 1000
b. 10,000
c. 1,00,000
d. 100
19) Freons are

a. HFC
b. CFC
c. NFC
d. Hydrocarbons
20) Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
b. Ozone is highly reactive
c. Ozone protects us from harmful UV radiations of sun
d. All of the above
21) Ozone depletion causes

a. Snow blindness
b. Photo-chemical smog
c. Acid rain
d. Vomiting
22) Which of the following statements is not true about animal husbandry?
a. it is a part of agricultural activity
b. it is livestock production
c. it is breeding, feeding and management of animals
d. it is protection of wild life
23) Which of the following is the purpose of animal husbandry?

a. conservation of animal husbandry
b. production of meat
c. conservation of wild life
d. conservation of forests
24) Domestic animals are used for

a. dairy products
b. production of fibre
c. production of meat
d. all of these
25) Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to

a. Urbanisation
b. Industrialisation
c. Increase in vehicle population
26) Ozone hole was first discovered over

a. Arctic
b. Antarctica
c. Tropical region
d. Africa
27) CFCs have been used as

a. solvent
b. refrigerants
29
c. blowing agents for polymer forms
d. all of these
28) World ozone day is being celebrated on

a. May 7th
b. July 14th
c. September 16th
d. September 11th
29) Bhopal gas tragedy caused due to leakage of

a. Methyl Iso Cyanate(MIC)
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Mustard gas
d. Methane
30) Animal husbandry results in

a. Global warming
b. Acid rain
c. Ozone depletion
d. None of these
UNIT VIII
1) Environmental (protection) Act was enacted in the year
a. 1986
b. 1989
c. 1994
d. 1998
2) The Air(prevention and control of pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a. 1981
b. 1974
c. 1994
d. 2004
3) The water(prevention & control of pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a. 1986
b. 1974
c. 1994
d. 2004
4) The wild life protection was enacted in the year
a. 1986
b. 1974
c. 1994
d. 1972
5) The Forest (conservation) Act was enacted in the year
a. 1986
b. 1974
c. 1980
d. 1972
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6) The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:
a. The wild life protection act

b. The air act
c. The noise pollution act
7) The central pollution control board was established under the provision of:
a. Environmental protection act 1986

b. Air (prevention and control) act 1981
c. Water(prevention and control of pollution)act 1974
8) The Karnataka state pollution control board(KSPCB) was established in the year
a. 1974
b. 1982
c. 1986
d. 1976
9) Environmental protection is the responsibility of
a. Govt. of India
b. NGOs
c. Individual
d. All
10)‘Earth day’ is observed on:
a. 1st December
b. 5th June
c. April 22nd
d. 1st January
11) Which of the following is NGO:
a. Narmada Bachao Andolan

b. CPCB
c. KSPCB
d. None
12) Which of the following is empowered to take measure to protect & improve environment as per the Environment
protection act
a. Central Govt.
b. State government
c. Corporation
d. None
13) Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents?
a. Centre for science and environment

b. State pollution control board
c. Indian environmental association
d. None
14) The leader of the chipko movement is:
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a. Sunderlal Bahuguna
b. Medha Patkar
c. Vandana Shiva
d. Suresh Heblikar
15) The environmental(protection)act 1986 deals with:
a. Water
b. Air
c. Soil
d. All
16) The objectives of the wild life protection act 1972 is:
a. To preserve the wild life bio-diversity

b. To maintain essential ecological and life supporting systems
c. Protection & conservation of wild life
d. All
17) The tiger conservation project was started in:
a. 1973
b. 1984
c. 1999
d. 2004
18) The goal of National parks & wild life sanctuaries is:
a. To promote international trading of animals and their products

b. To evacuate tribal people from forest
c. Conservation of wild life
19) Environmental education is targeted to:
a. General public
b. Professional social groups
c. Technicians & scientists
d. All
20) Which of the following animals is endangered species of India?
a. Black buck
b. Elephant
c. Fox
d. Giraffe
21) Which state is having highest women literacy in India?
a. Karnataka
b. Punjab
c. Rajasthan
d. Kerala
22) An international conference on environmental education was held in December 1982 at:
a. Kyoto
b. Vienna
c. New-Delhi
d. London
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23) Environmental protection is the fundamental duties of the citizen of India under the article:
a. 51-A(g)
b. 48-A
c. 47
d. 21
24) The objective of integrated child development services(ICDS) are:
a. Immunisation
b. Health check up & referral services
c. Pre-school and non formal education
d. All of the above
25) ISO-14000 standards deal with:
a. pollution management
b. risk management
c. environmental management
26) World summit on sustainable development was held at
a. Johannesburg in 2002
b. Rio de janeiro in 1992
c. Kyoto in 1994
d. Stockholm in 2000
27) An important NGO involved in global environmental protection is
a. UNICEF
b. Green peace
c. WHO
d. CPCB
28) The first international earth summit was held at
a. Johannesburg
b. Rio de janeiro
c. Kyoto
d. Stockholm
29) Silent valley movement succeeded
a. Waste management in sea coast

b. Cancelling the state government hydel project and saving the Lion Tailed Monkeys
c. Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala
30) The committee which submitted it’s report to Government of India on environmental education is
a. Tiwari committee b. Mehta committee

b. Banerjee committee d. Agarwal committee
Note: Answers are shown in BOLD letters
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1. The phenomenon of occurrence of additional species found in the ecotone or transitional zone between adjoining
ecosystems is known as ------------------
a) Edge effect b) Root effect c) Raman effect
2. The complex network of interconnected food chains is called ---------------------
a) Trophic level b) Food web c) Ecological pyramid
3. Each organism in an ecosystem is at a specific feeding stage called as the -----------------
a) Climax level b) Producer level c) Trophic level
4. The area to which a species is biologically adapted to live is known as--------------
a) Niche b) Habitat c) Succession
5. Official date of Earth Day is on ---------------------------------------------
a) April 22 b) March 21 c) May 22
6. All forms of water that comes down on Earth, including rain, show, hail etc. is known as-------------
a) Calcification b) Fixation c) Precipitation
7. The forests in the Arctic are called --------------------------
a) Savanna b) Tundra c) Prairies
8. The ocean cover ----------------------- percentage of Earth’s surface.
a) 51 % b) 61 % c) 71 %
9. The salt-tolerant trees growing in shallow marine sediment or estuaries known as---------
a) Mangroves b) Xerophytes c) Epiphytes
10. The largest brackish water lake situated in Asia is in Orissa. Which is the lake ?
a) Chilka lake b) Vembanad lake c) Woolar lake
11. Ramsar Convention refers to the conservation of ----------------------------
a) Deserts b) Wetlands c) Agriculture lands
12. The World Wetlands Day is celebrated on -----------------------
a) February 02 b) February 28 c) June 05
13. National Maritime Day of India is celebrated on -----------------------
a) October 16 b) April 05 c) March 21
14. The animal which consumes decaying organic matter is ----------------------------
a) Carnivore b) Detrivore c) Herbivore
15. Ganga Action Plan in India was launched in the year -------------------
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a) 1988 b) 1985 c) 1980
16. What is the name of the action plan for sustainable development in the twenty
first century framed in the Rio Declaration on Environment & Development (1992) ?
a) Action 21 b) Agenda 21 c) Rio 21
17. A set of organisms that resemble one another in appearance and behaviour is called a ---------------
a) Exons b) Prions c) Species
18. The area where all the living organisms interact with each other and their environment is ----------
a) biosphere b) exosphere c) mesosphere
19. An ecosystem gradually merges with an adjoining one through a Transitional zone called the -----
a) ecological niche b) ecological footprint c) ecotone
20. Green revolution is associated with ---------------
a) sericulture b) agriculture c) fish culture
21. The first protected area in India is --------------------------
a) Silent valley b) Corbett National Park c) Bandipur sanctuary
22. The Indian Parliament passed the Biodiversity Bill in the year
a) 2000 b) 2005 c) 2002
23. World Water Day is celebrated on ----------------------
a) May 22 b) June 05 c) March 22
24. The components of LPG are ----------------------------
a) Methane & Hexane b) Propane & Butane c) Ethane & Methane
25. Which chemical was responsible for Bhopal gas tragedy?
a) Methyl Iso Cyanate b) Benzene Hexa Chloride c) Tri Nitro Toluene
26. Major consumer of wood from forest is -----------------------------
a) Thermal Power Plant b) Paper Industry c) Chemistry Industry
27. Green Revolution in India was initiated by --------------------------
a) M.S.Swaminathan b) Sunderlal Bahugana c) Kurien
28. The Unit of measurement of intensity of sound is in ---------------------
a) decibels b) lux c) parsec
29. A combination of smoke, fog and chemical pollutants seen in industrialized cities is known as ----
a) Sol b) Smog c) Fallout
30. Enrichment of water body by nutrients like phosphorus and nitrogen is called
35
a) Succession b) Eutrophication c) Stratification
31. The violent tropical storms in the Indian Ocean are known as ------------------
a) Typhoon b) Cyclones c) Hurricane
32. The worst nuclear accident happened to date is occurred at -------------------------
a) Chernobyl in 1986
b) Three Mile Power Plant in 1979
c) Sellafield in 1957
33. Major cause of Ozone depletion is due to which chemical ?
a) Chlorofluorocarbons b) Polyphenols c) Dioxins
34. The legally binding international agreement to reduce Greenhouse gases by 5 % 2012 is ----------
a) Vienna convention b) Montreal Protocol c) Kyoto Protocol
35. The portion of the earth and its environment which can support life is known as
a) Crust b) Biosphere c) Exosphere
36. Public awareness of environment creates ----------------------
a) Environment protection b) Environment degradation

c) Environmental improvement d) Environmental cultivation
37. Salim Ali centre for ornithology and history is located at ----------------------
a) Pune b) Hyderabad c) Kerala d) Coimbatore
38. Wild life protection act was formulated during the period of ------------------
a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi b) Lal Bahadur Shasthri

c) Rajiv Gandhi c) Morarji Desai
39. What is troposphere?
a) Portion of air b) Portion of water

c) Lowest layer of atmosphere where we survive d) Portion of sky
40. How is the atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere connected ?
a) Hydrological cycle b) Nitrogen cycle

c) Oxygen cycle d) Carbon cycle
41. The main energy source for the environment is ----------------
a) Solar energy b) Chemical energy

c) Bioelectric energy d) Electrical energy
42. What is the meaning of the word “endemic”
a) Rare and occur only in a few location

b) Rare and occur everywhere
c) Abundant and seen everywhere
d) Abundant and only in few locations
36
43. Which gas is likely to be reduced in the atmosphere by deforestation?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen
44. What are rodenticides ?
a) that kill fishes b) that kill insects

c) that kill rats d) that kill crocos
45. Which of the following enhances soil fertility ?
a) Crop rotation b) Improved methods of agriculture

c) Using new seed verities d) Irrigation
46. Salinization is -------------------------
a) Accumulation of salts in water

b) Accumulation of salts in food
c) Accumulation of salts in body animals
d) Accumulation of salts in animals
47. What is oil slick ?
a) Boiled oil b) Cooled oil

c) Thin film of oil in sea water d) Oil in deep sea
48. Cigarette smoking exposes one to ---------------
a) Sulphur dioxide b) Carbon dioxide

c) Nitrogen peroxide d) Carbon monoxide
49. “Ozone Hole” is a ------------------------
a) Hole in the atmosphere b) Destruction of ozone layer

c) Hole in hydrosphere
50. Euro II standard refers to ---------------------
a) Lowering sulfur content in fuel b) Increasing sulfur content in fuel

c) Lowering carbon content in fuel
51. Noise is ---------------------
a) Huge sound b) Sound of vehicles

c) Undesirable and unwanted sound d) Sound of crackers
52. What is ‘temporary threshold shift’ ?
a) Hearing loss due to excessive noise b) Noise that is untolerable

c) Tolerable noise
53. Acid is an example of --------------------------
a) Corrosive waste b) Infectious waste

c) Radioactive waste d) Ignitable waste
54. Vermi composting is a natural method of
a) Producing compost manure b) Producing worms

37
c) Managing waste it creates d) Destroying worms
55. The intensity of earthquake is measured in --------------------
a) Beaufort scale b) Richter scale c) Mohs scale
56. Which of the below is most responsible for world water crisis ?
a) Dams b) Floods c) Drought d) Population growth
57. Phagotropic mode of nutrition is found in ---------------------
a) Products b) consumers c) decomposers d) all of these
58. Energy is returned to the atmosphere in the form of
a) potential energy b) metabolic energy

c) heat d) vapours
59. The conversion of ammonia to nitrate is known as -------------------------
a) ammonification b) nitrification
c) denitrification d) all of these
60. The study of individual organism is known as
a) syn ecology b) population ecology

c) autecology d) human ecology
61. The resources that can be replaced by natural ecological cycle is called
a) renewable b) non-renewable
c) exhaustible d) natural
62. Natural earthquakes are caused by --------------
a) earth’s crust b) deep seas

c) peak mountains d) forests
63. Any unfavorable alteration of the environment may be called as
a) eutrophication b) environment pollution

c) biomagnigication c) bioaccumulation
64. The presence of solid, liquid or gaseous compounds, which may not be normally present, or in excess concentration in
the atmosphere is called
a) air pollution b) water pollution

c) soil pollution d) radioactive pollution
65. The place where the river meets the sea is called
a) estuaries b) oceans
c) lake d) wetlands
66. The historical monument that is affected by acid rain is
a) Taj Mahal b) Pyramid of Egypt

c) Pisa Tower d) Golden Temple
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67. The expansion on POLI is
a) physical quality of life index

b) population quotient of life in India
c) poor quality of life in India
d) poverty, quality of life in India
68. The presence of which is necessary for photosynthesis
a) Chloroform b) Chlorophyll
c) Phosphorus d) Polymer
69. The Primary Consumers are also called as
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores
c) Enzymes d) None of these
70. Forest is an example of
a) Marine ecosystem b) Limnic ecosystem

c) Artificial Ecosystem d) Terrestial Ecosystem
71. The amount of solar radiation reaching the surface of the earth is called
a) Solar flux b) reflected light

c) minerals c) solvents
72. Snake is an example of
a) Primary Carnivores b) Secondary Carnivores

c) Herbivores d) None of these
73. The forests which occur in law rain fall area is
a) Evergreen forests ` b) deciduous forests

c) Coniferous forests d) all the above
74. All the genes of a population is called
a) gene poll b) gene

c) ecosystem d) population
75. The destruction of habitat of plants and animals is called
a) endemism b) endangered species

c) habitant loss d) flood
76. Zoos are examples for
a) insitu conservation b) in vivo conservation

c) exsitu conservation d) exvivo conservation
77. Acid rain contains
a) Sulphuric acid b) Hydrochloric acid

c) Oxalic acid d) Acetic acid
78. Organ affected by pneumonia
a) Liver b) Kidney
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c) Heart d) Lungs
79. Which year was declared as the ‘Water Year’ by Indian government
a) 2010 b) 2004
c) 2007 d) 2000
80. In which Indian state is Corbet National park located
a) Madya Pradesh b) Uttarakhand

c) Kerala d) Tamilnadu
81. Who wrote the book ‘Violence of Green Revolution’
a) Vandana Siva b) Sheela Dikshit

c) Menaka Gandhi d) Arundhathi Roy
82. The first national park of Kerala
a) Aralam b) Kottayam
c) Idukki d) Iravikulam
83. In which year was ‘Project Tiger’ launched?
a) 1973 b) 1964
c) 1998 d) 1970
84. The biggest award for environmental activities in India is given in the name of an individual. In whose name is it
constituted?
a) Lal Bahadur Shasthri b) Morarji Desai

c) Indira Gandhi d) Kamaraj
85. On which date was the Stockholm Conference on Human Environment held ?
a) July 6th 1974 b) Aug 8th 1976

c) June 5th 1972 d) Dec 12th 1990
86. Where was the Stockholm conference on Human Environment held ?
a) Sweden b) Austria
c) India d) Greece
87. World Earth Day is observed on
a) May 24 b) July 5
c) Aug 2 d) April 22
88. The controversial dam across the river Narmada ?
a) Sardar Sarovar b) Hirakud

c) Bhakranangal d) Sutlej
89. Leader of ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’
a) Vandana Siva b) Medha Patkar

b) Menaka Gandhi d) Mayilamma
90. Most abundant noble gas of the atmosphere is
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a) Neon b) Xenon
c) Argon d) Krypton
91. The most harmful of ultraviolet radiations are
a) UV-C b) UV-B
b) UV-A d) All the above
92. The soil with poorest water holding capacity is
a) Clay b) Loam
c) Sandy d) None of the above
93. Formation of soil takes place by
a) Weathering b) Pedogenesis
c) Melting d) Both A and B
94. Favorable morphological and physiological response to a change in environment is called
a) Preadaptation b) Ecotyping
c) Formation of ecophenes d) Accilimatisation
95. Plants adapted to open, sunny habitats are
a) Sciophytes b) Heliophytes
c) Mesophytes d) Epiphytes
96. Plants growing under shade are
a) Epipytes b) Semi-epiphytes
c) Mesophytes d) Sciophytes
97. Study of inter-relationship between organisms and their environment is
a) Ecology b) Ecosystem
c) Phytogeography d) Ethology
98. Who among is a famous plant ecologist of India ?
a) Charles Darwin b) Ramdeva Misra

c) Birbal Sahani d) Jagdish Chandra Bose
99. Grassland of USA is referred to as
a) Praires b) Steppes
c) Pampas d) Veldts
100. Deserts occur in area of
a) Adverse human disturbance b) Underground saline water

c) Little underground water d) Rain shadow
Question: Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?

1. Wind
2. Water
3. Vegetation
4. Coal and minerals
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Question: Which of the following is a renewable resource?
1. Soil
2. Water
3. Flora and fauna
4. All the above
Question: _____ of stratosphere provides protection to our life.

1. Nitrogen
2. Hydrogen
3. Ozone
4. Argon
Question: The life supporting gases such as O2, CO2 and N2 are chiefly concentrated in the_______.
1. troposphere
2. exosphere
3. homosphere
4. stratosphere
Question: Which of the following soil is the best for plant growth?
1. Sandy soil
2. Clay
3. Gravel
4. Loamy soil
Question: Both power and manure are provided by _______.

1. thermal plants
2. nuclear plants
3. biogas plants
4. hydroelectric plants
Question: In the atmosphere, the layer above the troposphere is _____.

1. stratosphere
2. exosphere
3. mesosphere
4. thermosphere
Question: ______ is the major raw material for biogas.

1. Plant leaves
2. Cow dung
3. Mud
4. Grass
Question: A biosphere reserve conserves and preserves_______.

1. wild animals
2. wild land
3. natural vegetation
4. all the above
Question: Atomic energy is obtained by using ores of_______.

1. copper
2. uranium
3. neither (a) nor (b)
4. both (a) and (b)
42
Question: Sanctuaries are established to_______.
1. rear animals for milk
2. entrap animals
3. protect animals
4. none of the above
Question: The death of the last individual of a species is called_______.

1. extinction
2. clad
3. neither (a) nor (b)
4. species diversity
Question: Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?

1. Natural gas
2. Petrol
3. Coal
4. Uranium
Question: Biogas generation is mainly based on the principle of_______.

1. fermentation
2. degradation
3. putrification
4. both (a) and (b)
Question: Red Data Book provides a list of _______.

1. advanced plants
2. rare, endangered or endemic species
3. disease resistant animals
4. none of the above
Question: Floods can be prevented by_______.

1. afforestation
2. cutting the forests
3. tilling the land
4. removing the top soil
Solved Multiple Choice Questions Science (Coal and Petroleum)
1. Which of the following is natural resources?

a. Tea
b. Cooked Food
c. Air
d. Toffee
2. Inexhaustible natural resources in nature are

a. limited
b. Unlimited
c. Scarce
d. Not present
3. Resources which are limited in nature are Known as

a. Exhaustible
b. Inexhaustible
c. unnatural
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d. None of these
4. Which of the following is an exhaustible natural resource?

a. Air
b. Water
c. Soil
d. forest
5. Sunlight is _________natural resource

a. Inexhaustible
b. Exhaustible
c. Both (a) &
(b) d. None of these
6. Petroleum is ________natural resource

a. Inexhaustible
b. Exhaustible
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
7. Fossils are the

a. Dead remains of living organism
b. Coal mines
c. Kind of natural resource
d. Living beings
8. Coal can be formed from

a. Sunlight
b. Steam
c. Fossils
d. Plants
9. Coal is ________in colour

a. Black
b. Blue
c. Orange
d. Red
10. Coal is ________in nature

a. Soft
b. Hard
c. Thin
d. Hot
11. Coal can be used as a

a. Fertilizer
b. Purifier
c. Fuel
d. Insecticide
12. Other uses of fuel includes

a. Produce steam to run engine
b. Produce electricity in thermal power plants
c. Fuel in various industries
d. All of these
13. Coal mainly contains

a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon
44
d. Sodium
14. Carbonisation is
a. Slow conversion of dead vegetation Into coal
b. Deposition of soil
c. falling of trees
d. None of these
15. When heated in air produces

a. Carbon monoxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Nitrogen dioxide
d. Oxygen
16. Coal is produced in industry to get

a. Coke
b. Coal tar
c. Coal gas
d. All of these
17. Coke is used in the manufacturing of

a. Lead
b. Iron
c. steel
d. Copper
18. Which is an almost pure form of carbon?

a. Coke
b. Coal tar
c. Coal gas
d. None of these
19. The characteristic of coal is

a. tough
b. Black in colour
c. Porous
d. All of these
20. Coal tar has an _________ smell.

a.. Unpleasant
b. Pleasant
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
21. Coal tar is used in manufacture of

a. Synthetic dyes
b. Drugs
c. Explosives
d. All of these
22. Naphthalene balls are obtained from

a. Carbon
b. Coke
c. Coal tar
d. Coal gas
23. Which gas is obtained during the processing of coal?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Coal gas
c. Carbon monoxide
45
d. Sulphur dioxide
24. Heavy motor vehicles like trucks run on

a. Petrol
b. Diesel
c. Coal
d. Coal tar
25. Petrol and diesel can be obtained from

a. Coal tar
b. Coal
c. Petroleum
d. Coal gas
26. Petroleum is formed from

a. Domestic animals
b. Organisms in sea
c. Wild animals
d. Insects
27. Petroleum is mixture of

a. Petrol
b. Diesel
c. Petroleum gas
d. All of these
28. The layer containing petroleum oil & gas is

a. Above that of water
b. Below water
c. Between water and sand
d. Below sand
29. Refining is
a. Extracting petroleum gas
b. Separation of various fractions of petroleum
c. Heating of coal
d. Sedimentation of fossil fuel
30. LPG is used in / as

a. Home
b. Vehicles
c. Aviation Fuel
d. Road surfacing
31. Natural gas can be transported through

a. Cylinders
b. Barriers
c. Pipes
d. None of these
32. CNG is stored under

a. Power generation
b. Electric Generators
c. Solvent
d. none of these
33. CNG is used for

a. Power generation
b. Electric generators
c. Solvent
46
d. None of these
34. In India, vast reserves of natural gas are found in

a. Tripura
b. Rajasthan
c. Maharashtra
d. All of these
35. Burning of fossil fuel causes

a. Air pollution
b. Global warming
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
36. PCRA stands for

a. Pollution control research association
b. Petroleum conversation Research association
c. Petroleum control research association
d. Petrol, coal reserve association
37. Bitumen is used in

a. Electric generators
b. Road surfacing
c. Coal tar
d. Natural Gas
38. What is called black gold?

a. Petroleum
b. Coal
c. Coal Tar
d. Natural gas
39. Petrol can be saved by

a. Driving at a constant & moderate speed
b. Ensuring correct type pressure
c. Switching off the engine at traffic lights
d. All of these
40. Which of the following is / are fossil fuels?

a. Coal
b. Petroleum
c. Natural gas
d. All of these
41. CNG is
a. Highly polluting
b. Less polluting
c. Not at all polluting
d. None of these
42. Kerosene is used in / as

a. Jet engines
b. Fuel
c. Ointments
d. Lubricants
43. Useful substances obtained from petroleum & natural gases are called
a. Chemicals
b. Petroleum products
c. Petrochemicals
47
d. None of these
44. Petrochemicals are used in the manufacture of

a. Polythene
b. Detergents
c. Fibres
d. All of these
45. Hydrogen gas obtained from natural gas is used in

a. motor fuel
b. Fertilizers
c. Paints
d. stoves
46. Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum & natural gas in
a. Absence of air
b. Presence of air
c. Presence of sun light
d. None of these
47. Diesel is used in

a. Coojing oil
b. Paints
c. Road surfacing
d. Electric generators
48. Which of them is used in extraction of metals ?

a. Coke
b. coal gas
c. Coal tar
d. Petroleum
49. Which of them is used as solvent for dry cleaning?

a. Diesel
b. Kerosene
c. petrol
d. Paraffin wax
50. The fibres manufacture by petrochemicals are

a. Nylon
b. Polyester
c. Acrylic
d. All of these
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Lecture 1 - Introduction to Environmental and Natural Resource Economics
1. What is the Environmental Economics?
a) The branch of economics that studies how environmental and natural resources are developed and managed.
b) The branch of economics that shows how to exploit natural resources as quickly as possible.
c) The psychological study of relationships between humans and natural resources.
d) All answers above are correct.
2.Which of the following answers applies to renewable natural resource?
a) Once the renewable natural resource is used, it is gone forever.

b) Renewable resources can be replenished.
c) Renewable resource are costly to extract.
d) Renewable resources can be harvested at any rate without harming future supplies.
3. Which of the following answers is a nonrenewable natural resource?
a) Fish and cattle.

b) Petroleum.
c) Human Resources.
4. Why study environmental economics?
a) Environmental economics to bring harmony to the economic system and the environment.
b) Study environmental economics to bring harmony to the economic system and the political system.
c) Study environmental economics to find harmony with oneself.
d) Study environmental economics to find harmony with other people.
5. When economists say a product has a high cost for a good, what does it mean?
a) Good is available in large quantities to the market.

b) A monopoly is supplying a goods.
c) Demand is very high relative to supply.
6. Which items from list below is a positive externality?
a) Public Immunization.
b) Traffic jams.
c) A neighbor’s barking dog.
7. Since 1886, the British Telecom supplies telephone and communication services to its citizens. It has a 100% market
share. What kind of company is it?
a) Oligopoly.
b) Duopoly.
c) Monopoly.
d) None of the answers above is correct.
8. Which good below is a public good?
a) Military and police.

b) Used car market.
c) Insurance from a private company.
d) Petroleum imported from a government-controlled oil field.
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9. What is Cost-Benefits Analysis?
a) Help a person or institution to choose a project with the lowest benefits and highest costs.
b) Help a person or institution to choose a project with the highest benefits and lowest costs.
c) Help a person or institution to choose a project with the highest benefits and costs.
d) Help a person or institution to choose a project with the lowest benefits and costs.
10. What is an open resource?
a) Property owned by everyone or absence of ownership.

b) Property owned by the government.
c) An LLP company owns the property.
11. What is the meaning of equity?
a) People own equally all of the society’s resources.

b) Government representatives only have right to use resources.
c) Law representatives only have right to use resources.
Lecture 2 - Growing Population and Economic Growth
1. Which Law of Thermodynamics states “The total entropy of any isolated thermodynamics system always increases
over time, approaching a maximum value?”
a) The 1st Law of Thermodynamics.

b) The 2nd Law of Thermodynamics.
c) The Coase Theorem.
d) The Porter Hypothesis.
2.In which factor more people consume goods and services?
a) Economic growth.
b) Population growth.
c) Economic stagflation.
d) Financial growth.
3.Which countries are big recyclers?
a) Low-income countries.
b) Low population countries.
c) High population countries.
d) High-income countries.
4.Which Law of Thermodynamics states “The change in the internal energy of a closed thermodynamic system is
equal to the sum of the amount of heat energy supplied to or removed from the system and the work done on or by the
system?”
a) The 1st Law of Thermodynamics.

b) The 2nd Law of Thermodynamics.
d) The Porter Hypothesis.
5.What is entropy?
a) Energy used in economic activity like production, transportation, and consumption.
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b) Economic differences equalize over a decade.
c) Energy differences equalize over time.
d) All energy comes from the environment.
6.Which factor allows society to produce more goods and services?
a) Financial growth.
b) Economic growth.
c) Population growth.
d) Economic stagflation.
7. Why is the world’s population growth rate slowing?
a) People are becoming more educated.

b) Children are expensive in both money and time.
c) Governments provide little support to their people.
d) Taxes are increasing over time.
8. Why do Malthusian ideas keep coming back?
a) His idea is proved correct in the majority of cases.

b) He believed that the end of the world will be at the beginning of 21st century.
c) People are pessimistic and cling to disastrous predictions for resources and environmental degradation.
d) He made accurate predictions and nobody opposed it.
9. If many industries are expanding within a country, what is happening?
a) Nothing is changing.
b) The people’s welfare is decreasing.
c) The mortality level is increasing.
d) The economy is expanding and we have economic growth.
10. Some model the population growth rate by Pt = P0ert. Which of the following is true about this equation?
a) The equation predicts that the population growth will slow down and become negative.
b) Reinforces Malthus’ idea that the population keeps growing, putting pressure on resources and the
environment.
c) The human race is doomed.
d) The equation predicts that humans will hit a maximum population limit.
11. Which country or continent has been devastated by HIV?
a) Asia.
b) Africa.
c) United States.
d) Australia.
12. What is the impact of high market prices on society?
a) Industries expand to the higher demand and price.

b) Firms want to supply more products to the market.
c) The high market price spurs technological progress.
13. What of the following is not true about the Environmental Kuznet’s Cruve?
a) Pollution increases initially as a country develops its industry and then begins to decline after reaching a certain level of
economic progress.
b) That in the early stages of economic growth, degradation and pollution increase, but beyond some level of income per
capita, the trend reverses. High-income levels per capita leads to environmental improvements.
51
c) That economic inequality decreases over time while a country is developing, then after a certain average income
is attained, inequality begins to increase.
d) That the relationship between per capita income and the use of natural resources and/or the emission of wastes has an
upside down U-shape.
14. Which explanation does not refer to Environmental Kuznets Curve:
a) A natural transition of economic development from agrarian economies, to heavy polluting industries, and finally to
cleaner service economies.
b) High-income countries export their pollution to less developed countries.
c) Environmental quality is a flow variable that improves over time.
d) High-income countries can afford to pay the higher pollution abatement costs.
15. One of the important implications of an Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) is that:
a) At low levels of income, pollution does not rise with flat growth because the pollution response is weak.
b) Growth and development in a country does not necessarily lead to environmental degradation.
c) As income falls, the willingness to pay for environmental quality rises, and increasingly large sacrifices in consumption
are made to provide great environmental benefits.
d) Below a threshold level of pollution, the dirtiest technology will not be used.
16. There is empirical evidence that the amount of environmental regulation increases with the level of income. Which
of the following reason(s) are correct?
a) Pollution damages gets a higher priority after society has attained enough investments in health and education.
b) High-income societies have more staff and funds to enforce compliance with environmental regulations.
c) Higher income and education empower local communities to enforce tougher environmental standards.
d) All of the above answers are true.
17. The Environmental Kuznet’s Curve can be interpreted as a transition from an agrarian sector to urban
industrialization. Along with this transition, we see a growth in income inequality as a low-income agriculture society
evolves into a high-income urban society. This will lead to:
a) Government creates social organizations to help low-income households.

b) Workers migrate from the agricultural industry to the industrial, urban jobs.
c) Society will focus less on public education.
d) Wide range of income level in the industrialized city, which further opens up inequality.
18. The Environmental Kuznet’s Curve upside down U-shape refers to:
a) An environmental indicator responding to climate seasons.

b) When environmental pollution is at its greatest level and society has attained a certain standard of living from its
economic system, society changes its focus from low-paying jobs to high-paying jobs.
c) When environmental pollution is at its greatest level and society has attained a certain standard of living from
the industrial sector, society changes its focus from self-interest to social interest.
d) None of the answers is correct.
19. Which answer below is not a characteristic of the developing world?
a) They have high population growth rates.

b) They are moving from agrarian societies to industrialized societies, resulting in more pollution.
c) They are moving from industrialized societies to agrarian societies, resulting in less pollution.
d) Urbanization.
20. What are the potential problems in the developing world?
a) Urbanization.
b) Corruption and lack of democracy.
c) Lack of information/education.
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21. Why does the industry from developed countries relocate to the developing countries?
a) Developing countries have cheaper labor and lax regulations.

b) They want to help the developing countries create jobs.
c) They want to increase economic growth in developing countries.
d) They want to pay higher taxes.
22. Which country pollutes our atmosphere more than the other countries?
a) China.
b) Russia.
c) Japan.
d) Mongolia.
23. Why is urbanization increasing in the developing world?
a) Urban areas are cheaper to live in.

b) People want to be closer to friends and family.
c) Urban areas have stronger government regulations.
d) Urban areas tend to create the jobs.
24. What are the benefits if the developing countries grow into developed countries?
a) Their population growth rates slow down.

b) If they become high-income societies, then they may invest in green technologies.
c) If they become high-income societies, then they may replenish their renewable resources.
d) All answers are correct.
Lecture 3 – Pollution
1. Which of the ideas below indicates the level of uncertainty associated with pollution and its damage to the
environment from now and into the future?
a) The Porter Hypothesis.

b) The Precautionary Principle.
d) Global Warming Potential.
2. Government maximizes society's return to a public good when MB = MC. What should government do if MB > MC?
a) Decrease production of a public good by one unit.

b) Increase production of one more unit of a public good.
c) Decrease production of a private good by one unit.
d) Increase production of one more unit of a public good.
3. What is uncertainty?
a) It is possible to describe the current state or predict future outcomes easily.

b) Uncertainty means something is measurable.
c) It is impossible to describe the current state or predict future outcomes.
d) Uncertainty presents a small problem for the Precautionary Principle
4. Which of the answers are true for a Marginal Cost function for a public project financed by government?
a) Usually government assesses taxes on society to finance projects.
53
b) Supply for a public good has a positive slope.
c) Society has higher costs, as government supplies another unit of a public project.
d) All of the answers above are true.
5. How does the marginal abatement cost function change if a firm has a probability of getting caught and government
assesses a penalty?
a) Penalty for cheating * MC of compliance + probability caught.

b) Probability caught * MC of compliance + penalty for cheating.
c) Penalty for cheating * probability caught + MC of compliance.
6. Why may uncertainty for environmental problems be highly non-linear?
a) The world is too complex and we do not know where the tipping points.
b) Damages may be barely noticeable for low levels, but become severe above some uncertain threshold.
c) Humans should not go beyond the tipping points and exacerbate environmental damage.
d) All of the answers above are correct.
7. Why are local governments reluctant to increase environmental standards and regulations?
a) To attract industry and indirectly jobs and wealth.

b) To increase the health standards of their residents.
c) To make life easier for its citizens.
d) None of answers above is correct.
8. Why did the car industry in the United States push for federal standards in 1960?
a) The car industry in the U.S. cares about U.S. environment.

b) It was easier to have one set of regulations from federal government than 50 separate regulations for each state.
c) Car industry wants to increase potential competition, thus more firms enter the market.
9. Which state passed the toughest emission regulations for cars, even exceeding the federal government’s standards?
a) California.
b) Ohio.
c) Illinois.
d) Texas.
10. Which theory or rule claims that environmental regulations spur innovation and new technologies, thus increasing
a firm’s competitiveness?
a) Coase theorem.
b) The Precautionary Principle.
c) Porter Hypothesis.
d) Hotelling’s Rule.
11. One can view environmental regulations as a benefit for …
a) society’s health.
b) the environment.
c) innovation of firms and companies.
12. The EPA was going to shutdown the Robbins Company, because it discharged too much polluted water. However,
this caused the company’s engineers to develop new methods to purify water, allowing the company to produce higher
quality for a lower cost. Which idea explains this behavior?
54
a) Porter Hypothesis.
b) Global warming potential.
c) Coase Theorem.
d) A Pigouvian Price.
13. Why did the pollution permits save an estimated $1 billion over command and control regulation?
a) Flexible standards made using clean coal, rather than a scrubber, a viable option
b) Deregulation of railroads made it cheaper to transport low-sulfur coal across US
c) Technological innovation that cleaned a plant’s emissions.
d) All answers all are correct.
14. Which location in the atmosphere is ozone considered ”bad” and harmful to a public’s health?
a) Lower atmosphere.
b) Higher atmosphere.
c) Stratosphere.
d) Mesosphere.
15. Since ozone is highly reactive, which metal below will it oxidize?
a) Gold.
b) Copper.
c) Iridium.
d) Platinum.
16. Which governmental policies helped reduce ground-level ozone (O3)?
a) Introduction of low-emission cars and trucks.

b) Use “cleaner” fuels.
c) Improving vehicle inspection program.
17. Emission of what compounds causes acid rain formation?
a) Carbonic acid (CO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx).

b) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs).
c) Sulfuric acid (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx).
d) Sulfuric acid (SO2) and ground level ozone (O3).
18. Before 1990, electric power plant emissions were regulated state and local governments. How did these plants
circumvent these regulations?
a) They constructed large smokestacks that carried pollution to the next jurisdiction.
b) They voluntarily created a market permit system to reduce their emissions.
c) They voluntarily installed scrubbers to clean the sulfur out of their emissions.
19. What did Chernobyl, Three Mile Island, the Love Canal, and Bhopal, India all have in common?
a) They were all nuclear disasters.

b) The respective companies made significant environmental improvements.
c) They were environmental problems that were quickly fixed.
d) They qualify as technological disasters.
20. Why is the green movement and alternative energy becoming popular with large corporations in developed
countries?
a) The corporations want to appear socially responsible.

b) The corporations want to appease some investors who only invest with corporations that are investing in green
55
technologies.
c) The corporations want to preempt new, tougher environmental regulations.
21. If production of a product causes pollution and the government does not intervene, what is the social outcome of
the producer’s decision?
a) The decision will result in social economic equity.

b) The decision will result in social economic efficiency.
c) The decision will result in social economic inefficiency.
d) The will result in the underproduction of the product from a society’s perspective.
22. In 1987, the United Nations convened a meeting in Canada to address the problem of ozone depletion. What is the
name of this agreement?
a) Chemical Responsibility Program.

b) Montreal Protocol.
c) Kyoto Protocol.
d) The European Union Emissions Trading Scheme (EU-ETS).
23. The Montreal Protocol was successful. Why are most international agreements not successful in reducing
pollution?
a) The agreement causes leakages.

b) The Montreal Protocol involved only six firms, while most pollution is caused by thousands or millions of firms.
c) Members tend to cheat on their agreements.
24. What were the results of the Montreal Protocol?
a) Greatly reduced production of CFCs.

b) Increased production of alternatives to CFCs.
c) The recycling of CFCs.
25. Which country incurs the most environmental damage, if the product produces environmental damage when used
by the consumers and the product is imported from another country?
a) The exporting country experiences the environmental damage while the importing country does not.
b) The importing country experiences the environmental damage while the exporting country does not.
c) Both the importing and exporting countries suffer from environmental damage.
d) Neither the importing and exporting countries suffer from environmental damage.
26. Which country incurs the most environmental damage, if the product produces environmental damage during
production and the product is exported to another country?
a) The exporting country experiences the environmental damage while the importing country does not.
b) The importing country experiences the environmental damage while the exporting country does not.
c) Both the importing and exporting countries suffer from environmental damage.
d) Neither the importing and exporting countries suffer from environmental damage.
27.The Soviet Union and Eastern European countries imposed environmental taxes during the late 1970s and early
1980s, using complicated engineering formulas. Were these taxes successful?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) At first the taxes were effective, then over time became less effective.
d) At first the taxes were not effective, then over time became more effective.
28. What is the influence of the free trade to the environmental damage?
56
a) It does not influence environment.
b) Free trade subsidizes environmental damage.
c) Free trade will bring green products.
d) Free trade may lead to more environmental problems.
29. Why do large corporations voluntarily reduce their pollution?
a) Some consumers are willing to pay more for ‘Green Products’.

b) “Green” investors are may prefer to invest with socially responsible firms.
c) Industry tries to act first before government passes tougher environmental laws.
d) All of the above.
30. Does the tax code exacerbate environmental damage? Which tax policy below would cause more environmental
damage?
a) Government taxes firms that produce greenhouse gases.

b) Government requires firms to produce more “Green Products.”
c) Government grants tax breaks to the oil and gas producers.
d) Government pays a subsidy for suppliers to use more biofuels.
31. What is point source pollution?
a) Pollution has an identifiable source.

b) Pollution is emitted from many sources and it is extremely difficult to identify and monitor.
c) Pollution emissions in one country or several countries affect other countries without pollution problems.
d) Pollution that the environment can absorb.
32. What is nonpoint source pollution?

b) Pollution is emitted from many sources and it is extremely difficult to identify and monitor.
c) Pollution that the environment can absorb.
d) Pollution emissions in one country or several countries affect other countries without pollution problems.
33. What is a transboundary externality?

b) Pollution emissions in one country or several countries affect other countries without pollution problems.
c) Pollution which emitted from many sources and it is extremely difficult to identify and monitor.
d) Pollution which can take the form of chemical substances or energy, such as noise, heat, or light.
34. Which of the following pollution is both a point source emission and transboundary pollution?
a) Polluted oceans and seas.

b) Global warming.
c) Acid rain.
35. Which agreement have many countries signed that is supposed to fix greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Montreal Protocol.
b) Kyoto Protocol.
c) Greenhouse Gas Protocol.
d) None of the answers are correct.
36. Which government policies can reduce pollution?
a) Command and control regulations.

b) Pigouvian taxes and subsidies.
57
c) Market permits and lawsuits.
Lecture 4 - Global Warming
1. What is the Greenhouse Effect?
a) Greenhouse gases (made by man) are accumulating in the atmosphere, trapping more solar energy, and causing the
world to become warmer through the greenhouse effect.
b) Gases accumulate in the atmosphere; they trap infrared radiation that heats up the earth.
c) One metric ton of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere traps a specific amount of the sun’s radiation.
d) Global warming causes earth to be warmer but something changes that weakens the warming effect.
2. What is the global warming?
a) Greenhouse gases (made by man) are accumulating in the atmosphere, trapping more solar energy, and causing
the world to become warmer through the greenhouse effect.
3. What percentage of (dry) air is composed of carbon dioxide?
a) 20.95 %.
b) 78.08 %.
c) 0.93 %.
d) 0.93 %.
4. What is the Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
a) Greenhouse gases (made by man) are accumulating in the atmosphere, trapping more solar energy, and causing the
world to become warmer through the greenhouse effect.
5. What percentage of greenhouse gases does methane gas contribute?
a) 6%
b) 15%
c) 18%.
d) 28%
6. Which gas below is a greenhouse gas, but does not have a Global Warming Potential?
a) Water vapor.
b) Carbon gas.
c) Nitrogen.
d) Oxygen.
7. What is a positive feedback loop?
a) Greenhouse gases (made by man) are accumulating in the atmosphere, trapping more solar energy, and causing
the world to become warmer through the greenhouse effect.
d) Global warming causes earth to be warmer but something changes that strengthens the warming effect.
58
8. What are market incentives to lower greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Government prohibits the emissions of greenhouse gas.

b) Government imposes command and control regulations on greenhouse gas emissions.
c) Government uses price and quantity mechanisms to internalize the externalities.
9. Kyoto Protocol entered into full force on February 16, 2005. Which percentage is Japan supposed to lower or
increase its greenhouse gas emissions?
a) They are allowed to increase it by 10%

b) They are allowed to decrease it by 10%.
c) They are allowed to decrease it by 6%.
d) They are allowed to increase it by 6%.
10. What kind of positive feedback does water vapor have on the earth?
a. Water absorbs energy to become vapor.

b. Water vapor is a greenhouse gas that increases the greenhouse effect.
c. The warmer water releases its stored carbon dioxide, increasing greenhouse gases.
d. The water absorbs heat, thus slowing down global warming.
11. What kind of positive feedback do oceans have on the earth?
a) Oceans absorb heat, thus slowing down global warming.

b) Ocean absorbs energy to become water vapor, increasing greenhouse gases.
c) The warmer waters release their stored carbon dioxide, increasing greenhouse gases.
12. What are the costs of climate change?
a) Health damage and deaths from heat waves and spread of tropical diseases.
b) Loss of agricultural output due to drought and changing climate conditions.
c) Rising sea level increases loss of land area, including beaches and wetlands
13. What are the benefits of climate change?
a) Increased agricultural production in cold climates.

b) A hotter planet lowers heating costs.
c) Less deaths from exposure to the cold.
14. What is mitigation of greenhouse gases?
a) Society reduces emissions of greenhouse gases.

b) Society uses more fossil fuels.
c) Society uses technologies to capture carbon dioxide and stores it.
d) Society uses technologies to absorb carbon dioxide from atmosphere and release it for energy.
15. What is the re-cycling of greenhouse gases?
a) Society reduces emissions of greenhouse gases.

b) Society uses more fossil fuels.
c) Society uses technologies to capture carbon dioxide and stores it.
d) Society uses technologies to absorb carbon dioxide from atmosphere and release it for energy.
16. Why policies that address global warming may not slow down climate change?
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a) Climate change is a positive externality, and the public and governments want more of it.
b) All policies that reduce greenhouse gases would increase market prices and lower market quantities.
c) Governments are oblivious to the problems of climate change.
d) Nations have no international agreements to reduce greenhouse gases and nobody wants to start first.
17. Which country is the second largest polluter in the world?
a) USA.
b) Great Britain.
c) Canada.
d) India.
18. Which argument do developing countries use, so they should not have to limit their greenhouse gas emissions?
a) It will help the developing country to improve and they do not want that.
b) Green technologies and alternative energy sources are not available to developing countries.
c) Developed countries refuse to help developing countries.
d) If the developing country limits their emissions, then they may limit their growth.
19. What are the problems of appealing to people’s civic duty for reducing greenhouse gases?
a) People lose sight of the big picture.

b) People want to help the environment, but refuse to pay the cost for doing so.
c) People tend to always buy at the lowest price and ignore the long-term impacts of climate change.
20. What are the benefits of lawsuits?
a) Countries have a variety of laws that allow people to sue that address and fix externalities.
b) Lawsuits are expensive and tend to be slow.
c) Courts develop rules a case-to-case basis.
d) Lawsuits encourage rent-seeking behavior, as lawyers sue to obtain millions in legal fees.
21. What are command-and-control regulations?
a) Regulations require market permits and place a market price on greenhouse gas emission.
b) Regulations place a tax on greenhouse gas emissions.
c) Laws and regulations dictate the standards and technology used to reduce greenhouse gases.
d) Laws allowing the public to sue corporations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
22. When was the Kyoto Protocol adopted?
a) On December 11, 1997 in Kyoto, Japan.

b) On December11, 1997 in Quebec, Canada.
c) On December 11, 1998 in Kyoto, Japan.
d) On November 11, 1998 in Moscow, Russia
23. How many countries signed the Kyoto Protocol?
a) 200
b) 183
c) 111
d) 178
24. Which country signed the Kyoto Protocol, but did not ratify this agreement?
a) United Kingdom
b) China
c) Korea
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d) United States.
25. European countries started their European Union Emissions Trading Scheme. What happens if a company
exceeds its greenhouse gas emissions limit?
a) They have 30 days to bring their emissions into compliance.

b) They can buy carbon credits from the market.
c) They have to sell carbon credits to the market.
26. What is the main idea of Kyoto Protocol?
a) To stabilize greenhouse gas buildup in the atmosphere.

b) Allow sellers to organize together and make joint decisions.
c) To help find substitutes for gasoline.
d) To help find substitutes for diesel fuel.
27. The European Union Emissions Trading Scheme does not appear to be effective in reducing greenhouse gases.
Why is this occurring?
a) European countries strictly monitor their industries, causing many industries to bankrupt.
b) European countries created too few carbon permits.
c) European countries created too many carbon permits.
Sr. Questions
No.
1. _____ and _____ are combination of Agroforestry
(a) Fodder crops, fibre crop

(b) Food crops, fibre crop
(c) Trees, grasses
(d) Food crops, tree crop
2. A non-renewale source of energy is
(a) Wile life

(b) Fossils fuels
(c) Water
(d) Forest
3. A plant endemic to India is
(a) Banyan
(b) Ginkgo
(c) Sequoia
(d) Triticum
4. A recent technique for the study of vegetation is
(a) Ground photography

(b) Remote sensing
(c) Field work
(d) Observation
5. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is
61
(a) Forest
(b) Coal
(c) Petroleum
(d) Minerals
6. A species restricted to a given area is
(a) Endemic species

(b) Allopatric species
(c) Sympatric species
(d) Sibling species
7. According to IUCN red list, what is the status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens)
(a) Critically endangered

(b) Endangered species
(c) Vulnerable species
(d) Extinct species
8. Agroforestry and social forestry both includes
(a) Production forestry

(b) Commercial forestry
(c) Afforestation
(d) Plantation of trees
9. An endangered bird is
(a) Passenger Pigeon

(b) Pink-headed duck
(c) Great Indian Bustard
(d) Vulture
10. An endangered species from the following
(a) Azardirachta
(b) Rosa indica
(c) Rauwolfia serpentina
(d) Acacia Arabica
11. An example of ex-situ conservation is
(a) Seed bank

(b) Sacred groves
(c) National parks
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
12. An exhaustible renewable resource is
(a) Coal
(b) Solar energy
(c) Fresh water
(d) Petroleum
13. An inexhaustible and renewable source of energy is
(a) Wood
(b) Natural gas
(c) Fossil fuel
(d) Hydropower
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14. Anthropogenic extinction occurs due to
(a) Earthquakes
(b) Floods
(c) Changing environmental conditions
(d) Human activities
15. Biogas is which type of natural resources
(a) Renewable
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) Non-conventional
(d) Both(a) and(c)
1. The multi-crore project about the Ganga Action Plan came
(A) 1905
(b) 1955
(c) 1985
(d) 1995.
2. The Ganga runs from Gangotri through a hundred towns and cities in
(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Haryana
3. Water pollution can be identified by testing its
(a) PH level
(b) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
4. The three R’s to save the environment are
(a) Reserve, Reduce, Recycle

(b) Reuse, Reserve, Reduce
(c) Reserve, Reuse, Reduce
(d) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse.
5. Why should we conserve biodiversity? Because
(a) We should preserve the biodiversity we have inherited

(b) A loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological stability
(d) None of the above.
6. The problems for criticism about large dams are that they
(a) Displace large number of peasants and trebles without proper rehabilitation
(b) Swallow up huge amounts of public money without the generation of proportionate benefits
(c) Contribute enormously to deforestation and the loss of biological diversity
(d) all of the above.
7. The following are stakeholders of forests which one of these causes the maximum damage to forest?
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(a) People who live in or around the forest
(b) The industrials
(c) The wildlife and native enthusiasts
(d) The forest department of the government.
8. The concept of ‘Biosphere Reserve’ was evolved by
(a) Government of India.

(b) Botanical Survey of India
(c) UNESCO
(d) UNDP.
9. Chipko Andolan is concerned with
(a) Conservation of natural resources

(b) Development of new breeds of forest plants
(c) Zoological survey of India
(d) Forest conservation.
10. Which energy of water is used to produce hydroelectricity?
(a) Potential energy

(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Both (a) and (b) of these
(d) None of these.
11. Measure of biodiversity of an area is
(a) The number of species found there

(b) The range of different life forms
(d) None of these.
12. Tawa irrigation project is in:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) Haryana.
13. Primary source of water is
(a) Rivers
(b) Ground water
(c) Lakes
(d) Rain water.
14. The Chipko movement started from:
(a) Reni in Garhwal

(b) Arborio forest
(c) Khejrali village
(d) None of these.
15. The presence of which microorganism in Ganga water indicates contamination?
(a) Lactobacillus bacteria

(b) Amoeba
(c) Coliform bacteria
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(d) Mucor spores
16. The Ganga runs its course from
(a) Ganga Sagar

(b) Himalayas peak Everest
(c) Gangotri
(d) Jamnotri
17. The concept of sustainable development encourages
(a) Form of growth that meets current basic needs

(b) Preservation of the resources for the need of future generation
(c) A change in all respects of life
(d) Growth to meet current needs, preservation for the needs of future and change in all respects of life
18. The management of natural resources should take into
(a) A long term perspective

(b) Environmental pollution
(c) Their equitable distribution
(d) (a), (b), (c) and safe disposal of wastes
19. When we consider the conservation of forests, we need to look at the
(а) People who are humanists and conscious about human rights
(b) Industrialists who use the various forests produce
(c) The people who live in or around forests
(d) The forest department of the Government, the industrialists and the people who live in or around forests
20. In Independent India plantation of which trees caused their monocultures?
(a) Eucalyptus
(b) Pine
(c) Eucalyptus, Pine and Teak
(d) Eucalyptus, Pine, Teak and Need
21. Amirata Devi Bishnoi scarified her life to the protection of
(a) Sal trees

(b) Pine trees
(c) khejri trees
(d) Alpine meadows
22. Water harvesting is an age-old concept in India. Various methods are used in different regions of India. Khadins
water harvesting method is used in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh
23. Kattas is the ancient method of water harvesting found in
(a) Hibachi Pradesh

(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh
24. When combustion of coal takes place in insufficient air (oxygen) which gas is formed . Instead of carbon dioxide
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(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Nitrogen peroxide
25. In which region of India bundhis are used for water harvesting?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
26. The ancient water harvesting method used in Rajasthan is
(a) Surangams
(b) Kattas
(c) Kulhs
(d) Nadis
Questions and Answers

1. Temperature, light, air, water, soil, and climate are all __________ parts of the environment.
A.Biotic
B.Abiotic
C.Boreal
D.Living
2.Choose the phrase that correctly finishes this statement: "A species is..."
A.A specific part of the abiotic environment
B.A way of describing all the living parts of an ecosystem
C.A group of organisms that can successfully mate with each other and reproduce
D.Part of the natural decomposing materials in soil
3. Ecology is the study of the
A.Abiotic parts of the environment, such as climate, air, and soil
B.Biotic parts of the environment, such as animals and plants
C.Interactions between organisms
D.Interactions between organisms as well as the interactions between organisms and their environment
4. What is an ecosystem?
A.All the interacting organisms that live in an environment and the abiotic parts of the environment that affect the organisms
B.A person who observes and studies the interactions between the biotic and abiotic parts of the environment
C.The relationship among the biotic parts of the environment
D.The relationship between all the abiotic elements of a pond
5. When populations share their environment and interact with populations of other species, it is called a
A.Biome
B.Ecoprovince
C.Community
D.Species
E.Ecotone
6. The space where an organism lives and the role an organism plays within its ecosystem is referred to as a
A.Sampling
B.Community
C.Population
D.Niche
E.Biosphere
7. An organism that creates its own food is called

A.A producer
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B.A consumer
C.A scavenger
D.A decomposer
E.A carnivore
8. A consumer is
A.An organism that produces its own food
B.An organism that does not need food to survive
C.An abiotic organism
D.An organism that cannot produce its own food
9. Which of the following two organisms are producers?

A.Plants and phytoplankton
B.Plants and consumers
C.Consumers and phytoplankton
D.Phytoplankton and chlorophyll
E.Phytoplankton and herbivores
10. A food web is more realistic than a food chain for showing the feeding relationships in ecosystems because
A.It compares the number of consumers to the number of micro-organisms in an ecosystem
B.Food chains use only a small sampling of organisms.
C.A food web explains why there are more producers than consumers.
D.Producers are usually eaten by many different consumers and most consumers are eaten by more than one predator
11. The largest percentage of solar energy that penetrates the atmosphere of the Earth is used to
A.Heat the atmosphere and the Earth’s surface.
B.Carry on photosynthesis.
C.Generate winds.
D.Heat and evaporate water.
12. Albedo is a measure of the percentage of light that is

A.Absorbed by an object.
B.Transmitted through the atmosphere.
C.Converted into sugar by photosynthesis.
D.Reflected by an object.
E.Transferred to plants.
13. A species of plant or animal that is facing imminent extinction or extirpation is said to be
A.Extinct
B.Extirpated
C.Endangered
D.Threatened
E.Special concern
14. Consider this food chain:algae --> water fleas --> minnows --> trout --> bearThe minnows
in this food chain are
A.Top carnivores
B.Tertiary carnivores
C.Secondary carnivores
D.Primary carnivores
E.Herbivores
15. Heterotrophs obtain energy from all of the following except:

A.Autotrophs
B.Herbivores
C.Solar radiation
D.Other heterotrophs
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16.
For the food web belowwhat does the praying mantis represent?
A.A primary consumer
B.A secondary consumer
C.A tertiary consumer
D.A producer
E.A decomposer
17.
How many primary consumers are there in the following food web?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.5
18. For the following food chain:seeds à sparrow à owlif there are 100 000 kJ of energy available in the seeds, how many
kilojoules is passed on to the owl?
A.None
B.1 kJ
C.10 kJ
D.100 kJ
E.1 000 kJ
Which of the following is NOT an abiotic factor?
19.
A.Decomposer
B.Light intensity
C.Wind
D.Humidity
E.Temperature
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20.
The graph below shows the changes in the size of the populations of two different species of paramecia placed in one
beaker.What can be concluded from this graph?
A.Paramecium A is the predator, paramecium B is the prey
B.Paramecium B is the predator, paramecium A is the prey
C.The introduction of paramecium B is followed by a decline in the population of paramecium A
D.Paramecium B reaches a steady state of growth
E.Paramecium A reaches a steady state of growth
Ecology - Biodiversity and Its conservation

1. The species with thin population localised within restricted area is said to be
a) Rare
b) Threatened
c) Endangered
d) Vulnerable
2. The reason for certain animals getting endangered are
a) Hunting
b) Pollution of environment
c) Natural calamities
d) all of these
3. The Red Data Book maintains a record of the
a) Plants and animals present in the whole world
b) Relationship between man and biosphere
c) Plants and animals which are known to be endangered
d) Forest wealth in the whole world

4. Planting trees in a deforested land is known as
a) afforestation
b) Deforestation
c) Silviculture
d) Sericulture
5. In a national park protection is given to
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a) The entire flora
b) The entire fauna
c) The plants and animals
d) The entire ecosystem

6. The endangered animal of the following is
a) Crow
b) Parrot
c) Red jungle fowl

d) Cock
7. The phenomenon of the entry of toxic chemicals into the food chains and more concentrated at higher trophic levels
is called
a) Biological control
b) biomagnification
c) Algal bloom
d) Red tide
8. The tropical forests in lndia are located in
a) Himachal Pradesh
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Andamans
d) Orissa
9. Bharatpur bird sanctuary is situated in
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
10. Autumn colouration of leaves appears only in
a) Tropical regions
b) Evergreen plants
c) Deserts
d) Temperate deciduous plants
1. Which of the following is an air pollutant?

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monooxide
(d) Oxygen
2. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

(a) Ozone
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monooxide
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(d) Sulphur dioxide
3. The environmental lapse rate is found to be:

(a) – 6.5°C/km
(b) 8.6°C/km
(c) 6.5°C/km
(d) 5.6°C/km
4. During Inversion:
(a) Temperature increases with altitude
(b) Temperature decreases with altitude
(c) Temperature remains constant
(d) None of the above
5. Among the following, the only secondary pollutant is:

(a) Sulphur tetraoxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Ozone
(d) Sulphur tetraoxide
6. Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SO pollution of air?
(a) Epiphytic lichens
(b) Ferns
(c) Liver worts
(d) Horn worts
7. Which of the following on inhalation dissolved in the blood hemoglobin more rapidly than oxygen?
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Carbon mono-oxide
(c) Ozone
(d) Nitrous oxide
8. Smog is:
(a) A natural phenomenon
(b) A combination of smoke and fog
(c) Is colourless
(d) All of the above
9. The major photochemical oxidant is:

(a) Ozone
(b) Hydrogen peroxide
(c) Nitrogen oxides
(d) Peroxyl Acetyl Nitrate (PAN)
10. Which of the following are likely to be present in photochemical smog?

(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Photochemical oxidants
(c) Chlorofluorocarbon
(d) Smog
11. Which of the following devices is suitable for the removal of gaseous pollutants?
(a) Cyclone separator
(b) Electrostatic precipitator
(c) Fabric filter
(d) Wet scrubber
12. Which of the following air pollution control devices is suitable for the removing the finest dust from the air?
(a) Cyclone separator
(c) Fabric filter
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(d) Wet scrubber
13. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting:

(a) Cyclone separato
(c) Catalytic converter
(d) Wet scrubber
14. Taj Mahal at Agra may be damaged by:

(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Chlorine
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Oxygen
15. Gas leaked in Bhopal tragedy:

(a) Methyl isocyanate
(b) Potassium isothoiocynate
(c) Ethyl isocyanate
(d) Sodium isothiocyanate
16. BOD is:

(a) A measure of the organic matter presents in water
(b) Usually less than COD
(c) Biochemical oxygen demand
17. BOD/COD ratio will always be:

(a) Equal to 1
(b) Less than 1
(c) More than 1
(d) None of them
18. Biochemical Oxygen Demand measures:

(a) Industrial pollution
(b) Air pollution
(c) Pollution capacity of effects
(d) Dissolved O2 needed by microbes to decompose organic waste.
19. Excess fluoride in drinking water is likely to cause:

(a) Blue baby syndrome
(b) Fluorosis
(c) Change in taste and odour
(d) Intestinal irritation
20. Fluoride pollution mainly affects:

(a) Kidney
(b) Brain
(c) Heart
(d) Teeth
21. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?

(a) Factories
(b) Sewage treatment plants
(c) Urban and suburban lands
22. Septic tank is:

(a) An aerobic attached growth treatment system
(b) An aerobic suspended growth biological treatment system
(c) An anaerobic attached growth biological treatment system
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(d) An anaerobic suspended growth treatment system
23. Disease caused by eating fish inhabiting mercury contaminated water is:
(a) Bright’s disease
(b) Hiroshima episode
(c) Mina-mata disease
(d) Osteosclerosis
24. Which of the following is not a marine pollutant?

(a) Oil
(b) Plastics
(c) Dissolved oxygen
25. Noise is:

(a) Loud sound
(b) Sound of high frequency
(c) Unwanted sound
(d) Constant sound
26. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels:

(a) Above 80
(b) Above 30
(c) Above 100
(d) Above 120
27. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution in water bodies?
(a) Sewage treatment plant
(b) Solid waste disposal sites
(c) Thermal power plant
28. The highest heating valve is of:

(a) Garbage
(b) Rubbish
(c) Hospital waste
(d) Industrial waste
29. The highest moisture content is in:

(a) Garbage
(b) Rubbish
(c) Hospital waste
(d) Agricultural waste
30. Which of the following is a likely characteristic of hazardous waste?

(a) Ignitability
(b) Corrosivity
(c) Reactivity
(d) Any of the above
31. High level radioactive waste can be managed in which of the following ways?
(a) Open dumping
(b) Composting
(c) Incineration
(d) Dumping in sealed containers
32. Biomedical waste may be disposed of by?

(a) Incineration
(b) Autoclaving
(c) Land filling
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(d) Both (b) and (c)
33. Which of the following is a biodegradable organic chemical/substance?

(a) Plastics
(b) Oils
(c) Pesticides
(d) Garbage
34. The Pollution Standard Index (PSI) scale has span from
a. 0-200
b. 0-300
c. 0-400
d. 0-500
35. Which of the following is an organic gas?

a. Hydrocarbons
b. Aldehydes
c. Ketones
d. Ammonia
36. Which of the following is/are inorganic gas (es)?

a. Carbon monoxide
b. Hydrogen sulphide
c. Chlorine
d. All of the above
37. The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is

a. Motor vehicle
b. Industrial processes
c. Stationary fuel combustion
38. Fugitive emissions consist of

a. Street dust
b. Dust from construction activities
c. Dust from farm cultivation
d. All of the above
39. Ozone of found in

a. Mesosphere
b. Ionosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Exosphere
40. Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere by a photochemical reaction with

a. Ultra violet solar radiation
b. Infra red radiation
c. Visible light
d. All of the above
41. The principal source of volatile organics (Hydrocarbons) is

a. Transportation
b. Industrial processes
c. Stationary fuel combustion
d. Volcanoes
42. The function of automobile catalytic converter is to control emissions of

a. carbon dioxide and hydrogen
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b. carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
d. carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide
43. The list of industrial sources of air pollution and their emissions are given. Match the following.
A. Ammonia 1. Carbon monoxide
B. Plating 2. Particulates
C. Fertilizers 3. Metal fumes
The correct order is
a. A-1, B-2, C-3
b. A-3, B-2, C-1
c. A-1, B-3, C-2
d. A-3, B-1, C-2
44. The threshold concentration of sulphur dioxide in any industrial activity should not be permitted beyond
a. 2ppm
b. 3ppm
c. 4ppm
d. 5ppm
45. The threshold limit of benzene is

a. 15ppm
b. 20ppm
c. 25ppm
d. 30ppm
46. Which of the following is used as antiknock compound in gasoline?

a. tetramethyl lead
b. tetraethyl lead
c. trimethyl lead
d. triethyl lead
47. Which of the following is a fermentation product of molasses?

a. Methanol
b. Formaldeyde
c. Ammonia
d. Acetone
48. The boiler flue gas is source of

a. HCl
b. NO
c. HF
d. Volatile organic compounds
1. What is the harm from the depletion of Earth's ozone layer

a) The average temperature of earth's surface will increase gradually
b) The oxygen content of the atmosphere will decrease
c) Increased amount of Ultra violet radiation will reach earth's surface
d.) Sea levels will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt
2. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
a). Methane and ozone
b) Oxygen and nitrous oxide
c) methane and sulpher dioxide
d) Carbon dioxide and sulpher dioxide
3. Which of the following is a prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to
depletion of stratospheric ozone?
a) Damage to digestive system
b) Increased liver cancer
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c) Neurological disorder
d) Increased skin cancer
4. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is

a) air pollution.
b) contamination of groundwater.
c) increased use of land for landfills.
d) destruction of habitat.
e) none of the above.
5. The concentration of which gas is highest in our environment?

a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
6. Which of the following is not as a consequence of global warming?

a) rising sea level
b) increased agricultural productivity worldwide
c) worsening health effects
d) increased storm frequency and intensity
e) all of the above are likely results of global warming
7. Which of the following is not a primary contributor to the greenhouse effect?

a) carbon dioxide
b) carbon monoxide
c) chlorofluorocarbons
d) methane gas
e) nitrous oxide
8. The increase in the concentration of CO2 in our environment in last fifty years; since 1960 is about
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 14%
d) 6%
9. The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by

a) nitrous oxide.
b) carbon dioxide.
c) chlorofluorocarbons.
d) methane.
e) all of the above.
10. A major in-stream use of water is for

a) producing hydroelectric power.
b) dissolving industrial wastes.
c) agricultural irrigation.
d) domestic use.
11. Which of the following are the example of Municipal and industrial discharge pipes
a) nonpoint sources of pollution.
b) violations of the Clean Water Act.
c) point sources of pollution.
d) irrigation.
12. The presence of high coliform counts in water indicate

a) contamination by human wastes.
b) phosphorus contamination.
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c) decreased biological oxygen demand.
d) hydrocarbon contamination.
13. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of organic matter in water?
a) the oxygen demand increases
c) the oxygen demand decreases
c) the oxygen demand remains unchanged
d) None of the above
14. Which of the following is not a major source of groundwater contamination?

a) agricultural products
b) landfills
c) septic tanks
d) underground storage tanks
e) all of the above are major sources of groundwater contamination
15. Which of the following is not considered as part of water use planning?
a) waste water treatment
b) water diversion projects
c) storm sewer drainage
d) salinization
e) Water use planning considers all of the above issues
16. The stage in which the biological processes is used to purify water in a wastewater treatment plants is called
a) secondary sewage treatment
b) primary sewage treatment
c) wastewater reduction
d) biochemical reduction
e) none of the above
7. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into

a) increase in the salinity of groundwater.
b) decrease in the toxicity of groundwater.
c) decrease in the salinity of groundwater.
d) increase in the water table.
8. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green Revolution?

a) mechanized agriculture
b) hybrid seeds
c) slash and burn
d) monoculture
e) all of the above are characteristic of the Green Revolution
19. The three primary soil macronutrients are

a) carbon, oxygen, and water.
b) copper, cadmium, and carbon.
c) potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen.
d) boron, zinc, and manganese.
20. Which of the following is negative effects on the soil and water due to conventional, mechanized farming
practices?
a) soil compaction
b) reduction in soil organic matter
c) soil erosion
d) leaching of pesticides and fertilizers into the groundwater
e) all of the above
77
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UNIT – I

2. The objective of environmental education is

a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions

a) Atmosphere and Lithosphere

a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth

6. Atmosphere consists of 79 percent Nitrogen and 21 percent Oxygen by

7. Which of the following is a biotic component of the ecosystem?

8. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is

10. In complex ecosystem the degree of species diversity is

11The organisms which directly feed on producers are called

12. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called

13. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem

15. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is

16. In aquatic ecosystems phyto planktons can be considered as a

17. The basic requirements of human beings are provide by

18. Environment is the life support system that includes

19. In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by

20. Organisms which feed directly or indirectly on producers are called

21. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are

a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants

22. Abiotic component includes

23. Which of the following statements is true

a) Green plants are self-nourishing

24. Primary consumer is

a) An animal that is fed upon

26. Access to food is mainly determined by

27. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from

28. Which among the following is a climatic factor?

29. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is

30. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface?

31.Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?

32. Ecological pyramids are studies of

33. World environment day is on

34. Factors responsible for balanced eco-system are

a) balance between predator and prey

a) Physical conditions of the place where organisms live

37. Essential component of social security are

a) Meeting personal growth and development

38. Socio-economic security in environmental aspects involves

a) Fairness and equity distribution costs for complete existing generation

39. A food web consists of

a) a portion of food chain

40. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Man is not dependent on nature

a) Food must be available

1.which of the following is not the environmental effect of industrialisation, in general?

2. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?

3. Sustainable development means

4. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialisation is

a. industry should be closed

6. E.I.A can be expanded as

a. Environmental and industrial act

a. Plant trees alongside of the roads

9. The pollution caused by transportation/vehicular activities depends on

a. Type of the vehicle’s engine

10. Sustainable development will not aim at

11. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?