CCIE ROUTING & SWITCHING DIKTA QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 1 ETHERNET BASICS

1. Which of the following denotes the correct usage of pins on the RJ-45 connectors at
the opposite ends of an Ethernet crossover cable?
a. 1 to 1
b. 1 to 2
c. 1 to 3
d. 6 to 1
e. 6 to 2
f. 6 to 3

2. Which of the following denotes the correct usage of pins on the RJ-45 connectors at the
opposite ends of an Ethernet straight-through cable?
a. 1 to 1
b. 1 to 2
c. 1 to 3
d. 6 to 1
e. 6 to 2
f. 6 to 3

3. Which of the following commands must be configured on a Cisco IOS switch interface to disable
Ethernet autonegotiation?
a. no auto-negotiate
b. no auto
c. Both speed and duplex
d. duplex
e. speed

4. Consider an Ethernet crossover cable between two 10/100 ports on Cisco switches.
One switch has been configured for 100-Mbps full duplex. Which of the following is true about the
other switch?
a. It will use a speed of 10 Mbps.
b. It will use a speed of 100 Mbps.
c. It will use a duplex setting of half duplex.
d. It will use a duplex setting of full duplex.

5. Which of the following Ethernet header type fields is a 2-byte field?

a. DSAP
b. Type (in SNAP header)
c. Type (in Ethernet V2 header)
d. LLC Control
6. Which of the following standards defines a Fast Ethernet standard?
a. IEEE 802.1Q
b. IEEE 802.3U
c. IEEE 802.1X
d. IEEE 802.3Z
e. IEEE 802.3AB
f. IEEE 802.1AD

7. Suppose a brand-new Cisco IOSbased switch has just been taken out of the box and cabled to
several devices. One of the devices sends a frame. For which of the following destinations would a
switch flood the frames out all ports (except the port upon which the frame was received)?

a. Broadcasts
b. Unknown unicasts
c. Known unicasts
d. Multicasts

8. Which of the following configuration issues will keep a SPAN session from becoming active?
a. Misconfigured destination port
b. Destination port configured as a trunk
c. Destination port shutdown
d. Source port configured as a trunk

9. Which of the following are rules for SPAN configuration?

a. SPAN source and destination ports must be configured for the same speed and duplex.
b. If the SPAN source port is configured for 100 Mbps, the destination port must be configured for
100 Mbps or more.
c. In a SPAN session, sources must consist of either physical interfaces or VLANs, but not a mix of
these.
d. Remote SPAN VLANs must be in the range of VLAN 166.
e. Only three SPAN sessions can be configured on one switch.

10. What tool is available to reduce the complexity of a modern network infrastructure that has
direct impact on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 design?

a. Spanning Tree Protocol

b. Bridge Assurance
c. Virtual Switch Design
d. Virtual Switching System
e. IOS-XR

11. In a Virtual Switch System configuration, what operational component is used to transport
Control, Management, and Data Plane traffic between peers?

a. VPC-Link
b. Sham-Link
c. Virtual Switch Link
d. Port-Channel
e. Ether-Channel

12. Cisco IOS was expanded so that it could support modern enterprise deployments by moving
away from a monolithic architecture to a more modular design model. What is this current version
of IOS?

a. CUOS
b. IOS-NG
c. LINUX
d. IOS-XE
e. IOS-version 2.0

CHAPTER 2 Virtual LANs and VLAN Trunking

1. Assume that VLAN 28 does not yet exist on Switch1. Which of the following commands, issued in the global
configuration mode (reached with the configure terminal command) or any of its submodes would cause the VLAN to be
created?

a. vlan 28
b. vlan 28 name fred
c. switchport vlan 28
d. switchport access vlan 28
e. switchport access 28

2. Which of the following are advantages of using Private VLANs?

a. Better LAN security
b. IP subnet conservation
c. Better consistency in VLAN configuration details
d. Reducing the impact of broadcasts on end-user devices
e. Reducing the unnecessary flow of frames to switches that do not have any ports
in the VLAN to which the frame belongs

3. Which of the following VLANs can be pruned by VTP on an 802.1Q trunk?

a. 11023
b. 11001
c. 21001
d. 11005
e. 21005

4. An existing switched network has ten switches, with Switch1 and Switch2 being the
only VTPv2 servers in the network. The other switches are all VTPv2 clients and
have successfully learned about the VLANs from the VTPv2 servers. The only configured VTP parameter on all switches
is the VTP domain name (Larry). The VTP
revision number is 201. What happens when a new, already-running VTPv2 client
switch, named Switch11, with domain name Larry and revision number 301, connects through a trunk to any of the other
ten switches?
a. No VLAN information changes; Switch11 ignores the VTP updates sent from
the two existing VTP servers until the revision number reaches 302.
b. The original ten switches replace their old VLAN configuration with the configuration in Switch11.
c. Switch11 replaces its own VLAN configuration with the configuration sent to it
by one of the original VTP servers.
d. Switch11 merges its existing VLAN database with the database learned from the
VTP servers, because Switch11 had a higher revision number
5. An existing switched network has ten switches, with Switch1 and Switch2 being
the only VTPv3 servers in the network, and Switch1 being the primary server. The
other switches are all VTPv3 clients, and have successfully learned about the VLANs
from the VTP server. The only configured VTP parameter is the VTP domain name
(Larry). The VTP revision number is 201. What happens when an already-running
VTPv3 server switch, named Switch11, with domain name Larry and revision number
301, connects through a trunk to any of the other ten switches?
a. No VLAN information changes; all VTP updates between the original VTP
domain and the new switch are ignored.
b. The original ten switches replace their old VLAN configuration with the configuration in Switch11.
c. Switch11 replaces its old VLAN configuration with the configuration sent to it
by one of the original VTP servers.
d. Switch11 merges its existing VLAN database with the database learned from the
VTP servers, because Switch11 had a higher revision number.
e. None of the other answers is correct.
6. Assume that two brand-new Cisco switches were removed from their cardboard
boxes. PC1 was attached to one switch, PC2 was attached to the other, and the two
switches were connected with a cross-over cable. The switch connection dynamically
formed an 802.1Q trunk. When PC1 sends a frame to PC2, how many additional
bytes of header are added to the frame before it passes over the trunk?
a. 0
b. 4
c. 8
d. 26
7. Assume that two brand-new Cisco Catalyst 3560 switches were connected with a
cross-over cable. Before the cable was attached, one switch interface was configured with the switchport trunk
encapsulation dot1q, switchport mode trunk, and
switchport nonegotiate subcommands. Which of the following must be configured
on the other switch before trunking will work between the switches?
a. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
b. switchport mode trunk
c. switchport nonegotiate
d. No configuration is required

8. When configuring trunking on a Cisco router Fa0/1 interface, under which configuration modes could the IP address
associated with the native VLAN (VLAN 1 in this
case) be configured?
a. Interface Fa0/1 configuration mode
b. Interface Fa0/1.1 configuration mode
c. Interface Fa0/1.2 configuration mode
d. None of the other answers is correct.
9. Which of the following about 802.1Q are false?
a. Encapsulates the entire frame inside an 802.1Q header and trailer
b. Has a concept of a native VLAN
c. Allows VTP to operate only on extended-range VLANs
d. Is chosen over ISL by DTP
10. Which command enables PPPoE client functionality on the outside Ethernet interface on a Cisco router?
a. pppoe enable
b. pppoe-client enable
c. pppoe-client dialer-pool-number
d. pppoe-client dialer-numbe

CHAPTER 3 : Spanning Tree Protocol

1. Assume that a nonroot 802.1D switch has ceased to receive Hello BPDUs. Which
STP setting determines how long a nonroot switch waits before trying to choose a
new Root Port?
a. Hello timer setting on the Root
b. MaxAge timer setting on the Root
c. ForwardDelay timer setting on the Root
d. Hello timer setting on the nonroot switch
e. MaxAge timer setting on the nonroot switch
f. ForwardDelay timer setting on the nonroot switch

2. Assume that a nonroot 802.1D switch receives a Hello BPDU with the TCN flag set.
Which STP setting determines how long the nonroot switch waits before timing out
inactive CAM entries?
a. Hello timer setting on the Root
b. MaxAge timer setting on the Root
c. ForwardDelay timer setting on the Root
d. Hello timer setting on the nonroot switch
e. MaxAge timer setting on the nonroot switch
f. ForwardDelay timer setting on the nonroot switch

3. Assume that a nonroot Switch1 (SW1) is Discarding on an 802.1Q trunk connected

to Switch2 (SW2). Both switches are in the same MST region. SW1 ceases to receive
Hellos from SW2. What timers have an impact on how long Switch1 takes to both
become the Designated Port on that link and reach the Forwarding state?
a. Hello timer setting on the Root
b. MaxAge timer setting on the Root
c. ForwardDelay timer on the Root
d. Hello timer setting on SW1
e. MaxAge timer setting on SW1
f. ForwardDelay timer on SW1

4. Which of the following statements are true regarding support of multiple spanning
trees over an 802.1Q trunk?
a. Only one common spanning tree can be supported.
b. Cisco PVST+ supports multiple spanning trees if the switches are Cisco switches.
c. 802.1Q supports multiple spanning trees when using IEEE 802.1s MST.
d. Two PVST+ domains can pass over a region of non-Cisco switches using 802.1Q
trunks by encapsulating non-native VLAN Hellos inside the native VLAN
Hellos.

5. When a switch notices a failure, and the failure requires STP convergence, it notifies
the Root by sending a TCN BPDU. Which of the following best describes why the
notification is needed?
a. To speed STP convergence by having the Root converge quickly.
b. To allow the Root to keep accurate count of the number of topology changes.
c. To trigger the process that causes all switches to use a short timer to help flush
the CAM.
d. There is no need for TCN today; it is a holdover from DECs STP specification

6. Two switches have four parallel Ethernet segments, none of which forms into an
EtherChannel. Assuming that 802.1D is in use, what is the maximum number of the
eight ports (four on each switch) that stabilize into a Forwarding state?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 7
7. IEEE 802.1w does not use the exact same port states as does 802.1D. Which of the
following are valid 802.1w port states?
a. Blocking
b. Listening
c. Learning
d. Forwarding
e. Disabled
f. Discarding
8. What STP tools or protocols supply a MaxAge optimization, allowing a switch to
bypass the wait for MaxAge to expire when its Root Port stops receiving Hellos?
a. Loop Guard
b. UDLD
c. BPDU Guard
d. Bridge Assurance
e. IEEE 802.1w
9. A trunk between switches lost its physical transmit path in one direction only.
Which of the following features protect against the STP problems caused by such an
event?
a. Loop Guard
b. UDLD
c. Dispute
d. PortFas

10. A switch has four Ethernet segments toward its neighbor, with the intention of
using them in an EtherChannel. Some settings on the physical ports on this switch
might be different and yet these ports will be allowed to be bundled in a single
EtherChannel. Which settings do not have to match?
a. DTP negotiation settings (auto/desirable/on)
b. Allowed VLAN list
c. STP per-VLAN port cost on the ports on a single switch
d. If 802.1Q, native VLAN
11. A computers NIC is hardcoded to 1000 Mbps and full-duplex, and it is connected
to a switch whose Fast Ethernet interface is set to autonegotiate speed and duplex.
What speed and duplex will the switch use if the autonegotiation on the computers
NIC is deactivated as a result of hardcoding the speed and duplex?
a. 100 Mbps and full-duplex
b. 100 Mbps and half-duplex
c. 1000 Mbps and full-duplex
d. 1000 Mbps and half-duplex
e. The link will be inactive.

Chapter 4: IP Addressing

1. In what subnet does address 192.168.23.197/27 reside?

a. 192.168.23.0
b. 192.168.23.128
c. 192.168.23.160
d. 192.168.23.192
e. 192.168.23.196

2. Router1 has four LAN interfaces, with IP addresses 10.1.1.1/24, 10.1.2.1/24,

10.1.3.1/24, and 10.1.4.1/24. What is the smallest summary route that could be advertised out a WAN link connecting
Router1 to the rest of the network, if subnets not
listed here were allowed to be included in the summary?
a. 10.1.2.0/22
b. 10.1.0.0/22
c. 10.1.0.0/21
d. 10.1.0.0/16
3. Router1 has four LAN interfaces, with IP addresses 10.22.14.1/23, 10.22.18.1/23,
10.22.12.1/23, and 10.22.16.1/23. Which one of the answers lists the smallest summary route(s) that could be advertised
by Router1 without also including subnets not
listed in this question?
a. 10.22.12.0/21
b. 10.22.8.0/21
c. 10.22.8.0/21 and 10.22.16.0/21
d. 10.22.12.0/22 and 10.22.16.0/22
4. Which two of the following VLSM subnets, when taken as a pair, overlap?
a. 10.22.21.128/26
b. 10.22.22.128/26
c. 10.22.22.0/27
d. 10.22.20.0/23
e. 10.22.16.0/22
5. Which of the following protocols or tools includes a feature like route summarization, plus administrative rules for
global address assignment, with a goal of reducing
the size of Internet routing tables?
a. Classless interdomain routing
b. Route summarization
c. Supernetting
d. Private IP addressing

6. Which of the following terms refer to a NAT feature that allows for significantly
fewer IP addresses in the enterprise network as compared with the required public
registered IP addresses?
a. Static NAT
b. Dynamic NAT
c. Dynamic NAT with overloading
d. PAT
e. VAT
7. Consider an enterprise network using private class A network 10.0.0.0, and using
NAT to translate to IP addresses in registered class C network 205.1.1.0. Host 10.1.1.1
has an open www session to Internet web server 198.133.219.25. Which of the following terms refers to the destination
address of a packet, sent by the web server
back to the client, when the packet has not yet made it back to the enterprises NAT
router?
a. Inside Local
b. Inside Global
c. Outside Local
d. Outside Global
8. Router1 has its fa0/0 interface, address 10.1.2.3/24, connected to an enterprise network. Router1s S0/1 interface
connects to an ISP, with the interface using a publicly
registered IP address of 171.1.1.1/30. Which of the following commands could be
part of a valid NAT overload configuration, with 171.1.1.1 used as the public IP
address?
a. ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/1 overload
b. ip nat inside source list 1 pool fred overload
c. ip nat inside source list 1 171.1.1.1 overload
d. None of the answers are correct.
9. What feature is built into the IPv6 protocol to facilitate intranet-wide address management that enables a large number
of IP hosts to easily discover the network and
get new and globally unique IPv6 addresses associated with their location?
a. ISATAP
b. Address autoconfiguration
c. Interface Overload
d. None of the answers are correct.

10. What IPv6 transition strategy involves configuring devices to be able to run IPv4
and IPv6 simultaneously?
a. ISATAP
b. IPv4-in-IPv6 Tunnels
c. Dual Stack
d. 6to4 Tunnels
11. If you use static configuration, all autoconfiguration features provided by IPv6 will
be disabled.
a. True
b. False
Chapter 5: IP Services

1. Two hosts, named PC1 and PC2, sit on subnet 172.16.1.0/24, along with Router R1.
A web server sits on subnet 172.16.2.0/24, which is connected to another interface of
R1. At some point, both PC1 and PC2 send an ARP request before they successfully
send packets to the web server. With PC1, R1 makes a normal ARP reply, but for
PC2, R1 uses a proxy ARP reply. Which two of the following answers could be true
given the stated behavior in this network?
a. PC2 set the proxy flag in the ARP request.
b. PC2 encapsulated the ARP request inside an IP packet.
c. PC2s ARP broadcast implied that PC2 was looking for the web servers MAC
address.
d. PC2 has a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.
e. R1s proxy ARP reply contains the web servers MAC address.
2. Host PC3 is using DHCP to discover its IP address. Only one router attaches to
PC3s subnet, using its fa0/0 interface, with an ip helper-address 10.5.5.5 command on that same interface. That same
router interface has an ip address 10.4.5.6
255.255.252.0 command configured as well. Which of the following are true about
PC3s DHCP request?
a. The destination IP address of the DHCP request packet is set to 10.5.5.5 by the
router.
b. The DHCP request packets source IP address is unchanged by the router.
c. The DHCP request is encapsulated inside a new IP packet, with source IP
address 10.4.5.6 and destination 10.5.5.5.
d. The DHCP requests source IP address is changed to 10.4.5.255.
e. The DHCP requests source IP address is changed to 10.4.7.255.
3. Which of the following statements are true about BOOTP, but not true about
RARP?
a. The client can be assigned a different IP address on different occasions, because
the server can allocate a pool of IP addresses for allocation to a set of clients.
b. The server can be on a different subnet from the client.
c. The clients MAC address must be configured on the server, with a one-to-one
mapping to the IP address to be assigned to the client with that MAC address.
d. The client can discover its IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway IP
address

4. R1 is HSRP active for virtual IP address 172.16.1.1, with HSRP priority set to 115. R1
is tracking three separate interfaces. An engineer configures the same HSRP group
on R2, also connected to the same subnet, only using the standby 1 ip 172.16.1.1
command, and no other HSRP-related commands. Which of the following would
cause R2 to take over as HSRP active?
a. R1 experiences failures on tracked interfaces, totaling 16 or more lost points.
b. R1 experiences failures on tracked interfaces, totaling 15 or more lost points.
c. R2 could configure a priority of 116 or greater.
d. R1s fa0/0 interface fails.
e. R2 would take over immediately.
5. Which Cisco IOS feature does HSRP, GLBP, and VRRP use to determine when an
interface fails for active switching purposes?
a. Each protocol has a built-in method of tracking interfaces.
b. When a physical interface goes down, the redundancy protocol uses this automatically as a basis for switching.
c. Each protocol uses its own hello mechanism for determining which interfaces
are up or down.
d. The Cisco IOS object tracking feature.
6. Which is the correct term for using more than one HSRP group to provide load balancing for HSRP?
a. LBHSRP
b. LSHSRP
c. RHSRP
d. MHSRP
e. None of these is correct. HSRP does not support load balancing.
7. Which of the following NTP modes in a Cisco router requires a predefinition of the
IP address of an NTP server?
a. Server mode
b. Static client mode
c. Broadcast client mode
d. Symmetric active mode

12. Which configuration commands are required to enable SSH on a router?

a. hostname
b. ip domain-name
c. ip ssh
d. crypto key generate rsa
e. http secure-server
13. Which protocol is the most secure choice, natively, for transferring files from a
router?
a. SSH
b. HTTPS
c. FTP
d. TFTP
e. SCP
14. In RMON, which type of configured option includes rising and falling thresholds,
either relative or absolute, and is monitored by another type of RMON option?
a. Event
b. Alert
c. Notification
d. Port
e. Probe
15. Which Cisco IOS feature permits end-to-end network performance monitoring with
configuration on devices at each end of the network?
a. Flexible NetFlow
b. IP SLA
c. EEM
d. RITE

Chapter 6: IP Forwarding (Routing)

1. What command is used to enable CEF globally for IPv4 packets?

a. enable cef
b. ip enable cef
c. ip cef
d. cef enable
e. cef enable ip
f. cef ip

2. What command is used to enable CEF globally for IPv6 packets?

a. enable cef6
b. ipv6 enable cef
c. ipv6 cef
d. ip cef (the command automatically enables CEF for IPv4 and IPv6)
3. Can CEF for IPv6 be enabled independently of CEF for IPv4?
a. Yes
b. No
4. Which of the following triggers an update to a CEF FIB?
a. Receipt of an ICMPv6 Neighbor Advertisement message with previously
unknown information
b. Receipt of a LAN ARP reply message with previously unknown information
c. Addition of a new route to the IP routing table by EIGRP
d. Addition of a new route to the IP routing table by adding an ip route command
e. The removal of a route from the IP routing table by EIGRP
5. Which of the following triggers an update to a CEF adjacency table?
a. Receipt of a CDP multicast on the PVC connected to Router1
b. Receipt of an ARP response with previously unknown information
c. Receipt of a packet that needs to be routed to another router over a point-topoint interface
d. Receipt of an ICMPv6 Neighbor Advertisement with previously unknown information
6. Which of the following packet-switching paths is considered to be the slowest?
a. Process Switching
b. Fast Switching
c. Route Cache
d. Cisco Express Forwarding
7. Which of the following commands is used on a Cisco IOS Layer 3 switch to use the
interface as a routed interface instead of a switched interface?
a. ip routing or ipv6 unicast-routing global command
b. ip routing or ipv6 unicast-routing interface subcommand
c. ip address interface subcommand
d. switchport mode routed interface subcommand
e. no switchport interface subcommand
8. On a Cisco Catalyst 3560 switch, the first line of the output of a show interface
vlan 55 command lists the state as Vlan 55 is down, line protocol is down. Which
of the following might be causing that state to occur?
a. VLAN interface has not been no shut yet.
b. The ip routing global command is missing from the configuration.
c. On at least one interface in the VLAN, a cable that was previously plugged in
has been unplugged.
d. VTP mode is set to transparent.
e. The VLAN has not yet been created on this switch, or is not in the active state.
9. On a Cisco Catalyst 3560 switch, the first line of the output of a show interface
vlan 55 command lists the state as Vlan 55 is up, line protocol is down. Which of
the following might be causing that state to occur?
a. VLAN interface has not been no shut yet.
b. The ip routing global command is missing from the configuration.
c. There is no switch port on the switch with this VLAN allowed and in the STP
forwarding state.
d. STP has been administratively deactivated for this VLAN.
e. The VLAN has not yet been created on this switch, or is not in the active state.
10. Imagine a route map used for policy routing, in which the route map has a set
default interface serial0/0 command. Serial0/0 is a point-to-point link to another
router. A packet arrives at this router, and the packet matches the policy routing
route-map clause whose only set command is the one just mentioned. Which of the
following general characterizations is true?
a. The packet will be routed out interface s0/0; if s0/0 is down, it will be routed
using the default route from the routing table.
b. The packet will be routed using the default route in the routing table; if there is
no default, the packet will be routed out s0/0.
c. The packet will be routed using the best match of the destination address with
the routing table; if no match is found, the packet will be routed out s0/0.
d. The packet will be routed out interface s0/0; if s0/0 is down, the packet will be
discarded.

11. Router1 has an fa0/0 interface and two point-to-point WAN links back to the core
of the network (s0/0 and s0/1, respectively). Router1 accepts routing information
only over s0/0, which Router1 uses as its primary link. When s0/0 fails, Router1 uses
policy routing to forward the traffic out the relatively slower s0/1 link. Which of the
following set commands in Router1s policy routing route map could have been used
to achieve this function?
a. set ip default next-hop
b. set ip next-hop
c. set default interface
d. set interface

Chapter 7: RIPv2 and RIPng

1. Which of the following items are true of RIP version 2?

a. Supports VLSM
b. Sends Hellos to 224.0.0.9
c. Allows for route tagging
d. Defines infinity as 255 hops
e. Authentication allows the use of 3DES

2. In an internetwork that solely uses RIPv2, after the network is stable and converged,
which of the following is true?
a. Routers send updates every 30 seconds.
b. Routers send updates every 90 seconds.
c. Routers send Hellos every 10 seconds, and send updates only when routes
change.
d. A routing update sent out a routers Fa0/0 interface includes all RIPv2 routes in
the IP routing table.
e. A RIPv2 updates routes list the same metric as is shown in that routers IP routing table.
3. R1 previously had heard about only one route to 10.1.1.0/24, metric 3, through an
update received on its S0/0 interface, so it put that route in its routing table. R1 gets
an update from that same neighboring router, but the same route now has metric 16.
R1 immediately sends a RIP update out all its interfaces that advertises a metric 16
route for that same subnet. Which of the following are true for this scenario?
a. Split Horizon must have been disabled on R1s S0/0 interface.
b. R1s update is a triggered update.
c. R1s metric 16 route advertisement is an example of a route poisoning.
d. The incoming metric 16 route was the result of a counting-to-infinity problem.
4. R1 is in a network that uses RIPv2 exclusively, and RIP has learned dozens of subnets through several neighbors.
Which of the following commands displays the current value of at least one routes age?
a. show ip route
b. show ip rip database
c. debug ip rip
d. debug ip rip event

5. R1 is in a network that uses RIPv2 exclusively, and RIP has learned dozens of subnets through several neighbors. From
privileged EXEC mode, the network engineer
types in the command clear ip route *. What happens?
a. R1 removes all routes from its IP routing table and tries to repopulate it.
b. R1 removes only RIP routes from its IP routing table.
c. After the command, R1 will relearn its routes when the neighboring routers
Update timers cause them to send their next updates.
d. R1 immediately sends updates on all interfaces, poisoning all routes, so that all
neighbors immediately send triggered updateswhich allow R1 to immediately
relearn its routes.
e. R1 will relearn its routes immediately by sending RIP requests out all its RIPenabled nonpassive interfaces.
f. None of the other answers is correct.
6. R1 has been configured for RIPv2 using only version 2, network statements and no
auto-summary. The configuration includes a network 10.0.0.0 command. Which of
the following statements are true about R1s RIP behavior?
a. R1 will send advertisements out any of its nonpassive interfaces in network
10.0.0.0.
b. R1 will process received advertisements in any of its interfaces in network
10.0.0.0, including passive interfaces.
c. R1 will send updates only after receiving a RIP Hello message from a neighboring router.
d. R1 can disable the sending of routing updates on an interface using the passiveinterface interface subcommand.
e. R1 will advertise the subnets of any of its interfaces connected to subnets of
network 10.0.0.0

7. Which of the following represents a default setting for the Cisco IOS implementation
of RIPv2?
a. Split Horizon is enabled on all types of interfaces.
b. Split Horizon is disabled on Frame Relay physical interfaces and multipoint subinterfaces.
c. The default authentication mode, normally set with the ip rip authentication
mode interface subcommand, is MD5 authentication.
d. RIP will send triggered updates when a route changes.

Chapter 8: EIGRP

1. Which of the following items are true of EIGRP?

a. Authentication can be done using MD5 or clear text.
b. Uses UDP port 88.
c. Sends full or partial updates as needed.
d. Multicasts updates to 224.0.0.10 or FF02::A.

2. What classic metric components can be used by EIGRP for metric computation and
best path selection?
a. Bandwidth
b. Cost
c. Delay
d. Hop count
e. Load
f. Expense
g. MTU
h. Reliability
3. Which of the following accurately describe the manipulation with the component
metrics?
a. Reliability is maximized.
b. Delay is summed.
c. Load is minimized.
d. Reliability is minimized.
e. Bandwidth is summed.
f. Load is maximized.
g. Bandwidth is minimized.

4. Which statement is true regarding EIGRPs use of Reliability and Load metric components on regular interfaces such as
Ethernet or PPP?
a. EIGRP sends updates and recalculates the composite metric immediately
whenever the Reliability and Load values on an interface change, regardless of
K-value settings.
b. EIGRP sends updates and recalculates the composite metric immediately
whenever the Reliability and Load values on an interface change but only when
K-values are configured to take these components into account.
c. EIGRP samples the Reliability and Load in regular intervals and sends updates
along with recalculating the composite metric when the sampled Reliability and
Load values change.
d. EIGRP takes a snapshot of the interface Reliability and Load values in the
moment of advertising a network, but changes to their values do not trigger
sending further updates.

5. What are the shortcomings solved by Wide Metrics?

a. Gradual loss of resolution caused by repetitive descaling and scaling of
Bandwidth and Delay components in integer arithmetics
b. Inability to use Reliability and Load without incurring routing table instabilities
c. Loss of resolution for interfaces with speeds over 1 Gbps
d. Inability to extend the metrics with additional future factors
6. What are the component metrics used in Wide Metrics that can be used for best
path selection?
a. Throughput
b. Latency
c. Reliability
d. Load
e. MTU
f. Hop Count
g. Extended Metrics
7. Which of the following EIGRP packets are considered reliable packets?
a. Hello
b. Ack
c. Update
d. Query
e. Reply
f. SIA-Query
g. SIA-Reply

8. Which of the following EIGRP packets can be sent as multicasts?

a. Hello
b. Ack
c. Update
d. Query
e. Reply
f. SIA-Query
g. SIA-Reply

9. Which statements are true about Hello packets?

a. Hello packets must be confirmed.
b. Hello packets sent by a router contain a list of all detected neighbors on the
interface.
c. Hello packets are usually sent as multicasts.
d. Default interval between Hello packets is 5 seconds on all interfaces.
e. Hello packets do not contain routing information.
10. Which EIGRP packet types are acknowledged?
a. Hello
b. Ack
c. Update
d. Query
e. Reply
f. SIA-Query
g. SIA-Reply
11. Which EIGRP packet types can themselves act as acknowledgments?
a. Hello
b. Ack
c. Update
d. Query
e. Reply
f. SIA-Query
g. SIA-Reply

12. What is the Computed Distance for a destination?

a. The current total distance to the destination computed over a particular neighbor router
b. The lowest known distance to the destination since the last time the destination
transitioned from Active to Passive state
c. The current distance of a particular neighbor to the destination
d. The lowest known distance of a particular neighbor to the destination since the
last time the destination transitioned from Active to Passive state

13. How many Computed Distances for a destination exist?

a. Only one, not bound to any particular neighbor
b. One per each neighbor that advertises the destination
c. One per each Successor
d. One per each Feasible Successor
14. What is the Reported Distance for a destination?
a. The current total distance to the destination computed over a particular neighbor router
b. The lowest known distance to the destination since the last time the destination
transitioned from Active to Passive state
c. The current distance of a particular neighbor to the destination
d. The lowest known distance of a particular neighbor to the destination since the
last time the destination transitioned from Active to Passive state
15. How many Reported Distances for a destination exist?
a. Only one, not bound to any particular neighbor
b. One per each neighbor that advertises the destination
c. One per each Successor
d. One per each Feasible Successor
16. What is the Feasible Distance for a destination?
a. The current total distance to the destination computed over a particular neighbor router
b. The lowest known distance to the destination since the last time the destination
transitioned from Active to Passive state
c. The current distance of a particular neighbor to the destination
d. The lowest known distance of a particular neighbor to the destination since the
last time the destination transitioned from Active to Passive state

17. How many Feasible Distances for a destination exist?

a. Only one, not bound to any particular neighbor
b. One per each neighbor that advertises the destination
c. One per each Successor
d. One per each Feasible Successor

18. Which statement correctly constitutes the Feasibility Condition in EIGRP?

a. The neighbor must be closer to the destination than I have ever been since the
last time the destination became Passive .
b. The neighbor must be closer to the destination than I am .
c. The neighbor must be farther from the destination than I am .
d. The neighbor must be farther from the destination than I have ever been .
19. What statements correctly apply to a Successor?
a. It is a route over a particular neighbor.
b. It is a particular neighbor.
c. It must provide a loop-free path.
d. The Computed Distance over the Successor must be the lowest available.
e. The Computed Distance over the Successor does not need to be the lowest
available.
f. In a connected network, there is always at least one Successor to a destination.
20. What statements correctly apply to a Feasible Successor?
a. It is a route over a particular neighbor.
b. It is a particular neighbor.
c. It must provide a loop-free path.
d. The Computed Distance over the Feasible Successor must be the lowest
available.
e. The Computed Distance over the Feasible Successor does not need to be the
lowest available.
f. There is always at least one Feasible Successor to a destination.

21. What is a local computation?

a. The process of local processing of all received Updates and Replies
b. The process of reevaluating and possibly changing a next hop to a destination
locally that does not require the router to send Queries and wait for Replies
before making its own decision
c. The process of computing the composite metric from individual components
d. The process of coordinating a change in the next hop to a destination by sending out Queries and waiting for Replies
before making its own next-hop
selection

22. What is a diffusing computation?

a. The process of local processing of all received Updates and Replies
b. The process of reevaluating and possibly changing a next hop to a destination
locally that does not require the router to send Queries and wait for Replies
before making its own decision
c. The process of computing the composite metric from individual components
d. The process of coordinating a change in the next hop to a destination by sending out Queries and waiting for Replies
before making its own next-hop
selection
23. Is the following statement true? If a router has a Feasible Successor for a destination identified in its topology table, it
will always be used in place of the current
Successor if the Successor fails.
a. Yes
b. No
24. How long at most will a diffusing computation run by default on a router before
being terminated forcibly?
a. Indefinitely
b. 3 minutes
c. 3 minutes if the SIA-Query and SIA-Reply messages are not supported; 6 minutes if the SIA-Query and SIA-Reply are
supported
d. 15 seconds
25. What are some of the factors contributing to the occurrence of SIA states?
a. The use of route filtering and summarization
b. Excessive redundancy in the network
c. The use of the EIGRP Stub feature
d. Excessive network diameter
e. Large amount of routing information
f. The use of the EIGRP Add-Path feature

26. What statements are true about running EIGRP Named Mode?
a. Verbal names of EIGRP processes on neighboring routers must match for the
routers to establish adjacencies.
b. Multiple autonomous system instances for a single address family can be run in
a single EIGRP named process.
c. Multiple autonomous system instances for different address families can be run
in a single EIGRP named process.
d. Both classic and named mode can be used on a router as long as they do not
conflict on the address family and the autonomous system number.
e. The use of named mode still permits that per-interface commands can be
applied to interfaces to maintain backward compatibility.
f. The named mode contains a superset of all commands from the classic mode.
27. What statements are true about EIGRP RID?
a. EIGRP has no concept of a RID.
b. The RID is equal to the autonomous system number.
c. The RID is advertised with all external and, in recent IOS releases, also with all
internal routes.
d. The RID indicates the immediate neighbor advertising a route.
e. The RID indicates the originator of the routing information.
28. What statements are true about unequal cost load balancing in EIGRP?
a. Feasible Successors are required for this feature.
b. Multiple unequal cost paths can be advertised by a router to its neighbors.
c. Each unequal-cost path will be assigned a share of traffic in inverse proportion
to how many times worse it is than the current best path.
d. EIGRP allows using any worse-cost path as long as the neighbor advertising this
path is closer to the destination than this router

29. What statements are true about the EIGRP Stub Router feature?
a. No Queries are sent by a stub router.
b. No Queries are usually sent to a stub router.
c. All Queries sent to a stub router are responded to by Replies indicating unreachability.
d. Depending on what routes the stub router is allowed to advertise, some Queries
can be responded to normally while others will elicit a Reply indicating unreachability.
e. Neighbors of a stub router must be configured to treat that router as a stub.
f. A router is capable of advertising itself as a stub.

30. What statements are true about EIGRP authentication?

a. In recent IOS versions, SHA-2 with 256-bit digests is supported.
b. MD5 digest is always supported.
c. Key chains or passwords can be used for SHA-2 authentication.
d. Key chains or passwords can be used for MD5 authentication.
e. IPv6 EIGRP uses IPsec for authentication purposes.
31. What of the following are true regarding the default route injection into EIGRP?
a. The network 0.0.0.0 command is the preferred way of injecting the default route
into EIGRP.
b. A default route can be injected into EIGRP by redistribution.
c. A default route can be injected into EIGRP by summarization.
d. Neighbors of stub routers send a default route to stub routers automatically.

Chapter 9: OSPF

1. R1 has received an OSPF LSU from R2. Which of the following methods can be
used by R1 to acknowledge receipt of the LSU from R2?
a. TCP on R1 acknowledges using the TCP Acknowledgment field.
b. R1 sends back an identical copy of the LSU.
c. R1 sends back an LSAck to R2.
d. R1 sends back a DD packet with LSA headers whose sequence numbers match
the sequence numbers in the LSU.

2. Fredsco has an enterprise network with one core Frame Relay connected router, with
a hub-and-spoke network of PVCs connecting to ten remote offices. The network
uses OSPF exclusively. The core router (R-core) has all ten PVCs defined under multipoint subinterface s0/0.1. Each
remote router also uses a multipoint subinterface.
Fred, the engineer, configures an ip ospf network non-broadcast command under
the subinterface on R-core and on the subinterfaces of the ten remote routers. Fred
also assigns an IP address to each router from subnet 10.3.4.0/24, with R-core using
the .100 address, and the remote offices using .1 through .10. Assuming that all other
related options are using defaults, which of the following would be true about this
network?
a. The OSPF hello interval would be 30 seconds.
b. The OSPF dead interval would be 40 seconds.
c. The remote routers could learn all routes to other remote routers subnets, but
only if R-core became the designated router.
d. No designated router will be elected in subnet 10.3.4.0/24.
3. Which of the following interface subcommands, used on a multipoint Frame Relay
subinterface, creates a requirement for a DR to be elected for the attached subnet?
a. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint
b. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint non-broadcast
c. ip ospf network non-broadcast
d. None of these answers is correct.
4. The following routers share the same LAN segment and have the stated OSPF settings: R1: RID 1.1.1.1, hello 10,
priority 3; R2: RID 2.2.2.2, hello 9, priority 4; R3, RID
3.3.3.3, priority 3; and R4: RID 4.4.4.4, hello 10, priority 2. The LAN switch fails
and recovers, and all routers attempt to elect an OSPF DR and form neighbor relationships at the same time. No other
OSPF-related parameters were specifically set.
Which of the following are true about negotiations and elections on this LAN?
a. R1, R3, and R4 will expect Hellos from R2 every 9 seconds.
b. R2 will become the DR but have no neighbors.
c. R3 will become the BDR.
d. R4s dead interval will be 40 seconds.
e. All routers will use R2s hello interval of 9 after R2 becomes the designated
router.
5. Which of the following must be true for two OSPF routers that share the same LAN
data link to be able to become OSPF neighbors?
a. Must be in the same area
b. Must have the same LSRefresh setting
c. Must have differing OSPF priorities
d. Must have the same Hello timer, but can have different dead intervals
6. R1 is an OSPF ASBR that injects an E1 route for network 200.1.1.0/24 into the OSPF
backbone area. R2 is an ABR connected to area 0 and to area 1. R2 also has an
Ethernet interface in area 0, IP address 10.1.1.1/24, for which it is the designated
router, and has established OSPF adjacencies over this interface with other routers. R3 is a router internal to area 1.
Enough links are up and working for the OSPF
design to be working properly. Which of the following are true regarding this topology? (Assume that no other routing
protocols are running, and that area 1 is not a
stub area.)
a. R1 creates a type 7 LSA and floods it throughout area 0.
b. R3 will not have a specific route to 200.1.1.0/24.
c. R2 forwards the LSA that R1 created for 200.1.1.0/24 into area 1.
d. R2 will create a type 2 LSA for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 and flood it throughout
area 0.
7. R1 is an OSPF ASBR that injects an E1 route for network 200.1.1.0/24 into the
OSPF backbone area. R2 is an ABR connected to area 0 and to area 1. R2 also has
an Ethernet interface in area 0, IP address 10.1.1.1/24, for which it is the designated
router but there are no other OSPF routers on the segment. R3 is a router internal to
area 1. Enough links are up and working for the OSPF design to be working properly.
Which of the following are true regarding this topology? (Assume that no other
routing protocols are running, and that area 1 is a totally NSSA.)
a. R3 could inject external routes into the OSPF domain.
b. R3 will not have a specific route to 200.1.1.0/24.
c. R2 forwards the LSA that R1 created for 200.1.1.0/24 into area 1.
d. R2 will create a type 2 LSA for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 and flood it throughout
area 0.

8. The routers in area 55 all have the area 55 stub no-summary command configured
under the router ospf command. OSPF has converged, with all routers in area 55
holding an identical link-state database for area 55. All IP addresses inside the area
come from the range 10.55.0.0/16; no other links outside area 55 use addresses in this
range. R11 is the only ABR for the area. Which of the following is true about this
design?
a. The area is a stubby area.
b. The area is a totally stubby area.
c. The area is an NSSA.
d. ABR R11 is not allowed to summarize the type 1 and 2 LSAs in area 55 into the
10.55.0.0/16 prefix because of the no-summary keyword.
e. Routers internal to area 55 can have routes to specific subnets inside area 0.
f. Routers internal to area 55 can have routes to E1, but not E2, OSPF routes.
9. R1 is an OSPF ASBR that injects an E1 route for network 200.1.1.0/24 into the OSPF
backbone area. R2 is an ABR connected to area 0 and to area 1. R2 also has an
Ethernet interface in area 0, IP address 10.1.1.1/24, for which it is the designated
router. R3 is a router internal to area 1. Enough links are up and working for the
OSPF design to be working properly. Which of the following are true regarding this
topology? (Assume that no other routing protocols are running, and that area 1 is
not a stubby area.)
a. R3s cost for the route to 200.1.1.0 will be the cost of the route as it was injected
into the OSPF domain by R1, without considering any internal cost.
b. R3s cost for the route to 200.1.1.0 will be the cost of reaching R1, plus the
external cost listed in the LSA.
c. R3s cost for the route to 10.1.1.0/24 will be the same as its cost to reach
ABR R2.
d. R3s cost for the route to 10.1.1.0/24 will be the sum of its cost to reach ABR R2
plus the cost listed in the type 3 LSA created for 10.1.1.0/24 by ABR R2.
e. It is impossible to characterize R3s cost to 10.1.1.0/24 because R3 uses a summary type 3 LSA, which hides some of
the costs.
10. R1 and R2 each connect through Fast Ethernet interfaces to the same LAN, which
should be in area 0. R1s IP address is 10.1.1.1/24, and R2s is 10.1.1.2/24. The only
OSPF-related configuration is as follows:
hostname R1
router ospf 1
network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000
!
hostname R2
router ospf 2
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Which of the following statements are true about the configuration?
a. The network command on R2 does not match IP address 10.1.1.2, so R2 will not
attempt to send Hellos or discover neighbors on the LAN.
b. The different process IDs in the router ospf command will prevent the two routers from becoming neighbors on the
LAN.
c. R2 will become the DR as a result of having a cost of 1 associated with its Fast
Ethernet interface.
d. R1 and R2 could never become neighbors because of the difference in cost
values.
e. R1s OSPF cost for its Fast Ethernet interface would be 10.
11. Which of the following are true about setting timers with OSPF?
a. The ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 4 interface subcommand
sets the hello interval to 4 ms.
b. The ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 4 interface subcommand
sets the dead interval to 4 seconds.
c. The ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 4 interface subcommand
sets the hello interval to 250 ms.
d. On all interfaces, the ip ospf hello-interval 30 interface subcommand changes
the hello interval from 10 to 30.
e. The ip ospf hello-multiplier 5 interface subcommand sets the dead interval to
five times the then-current hello interval.
f. Cisco IOS defaults the hello and dead intervals to 30/120 on interfaces using the
OSPF nonbroadcast network type.

12. R1 has been configured for OSPF authentication on its Fa0/0 interface as shown
here. Which of the following is true about the configuration?
interface Fa0/0
ip ospf authentication-key hannah
ip ospf authentication
ip ospf message-digest-key 2 md5 jessie
router ospf 2
area 0 authentication message-digest
a. R1 will attempt simple-text authentication on the LAN with key hannah.
b. R1 will attempt MD5 authentication on the LAN with key jessie.
c. R1 will attempt OSPF type 2 authentication on Fa0/0.
d. R1 will attempt OSPF type 3 authentication on Fa0/0.
13. Which of the following statements about OSPFv3 are true?
a. Type 1 and 2 LSAs do not carry addressing information.
b. OSPFv3 messages are encapsulated directly into Layer 2 frames.
c. OSPFv3 uses 128-bit Router IDs.
d. There are three flooding scopes defined for OSPFv3 LSAs: link, area, and AS.
e. Multiple OSPFv3 instances can run over a single link.
f. OSPFv3 implements its own authentication mechanisms.
14. Which statements are true about Link LSA and Intra-Area-Prefix LSA in OSPFv3?
a. Link LSAs have AS flooding scope.
b. Intra-Area-Prefix LSAs have area flooding scope.
c. Link LSAs carry information about link-local addresses.
d. Intra-Area-Prefix LSAs carry information about global prefixes.
e. When an updated Link or Intra-Area-Prefix LSA is flooded, a router is required
to schedule a full SPF run.
f. Link and Intra-Area-Prefix LSAs have entirely replaced the Router and Network
LSAs.
15. How does OSPFv3 handle authentication?
a. OSPFv3 implements its own authentication and encryption mechanisms.
b. SSL/TLS is used by OSPFv3 to provide authentication and encryption.
c. OSPFv3 relies on IPsec to authenticate and encrypt its packets.
d. OSPFv3 makes use of ISAKMP/IKE protocols to negotiate authentication and
encryption parameters between routers.
e. The use of AH and ESP is mutually exclusive in OSPFv3.

16. Which statements are true about address family support in OSPFv3?
a. When running multiple address families, a single link-state database on a router
holds information from all address families.
b. Each address family is run as a separate OSPFv3 instance, keeping all its data
and state separate.
c. Multiple address families are distinguished by separate OSPFv3 process IDs.
d. Running IPv4 and IPv6 address families simultaneously under a single OSPFv3
process will result in a significantly smaller memory footprint than running a
separate IPv4 OSPFv2 and IPv6 OSPFv3 process.
e. Type 8 and 9 LSAs are reused to carry both IPv4 and IPv6 prefixes.
f. Even if running OSPFv3 for IPv4 address family, interfaces must be configured
for IPv6 connectivity.

Chapter 10: IS-IS

1. How many NSAP addresses are usually configured on a router?

a. One per every active (up/up) interface with IS-IS configured
b. One per every interface with IS-IS configured
c. One per area
d. One per node
2. What is the size of an NSAP address?
a. Fixed length of 20 octets
b. Fixed length of 32 octets
c. Variable length ranging from 8 to 20 octets
d. Variable length ranging from 16 to 32 octets
3. What is the common length of the System ID field?
a. 8 octets
b. 6 octets
c. 4 octets
d. 1 octet
e. 4 bits
4. In the NSAP 49.0001.FF11.2233.4455.6600, what is the value of the System ID field?
a. 49.0001
b. FF11.2233
c. FF11.2233.4455
d. FF11.2233.4455.6600
e. 2233.4455
f. 2233.4455.6600
g. 1122.3344.5566
5. In OSI terminology, intra-area routing is also called which of the following?
a. L0 routing
b. L1 routing
c. L2 routing
d. L3 routing

6. In OSI terminology, inter-area routing within a domain is also called which of the
following?
a. L0 routing
b. L1 routing
c. L2 routing
d. L3 routing
7. In OSI terminology, interdomain routing is also called which of the following?
a. L0 routing
b. L1 routing
c. L2 routing
d. L3 routing
8. What is the range of metrics defined by the original IS-IS standard?
a. 6 bits for interface metric, 10 bits for total metric
b. 8 bits for interface metric, 16 bits for total metric
c. 16 bits for interface metric, 32 bits for total metric
d. 24 bits for interface metric, 32 bits for total metric
9. What is the width of metrics if wide metrics are activated?
a. 24 bits for interface metric, 32 bits for total metric
b. 16 bits for interface metric, 24 bits for total metric
c. 32 bits for interface metric, 32 bits for total metric
d. There is no concept of wide metrics in IS-IS.

10. Select the correct answer about the established adjacency type, assuming that the
routers are directly connected.
a. R1: L1L2, R2: L2, both in the same area. L2 adjacency will be created.
b. R1: L1L2, R2: L2, both in the same area. L1 and L2 adjacencies will be created.
c. R1: L1L2, R2: L1L2, each in a different area. L1 and L2 adjacencies will be
created.
d. R1: L1L2, R2: L1L2, each in a different area. L2 adjacency will be created.
e. R1: L1, R2: L1L2, both in the same area. L1 and L2 adjacencies will be created.
f. R1: L1, R2: L1L2, both in the same area. L1 adjacency will be created.
g. R1: L1 R2: L1, each in a different area. No adjacency will be created.
h. R1: L2 R2: L2, each in a different area. L2 adjacency will be created.

11. How many IIH types are sent in default configuration over a broadcast link?
a. One; L1 IIH
b. One; L2 IIH
c. One; L1L2 IIH
d. Two, L1 and L2 IIHs
12. Do the timers on neighboring IS-IS routers need to match?
a. Yes
b. Only on point-to-point links
c. Only on broadcast links
d. No
13. Which of the following fields can be used to identify an LSP?
a. Area ID
b. System ID
c. NSEL
d. Pseudonode ID
e. Fragment
f. SNPA
14. Can an LSP be fragmented?
a. Yes. Any router can fragment any LSP according to its interface MTU.
b. Yes, but only the originator of an LSP can fragment it.
c. Yes, but only backbone routers can fragment an LSP (regardless of its originator).
d. No. LSP packets cannot be fragmented.
15. Which packets are used to request or acknowledge an LSP?
a. IIH
b. SNPA
c. CSNP
d. PSNP

16. Which of the following states are valid adjacency states in IS-IS?
a. Down
b. Init
c. 2Way
d. Exchange
e. Full
f. Up
17. How is a Backup DIS elected in IS-IS?
a. By its priority
b. By its SNPA
c. By its System ID
d. There is no Backup DIS in IS-IS.
18. What is the DIS election based on?
a. Interface priority
b. Uptime
c. System ID
d. SNPA
e. IP address
19. Does the IS priority of 0 have any special significance?
a. No
b. Yes. The router will not participate in DIS elections.
c. Yes. The router will not be considered by others during their SPF run.
d. Yes. The router will act as an area boundary router.

20. How many DISs are going to be elected on a common broadcast segment with ten
routers in default IS-IS configuration if the router adjacencies have been fully established?
a. Only one. A DIS function is shared between L1 and L2.
b. Two, one for L1 and one for L2, each level having a different router as the DIS.
c. Two, one for L1 and one for L2, with the same router winning DIS in both levels.
d. None. IS-IS treats all links as point-to-point by default.

21. It is possible to renumber, merge, or split areas in IS-IS without network disruption.
a. False
b. True
22. What IPv4/IPv6 prefixes are advertised in an L1 LSP?
a. Directly attached networks
b. Networks from a routers own area
c. Networks from other areas
d. Redistributed networks if redistribution into L1 is configured
23. What IPv4/IPv6 prefixes are advertised in an L2 LSP?
a. Directly attached networks
b. Networks from a routers own area
c. Networks from other areas
d. Redistributed networks
24. In what mode must a backbone router operate if all other routers in its own area are
L1-only routers?
a. L1-only
b. L1L2
c. L2-only
d. As the area is a totally stubby area, the level setting on the backbone router is
irrelevant.

25. Which statements are true about authentication in IS-IS?

a. All packet types are always authenticated by a common password.
b. P2P IIH packets can be authenticated independently for each level.
c. LAN IIH packets can be authenticated independently for each level.
d. Each of LSP, CSNP, and PSNP packet types can be authenticated by an independent password.
e. IIH packets can be authenticated independently from LSP+CSNP+PSNP
packets.
f. If authentication is configured, LSP+CSNP+PSNP packets are authenticated by
a common password for both levels.
g. If authentication is configured, LSP+CSNP+PSNP packets can be authenticated
in each level independently.

26. What authentication mechanisms are currently available for IS-IS?

a. Plaintext
b. AES
c. 3DES
d. MD5
27. Which statements are true about authentication in IS-IS?
a. If using key chains, key numbers must match, even with the plaintext authentication method.
b. If using key chains, key numbers do not need to match, even with the MD5
authentication method.
c. Authentication password for L1 LSP+CSNP+PSNP must match only between
directly connected neighbors.
d. Authentication password for L1 LSP+CSNP+PSNP must match across the area.
e. Authentication password for L1 LSP+CSNP+PSNP must match across the
domain.
f. Authentication password for L2 LSP+CSNP+PSNP must match only between
directly connected neighbors.
g. Authentication password for L2 LSP+CSNP+PSNP must match across the area.
h. Authentication password for L2 LSP+CSNP+PSNP must match across the
domain.
28. Which statements are true about IPv6 support in IS-IS?
a. When IPv6 support is activated, IS-IS packets are sent to the FF02::2 multicast
IPv6 address.
b. Separate LSPs are generated for IPv4 and IPv6 prefixes.
c. IPv4 and IPv6 prefixes can coexist in a single LSP.
d. Separate NSAP/NET addresses have to be configured for IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS
instances.
e. A single IS-IS process advertises both IPv4 and IPv6 routes.
f. The System ID of an IS-IS router has to be derived from its IPv6 loopback
address.

29. Which statements are true regarding advertising a local interfaces IPv6 prefix in
IS-IS?
a. The address-family ipv6 section must be created in router isis mode before
IS-IS can start advertising IPv6 prefixes.
b. The ip router isis command in interface configuration mode applies both to
IPv4 and IPv6 prefixes configured on the interface.
c. The prefix command in the address-family ipv6 section of the router isis mode
can be used to advertise locally connected prefixes.
d. The ipv6 router isis command in interface configuration mode is used to advertise that interfaces IPv6 prefixes.
30. Which values can be used to manually derive a System ID for an IS-IS router?
a. Any arbitrary value as long as it is unique
b. Any routers MAC address
c. Any routers IP address after an appropriate transliteration
d. None of these answers applies; Cisco routers derive a System ID automatically.
31. How can the logging of neighbor state changes be activated for an IS-IS process?
a. The logging is activated automatically; no action is necessary.
b. log-adjacency-changes all command in router isis mode
c. isis log-neighbor-changes command in global configuration mode
d. isis neighbor log-changes command in interface configuration mode
32. How can a local interfaces IPv4 prefix be advertised in IS-IS?
a. Using the network command in router isis mode
b. Using the ip router isis command in interface configuration mode
c. Using the passive-interface command in router isis mode
d. No command is necessary; IS-IS automatically advertises IPv4 prefixes of all
local interfaces on a router.
33. How can summarization be configured in IS-IS?
a. Using the summary-address command in router isis mode for IPv4 prefixes
b. Using the summary-prefix command in the address-family ipv6 section of the
router isis mode for IPv6 prefixes
c. Using the isis summary command in interface mode for both IPv4 and IPv6
prefixes
d. IS-IS does not support summarization.

Chapter 11: IGP Route Redistribution, Route Summarization, Default Routing, and Troubleshooting

1. A route map has several clauses. A route maps first clause has a permit action configured. The match command for this
clause refers to an ACL that matches route
10.1.1.0/24 with a permit action, and matches route 10.1.2.0/24 with a deny action. If
this route map is used for route redistribution, which of the following are true?
a. The route map will attempt to redistribute 10.1.1.0/24.
b. The question does not supply enough information to determine whether
10.1.1.0/24 is redistributed.
c. The route map will not attempt to redistribute 10.1.2.0/24.
d. The question does not supply enough information to determine whether
10.1.2.0/24 is redistributed.
2. Which of the following routes would be matched by this prefix list command: ip
prefix-list fred permit 10.128.0.0/9 ge 20?
a. 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
b. 10.127.1.0 255.255.255.0
c. 10.200.200.192 255.255.255.252
d. 10.128.0.0 255.255.240.0
e. None of these answers is correct.

3. A router is using the following configuration to redistribute routes. This router has
several working interfaces with IP addresses in network 10.0.0.0, and has learned
some network 10 routes with EIGRP and some with OSPF. Which of the following is
true about the redistribution configuration?
router eigrp 1
network 10.0.0.0
redistribute ospf 2
!
router ospf 2
network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 3
redistribute eigrp 1 subnets
R1# show ip route 10.0.0.0
Routing entry for 10.0.0.0/24, 5 known subnets
Attached (2 connections)
Redistributing via eigrp 1
O E1 10.6.11.0 [110/84] via 10.1.6.6, 00:21:52, Serial0/0/0.6
O E2 10.6.12.0 [110/20] via 10.1.6.6, 00:21:52, Serial0/0/0.6
C 10.1.6.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.6
O IA 10.1.2.0 [110/65] via 10.1.1.5, 00:21:52, Serial0/0/0.5
C 10.1.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.5

a. EIGRP will not advertise any additional routes because of redistribution.

b. OSPF will not advertise any additional routes because of redistribution.
c. Routes redistributed into OSPF will be advertised as E1 routes.
d. The redistribute ospf 2 command would be rejected because of missing
parameters.

4. Examine the following router configuration and excerpt from its IP routing table.
Which routes could be redistributed into OSPF?
router eigrp 1
network 12.0.0.0
router ospf 2
redistribute eigrp 1 subnets
network 13.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 3
An excerpt from the routing table is shown next:
C 12.1.6.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.6
D 12.0.0.0/8 [90/2172416] via 13.1.1.1, 00:01:30, Serial0/0/0.5
C 13.1.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.5
a. 12.1.6.0
b. 12.0.0.0
c. 13.1.1.0
d. None of these answers is correct.
5. Two corporations merged. The network engineers decided to redistribute between
one companys EIGRP network and the other companys OSPF network, using two
mutually redistributing routers (R1 and R2) for redundancy. Assume that as many
defaults as is possible are used for the redistribution configuration. Assume that
one of the subnets in the OSPF domain is 10.1.1.0/24. Which of the following is true
about a possible suboptimal route to 10.1.1.0/24 on R1a route that sends packets
through the EIGRP domain, and through R2 into the OSPF domain?
a. The suboptimal routes will occur unless the configuration filters routes at R1.
b. R1s administrative distance must be manipulated, such that OSPF routes have an
administrative distance less than EIGRPs default of 90.
c. EIGRP prevents the suboptimal routes by default.
d. Using route tags is the only way to prevent the suboptimal routes.

6. Which of the following statements is true about the type of routes created when
redistributing routes?
a. Routes redistributed into OSPF default to be external type 2.
b. Routes redistributed into EIGRP default to external, but can be set to internal
with a route map.
c. Routes redistributed into RIP are external by default.
d. Routes redistributed into OSPF by a router in an NSSA area default to be external type 1.
7. Which of the following is not true about route summarization?
a. The advertised summary is assigned the same metric as the lowest-metric component subnet.
b. The router does not advertise the summary when its routing table does not have
any of the component subnets.
c. The router does not advertise the component subnets.
d. Summarization, when used with redistribution, prevents all cases of suboptimal
routes.
8. Which of the following is/are true regarding the default-information originate router
subcommand?
a. It is not supported by EIGRP.
b. It causes OSPF to advertise a default route, but only if a static route to 0.0.0.0/0
is in that routers routing table.
c. The always keyword in the default-information originate command, when used
for OSPF, means that OSPF will originate a default route even if no default route
exists in its own IP routing table.
d. None of the other answers is correct.

9. An EIGRP router is showing intermittent reachability to 172.30.8.32/27. Which

command(s) reveals the source by which this prefix is being advertised to the local
router?
a. show ip protocols
b. show ip route eigrp
c. show ip eigrp neighbor
d. show ip eigrp topology 172.30.8.32
e. show ip route 172.30.8.32

10. You suspect that a routing loop exists in your network because a subnet is intermittently reachable. What is the most
specific way to determine that a routing loop is
the cause?
a. ping
b. traceroute
c. debug ip packet detail
d. debug ip routing
e. show ip protocols
11. What routing optimization feature exists to change existing routing parameters of an
IGP such that it will add new prefixes and manipulate overall data forwarding at the
networks edge?
a. Overlay transport virtualization
b. OSPFv3
c. Enhanced traffic selection
d. Performance Routing (PfR)
12. What solution is used to ensure that rogue devices cannot be used to poison the
manipulation of route optimization through adding dynamic static routes to the routing information base of a given border
router?
a. MD5
b. Key chains
c. Clear text password
d. SHA1

APENDIX

Size of the network part of the address

Size of the subnet part of the address
Size of the host part of the address
The number of hosts per subnet
The number of subnets in this network
The subnet number
The broadcast address
The range of valid IP addresses in this network:
1. 10.180.10.18, mask 255.192.0.0
2. 10.200.10.18, mask 255.224.0.0
3. 10.100.18.18, mask 255.240.0.0
4. 10.100.18.18, mask 255.248.0.0
5. 10.150.200.200, mask 255.252.0.0
6. 10.150.200.200, mask 255.254.0.0
7. 10.220.100.18, mask 255.255.0.0
8. 10.220.100.18, mask 255.255.128.0
9. 172.31.100.100, mask 255.255.192.0
10. 172.31.100.100, mask 255.255.224.0
11. 172.31.200.10, mask 255.255.240.0
12. 172.31.200.10, mask 255.255.248.0
13. 172.31.50.50, mask 255.255.252.0
14. 172.31.50.50, mask 255.255.254.0
15. 172.31.140.14, mask 255.255.255.0
16. 172.31.140.14, mask 255.255.255.128
17. 192.168.15.150, mask 255.255.255.192
18. 192.168.15.150, mask 255.255.255.224
19. 192.168.100.100, mask 255.255.255.240
20. 192.168.100.100, mask 255.255.255.248
21. 192.168.15.230, mask 255.255.255.252
22. 10.1.1.1, mask 255.248.0.0
23. 172.16.1.200, mask 255.255.240.0
24. 172.16.0.200, mask 255.255.255.192
25. 10.1.1.1, mask 255.0.0.0

Discovering All Subnets When Using SLSM: 13

Questions

For practice, answer that question for the following networks and masks:
1. 10.0.0.0, mask 255.192.0.0
2. 10.0.0.0, mask 255.224.0.0
3. 10.0.0.0, mask 255.248.0.0
4. 10.0.0.0, mask 255.252.0.0
5. 10.0.0.0, mask 255.255.128.0
6. 10.0.0.0, mask 255.255.192.0
7. 172.31.0.0, mask 255.255.224.0
8. 172.31.0.0, mask 255.255.240.0
9. 172.31.0.0, mask 255.255.252.0
10. 172.31.0.0, mask 255.255.255.224

11. 192.168.15.0, mask 255.255.255.192

12. 192.168.15.0, mask 255.255.255.224
13. 192.168.15.0, mask 255.255.255.240

These questions are mostly a subset of the same 25 subnetting questions covered in
the first section of this appendix. The explanations of the answers will be based on
the seven-step algorithm from Chapter 4 , repeated here for convenience. Also, keep in
mind that this formal algorithm assumes that the subnet field is 8 bits in length or less.
However, some problems in this appendix have a longer subnet field. For those problems,
the answer explains how to expand the logic in this baseline algorithm.
Step 1. Write the classful network number.
Step 2. For the first (lowest numeric) subnet number, copy the entire network number. That is the first subnet number, and
is also the zero subnet.
Step 3. Decide which octet contains the entire subnet field; call this octet the interesting octet. (Remember, this algorithm
assumes 8 subnet bits or less.)
Step 4. Calculate the magic number by subtracting the masks interesting octet value
from 256.
Step 5. Copy the previous subnet numbers noninteresting octets onto the next line as
the next subnet number; only one octet is missing at this point.
Step 6. Add the magic number to the previous subnets interesting octet, and write
that as the next subnet numbers interesting octet, completing the next subnet
number.
Step 7. Repeat Steps 5 and 6 until the new interesting octet is 256. That subnet is not
valid. The previously calculated subnet is the last valid subnet, and also the
broadcast subnet.

Discovering the Smallest Inclusive Summary Route:

10 Questions
The last two major sections of this appendix provide practice questions to find the best
inclusive and exclusive summary routes, respectively. For the following ten lists of subnets, discover the subnet/mask or
prefix/length for the smallest possible inclusive summary route:
1. 10.20.30.0/24, 10.20.40.0/24, 10.20.35.0/24, 10.20.45.0/24
2. 10.20.7.0/24, 10.20.4.0/24, 10.20.5.0/24, 10.20.6.0/24
3. 10.20.3.0/24, 10.20.4.0/24, 10.20.5.0/24, 10.20.6.0/24, 10.20.7.0/24, 10.20.8.0/24
4. 172.16.200.0/23, 172.16.204.0/23, 172.16.208.0/23
5. 172.16.200.0/23, 172.16.204.0/23, 172.16.208.0/23, 172.16.202.0/23, 172.16.206.0/23
6. 172.16.120.0/22, 172.16.112.0/22, 172.16.124.0/22, 172.16.116.0/22

7. 192.168.1.16/29, 192.168.1.32/29, 192.168.1.24/29

8. 192.168.1.16/29, 192.168.1.32/29
9. 10.1.80.0/25, 10.1.81.0/25, 10.1.81.128/25
10. 10.1.80.0/26, 10.1.81.0/26, 10.1.81.128/26
The following steps are a repeat of the algorithm found in Chapter 4 . Chapter 4 only
explained details assuming consecutive subnets and SLSM, but the algorithm works fine
with SLSM or VLSM, and with nonconsecutive subnets. However, nonconsecutive subnets typically require more passes
through the algorithm logic. If VLSM is used, at Step
2, you subtract y from the longest prefix length to start the process, again requiring many
more steps through the process.
Step 1. Count the number of subnets; then, find the smallest value of y, such that 2y
=> that number of subnets.
Step 2. For the next step, use a the longest prefix length used among the component
subnets, minus y.
Step 3. Pretend that the lowest subnet number in the list of component subnets is
an IP address. Using the new, smaller prefix from Step 2, calculate the subnet
number in which this pretend address resides.
Step 4. Repeat Step 3 for the largest numeric component subnet number and the same
prefix. If it is the same subnet derived as in Step 3, the resulting subnet is the
best summarized route, using the new prefix.
Step 5. If Steps 3 and 4 do not yield the same resulting subnet, repeat Steps 3 and 4,
with another new prefix length of 1 less than the last prefix length.

Discovering the Smallest Exclusive Summary Routes:

5 Questions
The last section of this appendix provides practice problems and answers for finding
exclusive summaries. Per Chapter 4 s conventions, an exclusive summary can include
multiple prefixes/subnets, but it can only include address ranges inside the original component prefixes/subnets.
For the following five lists of subnets, discover the set of exclusive summary routes:
1. 10.20.7.0/24, 10.20.4.0/24, 10.20.5.0/24, 10.20.6.0/24
2. 10.20.3.0/24, 10.20.4.0/24, 10.20.5.0/24, 10.20.6.0/24, 10.20.7.0/24, 10.20.8.0/24
3. 172.16.200.0/23, 172.16.204.0/23, 172.16.208.0/23, 172.16.202.0/23, 172.16.206.0/23
4. 172.16.120.0/22, 172.16.112.0/22, 172.16.124.0/22, 172.16.116.0/22
5. 192.168.1.16/29, 192.168.1.32/29, 192.168.1.24/29
The following steps are a repeat of the decimal algorithm for finding exclusive summaries
found in Chapter 4 . Remember, the process assumes that all the component subnets have
the same mask/prefix length.
Step 1. Find the best inclusive summary route; call it a candidate exclusive summary route.
Step 2. Determine whether the candidate summary includes any address ranges it
should not. To do so, compare the summarys implied address range with the
implied address ranges of the component subnets.
Step 3. If the candidate summary only includes addresses in the ranges implied by
the component subnets, the candidate summary is part of the best exclusive
summarization of the original component subnets.

Step 4. If instead the candidate summary includes some addresses matching the candidate summary routes, and some
addresses that do not match, split the current candidate summary in half, into two new candidate summary routes, each
with a prefix 1 longer than before.
Step 5. If the candidate summary only includes addresses outside the ranges implied
by the component subnets, the candidate summary is not part of the best
exclusive summarization, and it should not be split further.
Step 6. Repeat Steps 24 for each of the two possible candidate summary routes created at Step 4.

CHECK APENDIX E FOR EXERCISES