BASIC TIME-4 HOURS

1. SNT TC 1A is

a. A specification. b. A recommended practice.

c. A mandatory requirement. d. ASNT's written practice.
2. Which one of the following is the use of SNT TC 1A.
a. It ensures uniformity in personnel certification.
b. Persons are qualified to perform to the work.
c. Employers progressive improvement in NDT career.
d. All of the above.
e. Only a & b.
3. Which of the following is true about the SNT TC 1A interpretation panel.

a. Will be helpful in solving the dispute between the customer and the
supplier.
b. Will be helpful in establishing the acceptance standard for a product.
c. To get the concurrence of any company's written practice.
d. Will clarify the questions relating to the document.
e. Only c & d.
4. Level III certification through examination was introduced by ASNT only after the
year.
a. 1975. b.1968. c. 1970. d. 1984. e. 1980.
5. The third revision (1984) of SNT TC 1A contains which of the following.

a. The definition of outside agency is given in this only and not in the 2nd
revision ( 1980 out side agency provision is provided ).
b. Eddy current testing is renamed as Electromagnetic testing.
c. Re-certification duration is changed for level III from 3 years to 5 years.
d. a & c only.
e. All of the above.
6. ASNT conducts certification examinations for
a. Level I only. b. Level II only.
c. Level III only. d. For all the three levels.
e. None of the above.
7. As per SNT TC 1A, the outside agency means
a. A level III individual.
b. An engineering organization.
c. Either a or b.
d. Anybody other than ASNT.

8. Which of the following statements is true ?

a. ASNT has been providing certification examination for level III personnel
since the late 1960's.
b. SNT - TC 1A was first published in the late 1960's.
c. SNT TC 1A requires that level III personnel be qualified and certified
by ASNT.
d. SNT TC 1A was developed to satisfy requirements for NDT personnel
qualification and certification set forth in parts of the ASME boiler and
pressure vessel code.
e. All of the above statements are true.

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9. In practical usage, the recommendation of SNT TC 1A :

a. Conform precisely to the requirements of most manufacturers who have

NDT personnel.
b. Conform precisely to the requirements of most independent testing
laboratories.
c. Conform precisely to then requirements of most aircraft manufactures.
d. Conform precisely to the requirements of most boiler and pressure vessel
manufactures.
e. Usually require review and modification to satisfy the particulars needs of
any user.

10. With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer.

a. Must conduct all of the training in the premises.

b. May engage an outside service who must conduct the training on the
employer's premises.
c. Should not conduct the training, being too close to his own problems.
d. May engage an outside service but is nevertheless responsible for the
certification of his NDT personnel.

11. Who should be responsible to assess whether of not an individual should be

qualified and certified who dose perform NDT but monitors and evaluates NDT ?

a. ASNT.
b. The individual's employer.
c. The government regulatory agency.
d. The customer's auditor.
e. None of the above.

12. Which of the following statements is not true ?

a. Certification is written testimony of qualification.

b. Qualification is the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to
properly carry out the duties of a specific job.
c. The employer is the corporate or private entity which employs personnel
for wages or salary.
d. Training is a program developed to impart the knowledge and skills
necessary for qualification.

13. To which of the following NDT methods is SNT TC 1A currently applicable ?

a. Visual testing.
b. Holographic testing.
c. Acoustic emission testing.
d. Only a & c above.
e. None of the above.

14. Certification is

a. The skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly

perform the duties of a specific job.
b. Written testimony of qualification.
c. Intended to be conferred by an organization independent from the
employer.
d. Independent to be conferred on level III personnel by ASNT only.

15. Use of SNT TC 1A is mandatory when

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 a. The material being tested is for a U. S. air force contract.
b. The material being tested is for a U. S. navy contract.
c. It has been specified by the customer.
d. The material being tested is for a U. S. army contract which required
certification if NDT personnel.
e. Any of the above cases occurs.

16. The basic levels of qualification recommended by SNT TC 1A are.

a. Trainee, level I, level II, level III.

b. Trainee, apprentice, level I, level II, level III.
c. Level I, level II, level III.
d. None of the above.
17. According to written instructions, NDT level I may be qualified to perform
a. Specific calibrations.
b. Specific nondestructive tests.
c. Specific evaluations.
d. All of the above, and write reports of test results.
e. Only a, b, and c above.
18. May a level I independently perform, evaluate, and sign for result of
nondestructive tests with occasional supervision and guidance from a level II
or III.

a. Yes, the intent in SNT TC 1A is that the level I may perform the
above functions provided they are in accordance with written procedures
and so documented in the employer written practice.
b. No, the level I may perform the above functions in accordance with
written procedures, but must be under constant supervision and guidance
of a level I or level III.
c. No, the level I may not sign for test results.
d. Yes, provided that the level I receives detailed verbal instructions from
the level II or III and demonstrates his capability to follow the
instructions.

19. As recommended in SNT TC 1A, a level II

a. May conduct on the job training and guidance of level I personnel, with
the level I, training and guiding trainees.
b. Is responsible for the training and examination of level I personnel for
certification.
c. Must be capable of and responsible for establishing techniques.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true.

20. According to SNT TC 1A, which of the following is true for a level III ?

a. A level III must have successfully completed at least two years of

science or engineering study at a college or university.
b. It is desirable that a level III be a registered professional engineer.
c. The level III is responsible for establishing all acceptance criteria.
d. The level III shall be capable of evaluating test results in terms of
codes, standards, and specifications.
e. All of the above are true.

21. According to SNT TC 1A, which of the following is not true for a level III ?
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 a. Shall be capable of assisting in establishment of acceptance criteria.
b. Must train and examine the level I, and II personnel in his organization.
c. Should be familiar with other commonly used NDT methods.
d. Shall be capable of establishing techniques and selection of test
methods.
e. All of the above are true.

22. In accordance with SNT TC 1A, who is responsible for establishing a written
practices for the control and administration of NDT personnel training,
examination, and certification.

a. The NDT level III.

b. The employer.
c. ASNT.
d. An appropriate regulatory authority.
23. What factors are to be considered to ensure that a candidate for certification in
NDT has understanding of the principles and procedures involved.

a. Training, experience, and education.

b. Training, experience, and prior certifications held.
c. Education, experience, and percentage of time on the job doing NDT.
d. Training, experience and professional credentials.
e. Training, experience and familiarity with the employers product and
customer requirements.

24. As recommended in SNT TC 1A, which of the following is true?

a. Overtime cannot be considered in meeting the minimum experience.
b. Overtime can only considered if the candidate is being qualified in more
than one method simultaneously.
c. Overtime can be credited based on total hours.
d. SNT TC 1A does not currently provide a recommendation regarding
overtime.
25. For a person being qualified directly to level II with no time at level I, the
recommended experience consists of :
a. The time recommended for level I.
b. The time recommended for level II.
c. The sum of the times recommended for level I and level II.
d. Not less than 6 months for any method.
e. The sum of the times recommended for a trainee level I and level - II.
26. In some cases, the training times recommended for level I are greater than for
level II, why?
a. In preparing for qualification at level I, he candidate should always
receive more training than for level I, regardless of the NDT method.
b. Some numbers in the table are in error.
c. Candidates for level II generally have more formal education than those
for level I.
d. Some methods require more initial training at level I because of
differences in complexity and manipulative skills.

27. The recommended number of training hours in particular method are

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 a. Listed as a function of the candidates education.
b. The same regardless of the candidates education.
c. Listed as a function of the candidates experience.
d. Reduced if the candidate is being qualified in more than one method
simultaneously.
e. Increased if the candidate is not working full time in NDT.
28. Which of the following may conduct and grade examinations level I and level
II, personnel?
a. An NDT level III.
b. A selected representative of the NDT level III.
c. The ASNT, if they are offered on a regular basis.
d. All of the above.
e. Both a & b above.
29. Of the following personnel, which can administer the near distance visual acuity
examination using the reading card with Jaeger letters ?
a. An NDT level III.
b. A selected representative of the NDT level III.
c. A plant nurse, if so designated by the NDT level III.
d. All of the above.
30. Which of the following parts of level I, and level II, examinations should be
written?
a. The general and specific.
b. The general and practical.
c. The general, specific and practical.
d. Only the general.
31. The employer is responsible for certification of :
a. Level I, and level II, NDT personnel.
b. Level III personnel only.
c. Outside services.
d. All levels of NDT personnel.
e. Both b & c above.
32. What purpose is best served by maintaining certification records and the written
practice?
a. For periodic approval by ASNT.
b. To determine the effectiveness of outside services.
c. To provide documentation for review by customer, clients and regulatory
agencies.
d. To protect against product liability claims.
e. To satisfy requirements of the ASME boiler and pressure vessel codes.

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33. Which of the following statements is true concerning re-certification?
a. Re-certification can be accomplished only by re-examination at least once
every three years.
b. Re-certification can be based upon, evidence of continuing satisfactory
performance.
c. Once certified to a particular level, certification can only be terminated if
the certified individual terminates employment with the certifying
employer.
d. Re-examination of a certified individual can be accomplished only after
three gears at a particular level.
34. Which of the following types of discontinuities will not be detected by the liquid
penetrent test method ?

a. Surface laminations.
b. Internal forging bursts.
c. Surface cracks.
d. Sub-Surface cracks.

35. Water washable liquid penetrants differ from post emulsification penetrants in
that water-washable penetrants

a. Can only be used on Aluminum test specimens.

b. Need not be removed from the test surface prior to development.
c. Have a soapy base.
d. Do not need the application of emulsifier before development.

36. The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a discontinuity is primarily related to

a. The viscosity of the penetrant.

b. The capillary force.
c. The chemical inertness of the penetrant.
d. The specific gravity of the penetrant.

37. A deep crack in PT will frequently appear as a :

a. Small tight dotted indication.

b. Rounded indications.
c. Fine linear indication.
d. Faint intermittent line.

38. The sensitivity of two penetrants for crack detection is best compared by :

a. Using a hydrometer to measure specific gravity.

b. Using cracked aluminum blacks.
c. Measuring contact angles in a wetting test.
d. The meniscus test.

39. Magnetic particle inspection methods are recognized as superior to liquid

penetrant techniques when :

a. Inspecting corroded surfaces.

b. The surface is anodized.
c. The parts are painted.
d. a & c above.

40. In magnetic particle testing the factors which must be considered when
interpreting an indication are :
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 a. The direction of the magnetic field.
b. The strength of the leakage field at the indication.
c. The orientation and shape of the indication.
d. All of the above.
e. Only a & c.
41. Which of the following magnetization techniques is not recommended for
magnetic particle testing?

a. Longitudinal magnetization.
b. Circular magnetization.
c. Vector magnetization.
d. Parallel magnetization.

42. The input current requirements for MT equipment in part depend upon the :

a. Duty cycle required.

b. Shop electrical service.
c. Prod spacing required on average production part types.
d. Size of the current cables.

43. When testing by eddy current method discontinuities will be most easily detected
when eddy currents are :

a. Coplanar with the major plane of the discontinuity.

b. Perpendicular to the major plant of the discontinuity.
c. Parallel to the major plane of the discontinuity.
d. 90 degrees cut of phase with the current in the coil.

44. In Eddy Current testing tubing is generally inspected using :

a. U-shaped coil.
b. Gap coils.
c. Encircling coils.
d. None of the above.

45. Eddy Current testing relies on the principle of :

a. Magnetostriction.
b. Electromagnetic induction.
c. Piezoelectric energy conversion.
d. Magneto motive force.

46. Which of the following methods may be used to improve signal to noise ratio of
an eddy current test system?

a. Filtering or differentiation.
b. Phase discrimination.
c. Integration.
d. All of the above.

47. At a fixed frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current
penetration be greatest?

a. Aluminum ( 35% IACS Conductivity ).

b. Brass ( 15% IACS Conductivity ).
c. Copper ( 95% IACS Conductivity ).
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 d. Lead ( 7% IACS Conductivity ).

48. In Eddy Current testing, the theoretical maximum testing speed is determined by
the :

a. Magnetic flux density.

b. Testing frequency.
c. Conveyer drive.
d. Test coil impedance.

49. Neutron attenuation is greatest in which of the following materials?

a. Hydrogenous material.
b. Water.
c. Lead.
d. Boron carbide.

50. The best high intensity source of thermal neutrons is :

a. A Cf252 source.
b. An accelerator.
c. A nuclear reactor.
d. A Cf252 source plus a multiplier.

51. Conversion screen are used in neutron radiography :

a. To convert neutron energy into ionizing radiation.

b. To increase the exposure time.
c. Both (a) & (b) are reason for using conversion.
d. Neither (a) nor (b).
52. The helium mass spectrometer detector probe pressure test technique is :
a. A quantitative test.
b. A qualitative test.
c. A semi automatic test.
d. None of the above.
53. The mass spectrometer vacuum gauge that used to monitor the pressure during
the roughing cycle is called a :
a. Cold cathode discharge gauge.
b. Thermal conductivity gauge.
c. Bourdon pressure gauge.
d. Bulk pressure gauge.
54. A virtual leak is :
a. A leak that is small enough to be within the acceptance standards and
therefore does not have to be repaired.
b. A leak that is so small as to be virtually impossible to detect.
c. A leak from an isolated pocket within a vacuum system.
d. Out gassing vapors within a vacuum system.

55. In AET the location of the defect is done by :

a. Triangulation technique.
b. The rectangular technique.

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 c. The circular technique.
d. None of the above.

56. Placing the snifter probe or gun of a halogen diode leak detector in a stream of
pure refrigerant.

a. Is a rough method of checking instrument sensitivity in the absence of a

standard leak.
b. Will temporarily or permanently contaminate and shorten or end the life
of the instrument sensing element.
c. Is a method of determining the percentage of halogen compound in the
refrigerant.
d. Enables the operator to simulate background contamination.

57. Acoustic emission testing can be used :

a. To monitor the welding process during welding.

b. To detect a cluster of porosity which is allowed by the code but not
propagating.
c. For in-service inspection.
d. To detect accurately the type of flaw.
e. Only (a) & (c).

58. Small leaks can be tested by which of the following methods.

a. Liquid penetrant testing & halogen leak testing.

b. Ultrasonic testing and acoustic emission testing.
c. Helium leak testing and acoustic emission testing.
d. Helium leak testing and liquid penetrant testing.

59. Using infrared detectors it is possible :

a. To measure the temperature.

b. To detect the de-bond.
c. To find out the hot spot.
d. Only (a) & (b).
e. All of the above.

60. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of thermography testing :

a. Surface emissivity of the component under test should be known.

b. Corrections to be applied for long distance use.
c. Periodic calibration is required.
d. All of the above.
61. The sensor used in thermography testing equipment for detecting infrared
waves is :

a. Quartz.
b. Liquid nitrogen.
c. Indium antimonite.
d. Barium titan ate.

62. The total radiant power emitted by a black body can be obtained from :

a. Plancks law.
b. Stefan boatzman relation.
c. Weins law.

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 d. None of the above.

63. The wavelength of infrared radiation from a body can be determined.

a. Plancks law.
b. Stefan broltzman relation.
c. Weins law.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

64. Infrared measurements for NDT are normally carried out in the wavelength
region.

a. 2 5.6 microns.
b. 8 14 microns.
c. 16 32 microns.
d. a & c above.
e. All of the above.

65. The main absorbing molecules in the atmosphere, which attenuates IR

maximum.

a. O2, CO2, H2O.

b. O2, N2, H2 and CO2.
c. O2, N2, H2O and UV.
d. N2, H2O, AR and O2.
e. Varies from one site to another.

66. The main advantage theromgraphy over other contact temperature

measurements methods is :

a. It is fast and safe.

b. It is non contact and presents an instantaneous view of the entire field
covered.
c. It can be used for HV voltage lines.
d. Less wear and tear.

67. In acoustic holography, the measured variables are :

a. Intensity only.
b. Intensity and phase.
c. Intensity, transmit time, phase and echo.
d. Transmit time only.
68. In optical holography the light source used in :

a. Helium neon laser.

b. Ruby laser.
c. Neodymium laser.
d. All of the above.
e. Only a & b.

69. Single transducers are:

a. Transmitters only.
b. Receivers only.
c. Both transmitter and receiver.
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 d. a, b and c.

70. In the adjacent figure, zone A is called the :

a. Near Zone.
b. Far Zone.
c. Irregular Zone.
d. Free field.

71. Ultrasonic testing of castings is often not possible because of :

a. rough surfaces.
b. Small grain structure.
c. Coarse grain structure.
d. Irregular shape.

72. Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest
ultrasonic attenuation losses?

a. 1.0 mHz.
b. 2.25 mHz.
c. 10 mHz.
d. 25 mHz.

73. Beam divergence is a function of the dimensions of the crystal and the
wavelength of the beam transmitted through medium and :

a. Increased if frequency or crystal diameter is decreases.

b. Decreases if frequency or crystal diameter is decreases.
c. Increased if frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased.
d. Decreases if frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased.

74. When using a part with a rough surface, it is generally advisable to use :

a. A lower frequency search unit and more viscous couplant than is used on
parts with a smooth surface.
b. Higher frequency search unit and a more viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.
c. A lower frequency search unit and a less viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.
d. A lower frequency search unit and a less viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.

75. Irrelevant or false indications from contoured surfaces are likely to result in a :

a. Broad based indication.

b. Peaked indication.
c. Hashy signal.
d. Narrow based indication.

76. A couplant is used in Ultrasonic testing to :

a. Lubricate the transducer and facilitate scanning.

b. Exclude air in between the transducer and test specimen.
c. Accelerate the passage of sound through a test specimen.

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 d. Dampen the transducer vibrations to avoid possible damage to a test
specimen.

77. Ultrasonic sound is usually described as sound :

a. Which may or may not be heard by human ear.

b. Too high to be heard by human ear.
c. Too low to be heard by human ear.
d. Which can be heard in the audible range only.

78. In order to find the smallest discontinuities during a test :

a. Use the lowest frequency possible.

b. Use the highest frequency possible.
c. Use through transmission testing.
d. Use a small transducer.

79. An ultrasonic longitudinal wave travels in aluminum with a velocity of

635,000cm/sec and has a frequency of one megacycle. The wavelength of this
ultrasonic wave is :

a. 6.35 feet.
b. 3.10 inches.
c. 6.35 millimeters.
d. 30,000 angstrom units.

80. In SI units the unit used to measure radiation absorption by humans is :

a. Gray.
b. Rem.
c. Roentgen.
d. Becquerel.

81. The pocket dosimeter has the advantage of :

a. Being more accurate than the film badge.

b. Providing a permanent record of radiation exposure.
c. Providing an immediate indication of radiation exposure.
d. All of the above.

82. The inverse square law as applied to radiation protection states that :

a. Radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the time spent near
the focal spot.
b. Radiation intensity varies proportionally with distance from the focal spot.
c. Radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of distance from the
focal spot.
d. None of the above.

83. What is the one requirement that every radiographic film base must have ?

a. Flexibility.
b. Transparency.
c. Toughness.

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 d. Fine grains.

84. An image quality indicator is used to determine the :

a. Size of a discontinuity in the part.

b. Density of the film.
c. Radiographic contrast.
d. Quality of the radiographic technique.

85. A lead foil screen acts as an intensifying screen because of the :

a. Short wave length radiation absorbed by the screen.

b. Elimination of back scatter generated by the floor.
c. Decreased photographic action on the film.
d. Electrons emitted from film side of the screen.

86. The tube current applied to an X Ray unit controls :

a. The penetrating power of the radiation.

b. The quantity of radiation.
c. The focal spot size.
d. Both (a) & (b) above.

87. The term fog level refers to :

a. The level of smoke in the atmosphere.

b. The density of an area of radiographic film accidentally exposed to light.
c. The density in an unexposed area of film after development.
d. None of the above.

88. Which of the following statements best differentiates between a defect and a
discontinuity?

a. Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.

b. All discontinuities are defects.
c. All defects will lead to failure if undetected; discontinuities can be
harmless.
d. Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only: defects are internal
flaws originating from errors in processing.
89. Which of the following describes a function of NDT?
a. Identification and sorting of material.
b. Identification of material properties.
c. Assuring absence of faults or defects that could cause a part to fail.
d. All of the above.
90. Material properties as used in design are most frequently determined by :
a. Theoretical analysis.
b. Material testing.
c. The national bureau of standards.
d. Fracture mechanics testing.

91. An important basis for the success of fracture control design procedures is :
a. That all flaws are detected by NDT or proof testing before the component
enters service.
b. Is the use of large factor of safety?
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 c. Is the use of a value of strength that the material used in the design is
presumed to possess?
d. The need to assure that unexpected flaws of some critical size are not
present when the component enters service.
e. All of the above.
92. If properly utilized, NDT can assist in fracture control by :
a. Accurately measuring the tensile strength of design materials providing
an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist
in a material.
b. Providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of
discontinuities that exist in a material.
c. Predicting the time it will take a given size discontinuity to grow to a
critical size.
d. All of the above.
93. Even at the early stages of product planning, nondestructive testing should be
considered because :
a. It may be required by codes and specification.
b. The design of the part should permit easy access to critical areas for later
inspection.
c. The material selected should be compatible with a NDT technique that
can accurately evaluate the product.
d. All of the above are important.
94. Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of
aluminum-based alloys and iron based alloys ?
a. Iron has lower melting point than aluminum.
b. Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures, and its properties
can be controlled by heat treatment.
c. Iron is preferred in load carrying designs, but it should not be used for any
deformation type of manufacturing process.
d. All of the above.
95. Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a newly developed alloy in order
to determine the ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests are referred
to as:
a. Indirect tests.
b. Physical properties.
c. Destructive tests.
d. Proof tests.
96. On the diagram below, point B is called the:

a. Elastic range.
b. Elastic limit.
c. Yield point.
d. Modulus of elasticity.

97. In the preceding figure, which of the following ranges indicate the effect of work-
hardening (to its maximum) caused by plastic flow of the material during a
tensile load?

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 a. A B.
b. B C.
c. C D.
d. D E.
e. E F.
98. The modulus of elasticity, or youngs modulus, is measure of the materials
relative :
a. Tensile strength.
b. Compressive strength.
c. Resistance to stress.
d. Stiffness.
e. Yield strength.
99. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by utilizing NDT to :

a. Verify the cyclic loading on a component part.

b. Detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers.
c. Measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing cyclic stresses.
d. Determine percent elongation of a material before it is placed in service.

100. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond
the elastic limit. This effect is called.

a. Twinning. b. Plastic deformation.

c. Work hardening. d. Recrystallization.
e. Age hardening.
101. The terms body-centered cubic, face-centered cubic, and hexagonal
close-packed all refer to the :

a. Different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic
structure.
b. Sequence of crystalline growth in typical mild steel.
c. Lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure.
d. Change in a metallic structure as it undergoes plastic deformation.

102. Processes called austenitizing, annealing, normalizing and spheroidizing are

a. Performed only on non-ferrous metals.

b. Approximate equilibrium heat-treatment processes.
c. Cold-working processes.
d. Age-hardening processes.

103. The terms precipitation hardening and solution heat treatment are often
used interchangeably with the term

a. Age hardening.
b. Recrystallization.
c. Annealing.
d. Work hardening.
e. Plasticizing.

104. An NDT method that has the ability to measure changes in electrical
conductivity caused by the effects of heat treatment is :

a. Magnetic particle testing.

15
 b. Acoustic emission testing.
c. Eddy current testing.
d. Immersion ultrasonic testing.
e. All of the above.

105. When a steel has been quench-hardened and is reheated to some point
below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose of reducing
brittleness, this is called:
a. Austenitization.
b. Thermal slip deformation.
c. Allotropic change.
d. Tempering.
106. Annealing is usually performed to:
a. Decrease hardness.
b. Increase ductility.
c. Relieve stress.
d. Both (a) and (b) above.
e. All of the above.
107. The reduction of iron are by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for
combustion of the coke is accomplished in :
a. A blast furnace.
b. An open-hearth furnace.
c. A bessemer converter.
d. A basic oxygen furnace.
108. Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in :
a. An electric furnace.
b. An open-hearth furnace.
c. A bessermer furnace.
d. A basic oxygen furnace.
109. What percentage of carbon is found in steel?
a. Between 3 and 4 %.
b. Between 2 and 3 %.
c. Less than 0.2 %.
d. Less than 2 %.
110. An undesirable by-product of steel-making processes is :
a. Coke.
b. Low carbon steel.
c. Low alloy steel.
d. Slag.
111. Low carbon steel contains approximately :
a. 0.6 % to 2.5 % carbon.
b. 0.06 to 0.25 % carbon.
c. 0.5 % to 1.06 % carbon.
d. 5 % to 16 % carbon.

112. Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and

chromium are called:

a. Wright Iron.
b. Low alloy steels.
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 c. Stainless steels.
d. Nonferrous steels.

113. Brass and bronze are alloys of zink tin, and a large percentage of :

a. Beryllium.
b. Copper.
c. Lead.
d. Nickel.

114. Monel and Inconel are:

a. Nickel alloys.
b. Steel alloys.
c. Magnesium alloys.
d. Aluminum alloys.
e. Copper alloys.

115. A high strength, low density, corrosion resistant metal alloy of significance in
the aircraft, marine, and chemical processing industries is :

a. Tungsten.
b. Zinc.
c. Titanium.
d. Magnesium.

116. Based on the ratio of strength to weight :

a. To plastic materials can compare with metals.

b. Some plastic, including nylon, may have strengths greater than some
steels.
c. Plastics, as a group, are superior in strength to most ferrous metals.
d. None of the above are true.

117. Which of the following is true regarding solidification of molten metal in a

casting mold ?

a. The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing fine equiaxed grains
throughout.
b. Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different
types of grain structure in different sections of the casting.
c. Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning at the interior of the
casting and progressing outward.
d. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than thin sections consist mostly
of fine equiaxed grains.
118. Large voids or porosity in a casting results from :

a. Turbulent flow of the molten metal during pouring.

b. Alloy element segregation.
c. Molten metal boiling because of superheat.
d. Gas evolution before and during solidification.

119. The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting that occurs when molten
metal interfaces with already solidified metal with failure to fuse at the interface
is :

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 a. Hot tear.
b. Cold shut.
c. Lack of fusion.
d. Segregation.
120. A casting process used to produce hollow products like large pipes and hollow
shafts is :

a. Investment casting.
b. Blow casting.
c. Core casting.
d. Central casting.

121. Metallurgical effects in a weld, such as grain size variation and shrinkage, are
similar to those that occur in :

a. Forgings.
b. Castings.
c. Extrusions.
d. Central fungal casting.

122. After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more uniform
properties between the weld and base metal and to relieve stress. Which heat
treatment method is often used following welding ?

a. Tempering.
b. Martensitic.
c. Normalizing.
d. Spheroidizing.

123. Welds and weldments have been known to develop cracks long after cooling
but prior to being used in service what is the principal cause for such cracks ?

a. Accelerated corrosion at high temperature.

b. Scattered porosity in the weld.
c. Improper selection in the weld.
d. Excessive residual stresses.

124. Which of the following welding processes uses a non-consumables elecrodes

with the arc maintained in an atmosphere of inert gas :
a. Gas tungsten arc welding.
b. Submerged arc welding.
c. Gas metal arc welding.
d. Electroslag welding.
125. Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide
an inert atmosphere in the vicinity of the weld ?
a. Argon, helium and carbon dioxide.
b. Neon, tritium, and helium.
c. Sulphur dioxide, argon, and oxygen.
d. Argon, nitrogen, and hydrogen.
126. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types ?
a. Shallow, deep, and intermittent.

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 b. Longitudinal, transverse and oxygen.
c. Laminar, through and oblique.
d. Longitudinal, laminar and intermittent.
127. Wrought products invariably exhibit.
a. High susceptibility to corrosion.
b. Lower strength than their cast counterparts.
c. Directional properties.
d. Poor weldability.
e. Poor surface finishes unless machined.
128. Which of the following would have least ductility ?
a. Cold-rolled steel plate.
b. Hot-rolled steel plate.
c. Gray cast iron.
d. Hot-rolled aluminum plate.
129. A nondestructive testing technique best suited to locating discontinuities
caused by inclusions rolled into steel plate is :
a. Radiographic inspection.
b. Ultrasonic inspection.
c. Visual inspection.
d. Magnetic particle inspection.
130.Which of the following statements is true concerning deformation processes ?
a. Hot working usually follows a cold working.
b. Hot working must be followed by heat treatment.
c. Hot working materials must be cold worked before they can be used.
d. Cold working usually follows hot working.
e. Cold working renders brittle materials more ductile.

131. Slabs blooms and billets are:

a. The three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the
production of products such as angle iron and channel iron.
b. The shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary
operations.
c. Types of defects that occurs during the hot rolling of steel.
d. The three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations.

132. The mill working process performed principally on flat products and bars that
improves hardness, strength, surface finish and dimensional accuracy is :

a. Cold rolling.
b. Hot rolling.
c. Forging.
d. Extrusion.
e. Sintering.

133. Most steel pipe is produced by forming and :

a. Drawing.

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 b. Welding.
c. Extrusion.
d. Casting.
e. Pressing.

134. Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages in metals processing. One
is the capability to product shapes and objects of refractory metals that are
extremely difficult or impractical to melt, the other is to:

a. Economical produce metals with extremely low melting temperatures.

b. Produce metal shapes with controlled porosity.
c. Produce metals that can be easily machined by electro chemical processes.
d. Produce metals that are corrosion resistant.

135. A welding process that is most frequently carried out in a vacuum chamber is:

a. Plasma arc welding.

b. Electron-beam welding.
c. Electroslag welding.
d. Friction welding.
e. None of the above.

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