FOROUZAN

DATA COMMUNICATIONS and NETWORKING
3rd Edition by BEHROUZ A. FOROUZAN

Chapter 1: Introduction
1. The __________ is the physical path over
which a message travels
a. Protocol
b. Medium
c. Signal
d. All of the above
2. The information to be communicated in a
data system is the ___________.
a. Medium
b. Protocol
c. Message
d. Transmission
8. In a network with 25 computers, which

topology would require the most extensive
cabling?
a. Mesh
b. Star
c. Bus
d. Ring
9. A television broadcast is an example of
______________ transmission.
a. Simplex
b. Half-duplex
c. Full-duplex
d. Automatic
3. Frequency of failure and network recovery

time after a failure are measures of the
__________ of a network.
a. Performance
b. Reliability
c. Security
d. Feasibility
10. A ______________ connection provides a

dedicated link between two devices.
a. Point-to-point
b. Multipoint
c. Primary
d. Secondary
4. An unauthorized user is a network

__________ issue.
a. Performance
b. Reliability
c. Security
d. All of the above
11. In a _______________ connection, more than

two devices can share a single link.
a. Point-to-point
b. Multipoint
c. Primary
d. Secondary
5. Which topology requires a central controller

or hub?
a. Mesh
b. Star
c. Bus
d. Ring
12. In _______________ transmission, the

channel capacity is shared by both
communicating devices at all times.
a. Simplex
b. Half-duplex
c. Full-duplex
d. Half-simplex
6. Which topology requires a multipoint

connection?
a. Mesh
b. Star
c. Bus
d. Ring
7. Communication between a computer and a
keyboard involves _________________
transmission.
a. Simplex
b. Half-duplex
c. Full-duplex
d. Automatic
13. A cable break in a _____________ topology

stops all transmission.
a. Mesh
b. Bus
c. Star
d. Primary
14. Which organization has authority over
interstate and international commerce in the
communications field?
a. ITU-T
b. IEEE
c. FCC
d. ISO

Chapter 2: Network Models
1. The Internet model consists of _________
layers.
a. Three
b. Five
c. Seven
d. Eight
8. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and

the _____________ layer.
a. Network
b. Data link
c. Transport
d. None of the above
2. The process-to-process delivery of the entire

message is the responsibility of the ___________
layer.
a. Network
b. Transport
c. Application
d. Physical
9. When data are transmitted from device A to

device B, the header from As layer 4 is read by
Bs ___________ layer.
a. Physical
b. Transport
c. Application
3. The __________ layer is the layer closest to

the transmission medium.
a. Physical
b. Data link
c. Network
d. Transport
10. The ____________ layer changes bits into

electromagnetic signals.
a. Physical
b. Data link
c. Transport
4. Mail services are available to network users

through the __________ layer.
a. Data link
b. Physical
c. Transport
d. Application
11. The physical layer is concerned with the

transmission of _____________ over the physical
medium.
a. Programs
b. Dialogs
c. Protocols
d. Bits
5. As the data packet moves from the lower to

the upper layers, headers are ________.
a. Added
b. Subtracted
c. Rearranged
d. Modified
6. As the data packet moves from the upper to
the lower layers, headers are __________.
a. Added
b. Removed
c. Rearranged
d. Modified
7. The __________ layer lies between the network
layer and the application layer.
a. Physical
b. Data link
c. Transport
12. Which layer functions as a liaison between

user support layers and network support
layers?
a. Network layer
b. Physical layer
c. Transport layer
d. Application layer
13. What is the main function of the transport
layer?
a. Node-to-node delivery
b. Process-to-process delivery
c. Synchronization
d. Updating and maintenance of routing
tables
14. Which of the following is an application
layer service?
a. Remote log-in
b. File transfer and access
c. Mail service
d. All of the above

Chapter 3: Signals
1. Before data can be transmitted, they must be
transformed to _____________.
a. Periodic signals
b. Electromagnetic signals
c. Aperiodic signals
d. Low-frequency sine waves
8. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is

a measure of _______________.
a. Signal amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Time
2. A periodic signal completes one cycle in

0.001 seconds. What is the frequency?
a. 1 Hz
b. 100 Hz
c. 1 kHz
d. 1 MHz
9. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the

lowest frequency is 52 kHz, what is the highest
frequency?
a. 5 kHz
b. 10 kHz
c. 47 kHz
d. 57 kHz
3. Which of the following can be determined

from a frequency-domain graph of a signal?
a. Frequency
b. Phase
c. Power
d. All of the above
4. Which of the following can be determined
from a frequency-domain graph of a signal?
a. Bandwidth
b. Phase
c. Power
d. All of the above
5. In a frequency-domain plot, the vertical axis
measures the _____________.
a. Peak amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Slope
6. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal
axis measures the _____________.
a. Peak amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Slope
7. In a time-domain plot, the vertical axis is a
measure of _______________.
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Time
10. What is the bandwidth of a signal that

ranges from 40 kHz to 4 MHz?
a. 36 MHz
b. 360 kHz
c. 3.96 MHz
d. 396 kHz
11. When one of the components of a signal has
a frequency of zero, the average amplitude of
the signal ____________.
a. Is greater than zero
b. Is less than zero
c. Is zero
d. A or B
12. A periodic signal can always be decomposed
into ______________.
a. Exactly an odd number of sine waves
b. A set of sine waves
c. A set of sine waves, one of which must
have a phase of 0o
13. As frequency increase, the period
____________.
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same
d. Doubles
14. Given two sine waves A and B, if the
frequency of A is twice that of B, then the
period of B is ______________ that of A.
a. One-half
b. Twice
c. The same as
d. Indeterminate from

Chapter 3: Signals
15. A
a.
b.
c.
d.
sine wave is _______________.

Periodic and continuous
Aperiodic and continuous
Periodic and discrete
Aperiodic and discrete
16. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is

2 V, the minimum amplitude is ____________ V.
a. 2
b. 1
c. -2
d. Between -2 and 2
17. A signal is measured at two different points.
The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the
second point. The dB is 0. This means
_______________.
a. P2 is zero
b. P2 equals P1
c. P2 is much larger than P1
d. P2 is much smaller than P1
18. _______________ is a type of transmission
impairment in which the signal loses strength
due to the resistance of the transmission
medium.
a. Attenuation
b. Distortion
c. Noise
d. Decibel
19. _______________ is a type of transmission
impairment in which the signal loses strength
due to the different propagation speeds of each
frequency that makes up the signal.
a. Attenuation
b. Distortion
c. Noise
d. Decibel
20. ______________ is a type of transmission
impairment in which an outside source such as
crosstalk corrupts a signal.
a. Attenuation
b. Distortion
c. Noise
d. Decibel
21. The ____________ has units of

meters/second or kilometers/second.
a. Throughput
b. Propagation speed
c. Propagation time
d. B or C
22. ___________ has units of bits/second.
a. Throughput
c. Propagation time
d. B or C
23. The ___________ has units of second.
a. Throughput
c. Propagation time
d. B or C
24. When propagation speed is multiplied by
propagation time, we get the _____________.
a. Throughput
b. Wavelength of the signal
c. Distortion factor
d. Distance a signal or bit has traveled.
25. Propagation time is ____________
proportional to distance and ___________
proportional to propagation speed.
a. Inversely; directly
b. Directly; inversely
c. Inversely; inversely
d. Directly; directly
26. Wavelength is __________ proportional to
propagation speed and __________ proportional
to period.
a. Inversely; directly
b. Directly; inversely
c. Inversely; inversely
d. Directly; directly
27. The wavelength of a signal depends on the
______________.
a. Frequencies of the signal
b. Medium
c. Phase of the signal
d. A and B

Chapter 3: Signals
28. The wavelength of green light in air is
_________ the wavelength of green light in fiberoptic cable.
a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
29. Using the Shannon formula to calculate the
data rate for a given channel, if C = B, then
__________.
a. The signal is less than the noise
b. The signal is greater than the noise
c. The signal is equal to the noise
d. Not enough information is given to
answer the question

Chapter 4: Digital Transmission
1. Unipolar, bipolar and polar encoding are
types of _______ encoding
a. Line
b. Block
c. NRZ
d. Manchester
2. If a symbol is composed of 3 bits, there are
__________ data levels.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
3. Pulse rate is always ______ the bit rate
a. Greater than
b. Less than
c. Greater than or equal to
d. Less than or equal to
4. ________ encoding has a transition at the
middle of each bit.
a. RZ
b. Manchester
c. Differential Manchester
d. All the above
5. ________ encoding has a transition at the
beginning of each 0 bit.
a. RZ
b. Manchester
c. Differential Manchester
d. All the above
6. PCM is an example of ______ conversion.
a. Digital-to-digital
b. Digital-to-analog
c. Analog-to-analog
d. Analog-to-Digital
7. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has
bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency
at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate,
according to the Nyquist theorem?
a. 200 samples/s
b. 500 samples/s
c. 1000 samples/s
d. 1200 samples/s
8. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum

sampling rate to be _______.
a. Equal to the lowest frequency of a signal
b. Equal to the highest frequency of a
signal
c. Twice the bandwidth of a signal
d. Twice the highest frequency of a
signal
9. One factor in the accuracy of a reconstructed
PCM signal is the __________.
a. Signal bandwidth
b. Carrier frequency
c. Number of bits used for quantization
d. Baud rate
10. Which encoding type always has nonzero
average amplitude
a. Unipolar
b. Polar
c. Bipolar
d. All the above
11. Which of the following encoding methods
does not provide for synchronization?
a. NRZ-L
b. RZ
c. NRZ-I
d. Manchester
12. Which encoding method uses alternating
positive and negative values for 1s?
a. NRZ-I
b. RZ
c. Manchester
d. AMI
13. In PCM, an analog-to-____________
conversion occurs.
a. Analog
b. Digital
c. QAM
d. Differential
14. If the maximum value of a PCM signal is 31
and the minimum value is -31, how many bits
were used for conding?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

Chapter 4: Digital Transmission
15. RZ encoding involves _________ signal levels.
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
16. Which quantization level results in a more
faithful reproduction of the signal
a. 2
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
17. Which encoding technique attempts to solve
the loss of synchronization due to long strings
of 0s.
a. BnZS
b. NRZ
c. AMI
d. (a) and (b)
18. Block coding can help in __________ at the
receiver.
a. Synchronizations
b. Error detection
c. Attenuation
d. (a) and (b)
19. In ____________ transmission, bits are
transmitted simultaneously, each across its
own wire.
a. Asynchronous serial
b. Synchronous serial
c. Parallel
d. (a) and (b)
20. In ________ transmission, bits are
transmitted over a single wire, one at a time.
c. Parallel
d. (a) and (b)
21. In __________ transmission, a start bit and
stop bit frame a character byte.
c. Parallel
d. (a) and (b)
22. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time

between bytes is ________.
a. Fixed
b. Variable
c. A function of the data rate
d. Zero
23. Synchronous transmission does not have
__________.
a. A start bit
b. A stop bit
c. Gaps between bytes
d. All the above

Chapter 5: Analog Transmission
1. ASK, PSK, FSK nad QAM are examples of
__________ modulation.
a. Digital-to-analog
c. Analog-to-analog
d. Analog-to-digital
2. AM and FM are examples of ___________
modulation.
a. Digital-to-analof
c. Analog-to-analog
d. Analog-to-digital
3. In QAM, both phase and ____________ of a
carrier frequency are varied.
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Bit rate
d. Baud rate
4. Which of the following is most affected by
noise?
a. PSK
b. ASK
c. FSK
d. QAM
5. If the baud rate is 400 for a 4-PSK signal, the
bit rate is _________ bps.
a. 100
b. 400
c. 800
d. 1600
6. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps,
the baud rate is __________.
a. 300
b. 400
c. 600
d. 1200
7. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps,
the baud rate is __________.
a. 300
b. 400
c. 600
d. 1200
8. If the bit rate for a QAM signal is 3000 bps

and a signal unit is represented by a tribit,
what is the baud rate?
a. 300
b. 400
c. 1000
d. 1200
9. If the baud rate for a QAM signal is 3000 and
a signal unit is represented by a tribit, what is
the bit rate?
a. 300
b. 400
c. 1000
d. 9000
10. If the baud rate for a QAM signal is 1800
anf the bit rate is 9000, how many bits are
there per signal unit?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
11. In 16-QAM, there are 16 __________.
a. Combination of phase and amplitude
b. Amplitudes
c. Phases
d. Bps
12. Which modulation technique involves
tribits, eight different phase shifts, and one
amplitude?
a. FSK
b. 8-PSK
c. ASK
d. 4-PSK
13. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth
of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency
component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of
the carrier signal?
a. 700 KHz
b. 705 KHz
c. 710 KHz
d. Cannot be determined from given
information

14. A modulated signal is formed by ________.
a. Changing the modulating signal by the
carrier wave
b. Changing the carrier wave by the
modulating signal
c. Quantization of the source data
d. Sampling at the Nyquist frequency
20. For a telephone line, the bandwidth for

voice is usually _________ the bandwidth for
data.
a. Equivalent to
b. Less than
c. Greater than
d. Twice
15. If FCC regulations are followed, the carrier

frequencies of adjacent AM radio station are
_________ apart.
a. 5 KHz
b. 10 KHz
c. 200 KHz
d. 530 KHz
21. For a given bit rate, the minimum

bandwidth for ASK is ______ the minimum
bandwidth for FSK.
a. Equivalent to
b. Less than
c. Greater than
d. Twice
16. If FCC regulations are followed, ___________

potential FM stations are theoretically possible
in a given area.
a. 50
b. 100
c. 133
d. 150
22. As the bit rate of an FSK signal increases,

the bandwidth ___________.
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same
d. Doubles
17. When an ASK signal is decomposed, the

result is _____________.
a. Always one sine wave
b. Always two sine waves
c. An infinite number of sine waves
23. For FSK, as the difference between the two

carrier frequencies increases, the bandwidth
________.
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same
d. Halves
18. The bandwidth of an FM signal requires 10

times the bandwidth of the __________ signal.
a. Carrier
b. Modulating
c. Bipolar
d. Sampling
24. Which ITU-T modems standard uses trellis

coding
a. V.32
b. V.33
c. V.34
d. (a) and (b)
19. Modulation of an analog signal can be

accomplished through changing the ______ of
the carrier signal.
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Any of the above
25. In trellis coding the number of data bits is

_________ the number of transmitted bits.
a. Equal to
b. Less than
c. More than
d. Double that of
26. What is the object of trellis coding?
a. To narrow the bandwidth
b. To simplify modulation
c. To increases the data rate
d. To reduce the error rate

27. The bit rate always equal the baud rate in
which type of signal?
a. FSK
b. QAM
c. 4-PSK
d. All the above
28. A modulator converts a(n) _________ signal
to a(n) ____________ signal.
a. Digital; analog
b. Analog; digital
c. PSK; FSK
d. FSK; PSK
29. A 56K modem can download at a rate of
___________ Kbps and upload at a rate of
______________ Kbps.
a. 33.6; 33.6
b. 33.6; 56.3
c. 56.6; 33.6
d. 56.6; 56.6

Chapter 6: Multiplexing
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two
more devices is called ______.
a. Modulation
b. Encoding
c. Line Encoding
d. Multiplexing
2. Which multiplexing technique transmits
analog signals?
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. WDM
d. (a) and (c)
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits
digital signals?
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. WDM
4. Which multiplexing technique shifts each
signal to a different carrier frequency?
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. Both (a) and (b)
5. In TDM, for n signal sources of the same
data rate, each frame contains __________ slots.
a. n
b. n + 1
c. n 1
d. 0 to n
6. In TDM. The transmission rate of the
multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of
the transmission rate of the signal sources.
a. Greater than
b. Less than
c. Equal to
d. 1 less than
7. In AT&Ts FDM hierarchy, the bandwidth of

each group type can be found by multiplying
______ and adding extra bandwidth for guard
bands.
a. The number of voice channels by 4000
Hz
b. The sampling rate by 4000 Hz
c. The number of voice channels by 8 bits/
sample
d. The sampling rate by 8 bits/sample
8. DS-1 through DS-4 are __________ while T-1
through T-4 ___________.
a. Services; multiplexers
b. Services; signals
c. Services; lines
d. Multiplexers; signals
9. In a T-1 line, ____________ interleaving
occurs.
a. Bit
b. Byte
c. DS-0
d. Switch
10. Guard bands increase the bandwidth for
____________.
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. Both (a) and (b)
11. Which multiplexing technique involves
signals composed of light bemas?
a. FDM
b. TDM
c. WDM

Chapter 7: Transmission Media
1. Transmission media are usually categorized
as _____.
a. Fixed or unfixed
b. Guided or unguided
c. Determinate and indeterminate
d. Metallic and nonmetallic
8. Which of the following primarily uses guided

media?
a. Cellular telephone system
b. Local Telephone System
c. Satellite communications
d. Radio Broadcasting
2. Transmission media are closest to the ______

layer
a. Physical
b. Network
c. Transport
d. Application
9. Which of the following is not a guided

medium?
a. Twisted-pair cable
b. Coaxial cable
c. Fiber-Optic Cable
d. Atmosphere
3. Category 1 UTP cable is most often used in

_____ networks.
a. Fast Ethernet
b. Traditional Ethernet
c. Infrared
d. Telephone
10. In an environment with many high-voltage

devices, the best transmission medium would
be _____.
b. Coaxial cable
c. Optical cable
d. The Atmosphere
4. BNC connectors are used by _____ cables.

a. UTP
b. STP
c. Coaxial
d. Fiber-Optic
5. _____ cable consists of an inner copper and a
second conducting outer sheath.
a. Twisted pair
b. Coaxial
c. Fiber-Optic
d. Shielded twisted pair
6. In fiber optics, the signal source is _____
waves.
a. Light
b. Radio
c. Infrared
d. Very low-frequency
7. Smoke signal are example of communication
though _____.
a. A guided medium
b. An unguided medium
c. A refractive medium
d. A small or large medium
11. What is the major factor that makes

coaxial-cable less susceptible to noise than
twisted-pair cable?
a. Inner conductor
b. Diameter of cable
c. Outer conductor
d. Insulating material
12. The RG number gives us information about
_____.
a. Twisted pairs
b. Coaxial cable
c. Optical fibers
d. All of the above
13. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _____
the cladding.
a. Denser than
b. Less dense than
c. The same density as
d. Another name for
14. The inner core of an optical fiber is _____ in
composition.
a. Glass or plastic
b. Copper
c. Bimetalic
d. Liquid

Chapter 7: Transmission Media
15. Optical fibers, unlike wire media, are highly
resistant to _____.
a. High-frequency transmission
b. Low-frequency transmission
c. Electromagnetic interference
d. Refraction
21. When we talk about unguided media,

usually we are referring to _____.
a. Metallic wires
b. Nonmetallic wires
c. The air
16. When a beam of light travels through media

of two different densities, if the angle of
incidence is greater than the critical angle,
_____ occurs.
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Incidence
d. Criticism
22. Radio wave and microwave frequencies

range from ______.
a. 3 to 300 KHz
b. 300 KHz to 300 GHz
c. 3 KHz to 300 GHz
d. 3 KHz to 3000 GHz
17. When the angle of incidence is _____ the

critical angle, the light beam bends along the
interface.
a. More than
b. Less than
c. Equal to
18. In _____ propagation, the beam of
propagated light is almost horizontal, and the
low-density core has a small diameter
compared to the cores of the other propagation
modes.
a. Multimode step-index
b. Multiple graded-index
c. Multimode single-index
d. Single-mode
19. _____ is the propagation method subject to
the greatest distortion.
b. Multimode Graded-index
c. Multiple single-index
d. Single-mode
20. In _____ propagation, the core is varying
densities.
b. Multimode graded-index
c. Multimode single-index
d. Single-mode
23. In _____ propagation, low frequency radio

waves hug the earth.
a. Ground
b. Sky
c. Line of sight
d. Space
24. The VLF and LF bands use _____
propagation for communications.
a. Ground
b. Sky
c. Line of sight
d. Space
25. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _____
antenna.
a. Omnidirectional
b. Bidirectional
c. Unidirectional
d. Horn
26. The _____ is an association that sponsors
the use of infrared waves.
a. IrDA
b. EIA
c. FCC
d. PUD

Chapter 8: Circuit Switching and Telephone
Networks
1. The _____ is a device that connects n inputs
to m outputs.
a. Crosspoint
b. Crossbar
c. Modem
d. RAM
7. Which of the following is a time-division

switch ?
a. TSI
b. TDM bus
c. Crosspoint
d. (a) and (b)
2. How many crosspoints are needed in a

single-stage switch with 40 inputs and 40
outputs?
a. 40
b. 50
c. 90
d. 2000
8. In a time-division switch a _____ governs the

destination of a packet stored in RAM.
a. TDM Bus
b. Crosspoint
c. Crosbar
d. Control Unit
3. In a crossbar with 1000 crosspoints,

approximately how many are in use at any
time?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 1000
4. The _____ of a TSI controls the order of
delivery of slot values that are stored in RAM.
a. Crossbar
b. Crosspoint
c. Control unit
d. Transceiver
5. In _____ circuit switching, delivery of data is
delayed because data must be stored and
retrieved from RAM.
a. Space-division
b. Time-Division
c. Virtual
d. Packet
6. To create a _____, combine crossbar switches
in stages.
a. Multistage switch
b. Crosspoint
c. Packet Switch
d. TSI
9. A telephone network is an example of _____

network.
a. Message Switch
b. Packet Switched
c. Circuit Switched
10. The local loop has _____ cable that
connects the subscriber telephone to the
nearest end office.
a. Twisted-Pair
b. Coaxial
c. Fiber-Optic
d. (b) and (c)
11. Trunks are transmission media such as
_____ the handle the telephone communication
between offices.
b. Fiber-optic cable
c. Satellite links
d. (b) and (c)
12. The established telephone company that
provided services in a LATA before 1966 and
owns the cabling system is called _____.
a. An ILEC
b. A CLEC
c. An IXC
d. A POP

Chapter 8: Circuit Switching and Telephone
Networks
13. A new telephone company that provides
services in a LATA after 1966 is called _____.
a. An ILEC
b. A CLEC
c. An IXC
d. A POP
14. The telephone service handled between two
LATAs is called _____.
a. An ILEC
b. A CLEC
c. An IXC
d. A POP
15. If the end office receives two bursts of
analog signals with frequencies of 697 and
1477 Hz, then the number _____ has been
punched.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
16. Data from a computer are _____: the local
loop handles _____ signals.
a. Analog; analog
b. Analog; digital
c. Digital; digital
d. Digital; analog
17. A traditional telephone line has bandwidth
of _____.
a. 2000 Hz
b. 4000 Hz
c. 2000 MHz
d. 4000 Mhz

Chapter 9: High Speed Digital Access
1._____ has a higher transmission rate in the
downstream direction than in the upstream
direction.
a. VDSL
b. ADSL
c. SDSL
d. (a) and (b)
7. _____ is a device at the telephone company

site that can packetize data to be sent to the
ISP Server.
a. A DSLAM
b. An ADSL modem
c. A filter
d. A splitter
2. _____ is suitable for businesses that require

comparable upstream and downstream data
rates.
a. VDSL
b. ADSL
c. SDSL
d. (a) and (b)
8. ______ was designed as an alternative to the

T-1 line.
a. VSL
b. ADSL
c. SDSL
d. HDSL
3. _____ limit the bandwidth of the local loop to

4 KHz.
a. Fiber Nodes
b. Filters
c. Repeaters
d. Hubs
4. DMT is a modulation technique that
combines elements of _____ and _____.
a. FDM; TDM
b. QDM; QAM
c. FDM; QAM
d. PSK; FSK
5. The largest portion of the bandwidth for
ADSL carries _____.
a. Voice Communication
b. Upstream data
c. Downstream data
d. Control data
6. The actual bit rate of ADSL downstream data
is _____.
a. 64 Kbps to 1 Mbps
b. 6 to 30 Kbps
c. 31 Kbps to 225 Mbps
d. 500 Kbps to 8 Mbps
9. HDSL encodes data using _______

a. 4B/5B
b. 2B1Q
c. 1B2Q
d. 6B/8T
10. _____ encoded signal is more susceptible to
attenuation than _____ encoded signal.
a. An AMI; a 2B2Q
b. A 2B1Q; an AMI
c. An AMI; a 2B1Q
11. Another name for the cable TV office is the
_____.
a. Splitter
b. Fiber node
c. Combiner
d. Head end
12. A traditional Cable TV network transmits
signals _____.
a. Upstream
b. Downstream
c. Upstream and Downstream
13. An HFC network uses _____ as the medium
from the switch to the fiber node.
a. Optical Fiber
b. Coaxial Cable
c. UTP
d. STP

Chapter 9: High Speed Digital Access
14. In an HFC network, the distribution hub
handles the _____ of signals.
a. Modulation
b. Distribution
c. Splitting
d. (a) and (b)
15. A TV channel in an HFC network needs a
_____- MHz bandwidth.
a. 6
b. 100
c. 250
d. 369
16. _____ data go from the subscriber to the
Internet.
a. Upstream
b. Downstream
c. Midstream
17. In an HFC network, the upstream are
modulated using the _____ modulation
technique.
a. QAM
b. QPSK
c. PCM
d. ASK
18. The standard for data transmission over an
HFC network is called _____.
a. MCNS
b. DOCSIS
c. CMTS
d. ADSL
19. The _____ is an HFC network device
installed inside the distribution hub that
receives data from the Internet and passes
them to the combiner.
a. CM
b. CMTS
c. DOCSIS
d. MCNS
20. SONET is a standard for _____ networks.
b. Coaxial Cable
c. Ethernet
d. Fiber-Optic cable
21. SONET in an acronym for _____ Network.

a. Synchronous Optical
b. Standard Optical
c. Symmetric Open
d. Standard Open
22. In a SONET system, _____ can remove
signals from a path.
a. An STS multiplier
b. A regenerator
c. An Add/Drop multiplier
d. A repeater
23. The synchronous payload envelope of an
STS-1 frame contains _____.
a. Pointers
b. User data
c. Overhead
d. (b) and (c)

Chapter 10: Error Detection And Correction
1. Which error detection method consists of a
parity bit for each data unit as well as an entire
data unit of parity bits?
a. Simple parity check
b. Two-dimensional parity check
c. CRC
d. Checksum
7. If the ASCII character H is sent and the

character I is received, what type of error is
this?
a. Single-bit
b. Multiple-bit
c. Burst
d. Recoverable
2. Which error detection method uses ones

complement arithmetic?
c. CRC
d. Checksum
8. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the

CRC?
a. The divisor
b. The quotient
c. The dividend
d. The remainder
3. Which error detection method consists of just

one redundant bit per data unit?
c. CRC
d. Checksum
9. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is

_______ the CRC.
a. The same size as
b. 1 bit less than
c. 1 bit more than
d. 2 bits more than
4. Which error detection method involves

polynomials?
c. CRC
d. Checksum
10. If the data unit is 111111, the divisor 1010,

and the remainder 110, what is the dividend at
the receiver?
a. 111111011
b. 111111110
c. 1010110
d. 110111111
5. Which of the following best describes a

single-bit error?
a. A single bit is inverted.
b. A single bit is inverted per data unit.
c. A single bit is inverted per transmission.
d. Any of the above
6. If the ASCII character G is sent and the
character D is received, what type of error is
this?
a. Single-bit
b. Multiple-bit
c. Burst
d. Recoverable
11. If the data unit is 111111 and the divisor

1010, what is the dividend at the transmitter?
a. 111111000
b. 1111110000
c. 111111
d. 1111111010
12. If odd parity is used for ASCII error
detection, the number of 0s per 8-bit symbol is
_______.
a. Even
b. Odd
c. Indeterminate
d. 42

Chapter 10: Error Detection And Correction
13. The sum of the checksum and data at the
receiver is _______ if there are no errors.
a. -0
b. +0
c. The complement of the checksum
d. The complement of the data
20. At the CRC generator, _______ added to the

data unit before the division process.
a. 0s are
b. 1s are
c. The polynomial is
d. The CRC remainder is
14. The Hamming code is a method of _______.

a. Error detection
b. Error correction
c. Error encapsulation
d. (a) and (b)
21. At the CRC generator, _______ added to the

data unit after the division process.
a. 0s are
b. 1s are
c. The polynomial is
d. The CRC remainder is
15. In CRC there is no error if the remainder at

the receiver is _______.
a. Equal to the remainder at the sender
b. Zero
c. Nonzero
d. The quotient at the sender
16. In
a.
b.
c.
d.
CRC the quotient at the sender _______.

Becomes the dividend at the receiver
Becomes the divisor at the receiver
Is discarded
Is the remainder
17. Which error detection method involves the

use of parity bits?
c. CRC
d. (a) and (b)
18. Which error detection method can detect a
single-bit error?
c. CRC
d. All of the above
19. Which error detection method can detect a
burst error?
a. The parity check
c. CRC
d. (b) and (c)
22. At the CRC checker, _______ means that the

data unit is damaged.
a. A string of 0s
b. A string of 1s
c. A string of alternating 1s and 0s
d. A nonzero remainder

Chapter 11: Data Link Control And Protocols
1. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is
63, what is the range of sequence numbers?
a. 0 to 63
b. 0 to 64
c. 1 to 63
d. 1 to 64
8. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for n data packets

sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed.
a. n
b. 2n
c. n - 1
d. n + 1
2. Flow control is needed to prevent ________.

a. Bit errors
b. Overflow of the sender buffer
c. Overflow of the receiver buffer
d. Collision between sender and receiver
9. HDLC is an acronym for _______.

a. High-duplex line communication
b. High-level data link control
c. Half-duplex digital link combination
d. Host double-level circuit
3. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are

received successfully, the receiver may send an
ACK _______ to the sender.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. Any of the above
10. The address field of a frame in HDLC

protocol contains the address of the _______
station.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. (a) or (b)
4. For a sliding window of size n - 1 (n sequence

numbers), there can be a maximum of _______
frames sent but unacknowledged.
a. 0
b. n 1
c. n
d. n + 1
11. The HDLC _______ field defines the

beginning and end of a frame.
a. Flag
b. Address
c. Control
d. FCS
5. In _______ ARQ, if a NAK is received, only the

specific damaged or lost frame is retransmitted.
a. Stop-and-Wait
b. Go-Back-N
c. Selective Repeat
d. (a) and (b)
6. ARQ stands for _______.
a. Automatic repeat quantization
b. Automatic repeat request
c. Automatic retransmission request
d. Acknowledge repeat request
7. A timer is set when _______ is (are) sent out.
a. A data frame
b. An ACK
c. A NAK
d. All the above
12. What is present in all HDLC control fields?

a. P/F bit
b. N(R)
c. N(S)
d. Code bits
13. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is
usually the _______ frame.
a. Information
b. Supervisory
c. Management
14. When data and acknowledgment are sent
on the same frame, this is called _______.
a. Piggybacking
b. Backpacking
c. Piggypacking
d. A good idea

Chapter 12: Point-to-Point Access (PPP)
1. According to the PPP transition state
diagram, exchange of user control and data
packets occurs in the _____________ state.
a. Establishing
b. Authenticating
c. Networking
d. Terminating
7. In the PPP frame, the _______ field has a

value of 11111111 to indicate the broadcast
address of HDLC.
a. Address
b. Control
c. Protocol
d. FCS

diagram, options are negotiated in the _______
state.
a. Establishing
b. Authenticating
c. Networking
d. Terminating
8. In the PPP frame, the ________ field is for

error control.
a. Flag
b. Control
c. Protocol
d. FCS

diagram, verification of user identification
occurs in the _______state.
a. Establishing
b. Authenticating
c. Networking
d. Terminating
diagram, the link is disconnected in the
__________ state.
a. Establishing
b. Authenticating
c. Networking
d. Terminating
5. In the PPP frame, the ________ field defines
the contents of the data field.
a. Flag
b. Control
c. Protocol
d. FCS
6. In the PPP frame, the ________ field is similar
to that of the U-frame in HDLC.
a. Flag
b. Control
c. Protocol
d. FCS
9. What is the purpose of LCP packets?

a. Configuration
b. Termination
c. Option negotiation
d. All of the above
10. ___________ is a three-way handshake for
user verification.
a. PPP
b. CHAP
c. PAP
d. (b) and (c)
11. A PAP packet and a CHAP packet can be
distinguished by the value of the ________ field
of the PPP frame.
a. Address
b. Control
c. Protocol
d. FCS
12. PAP requires __________ and ___________
from the user.
a. A password; a calculated value
b. Authentication identification; a
password
c. A challenge value; a password
d. Authentication identification; a
calculated value

Chapter 12: Point-to-Point Access (PPP)
13. For CHAP authentication, the user takes
the systems ______ and its own _______to
create a result that is then sent to the system.
a. Authentication identification; password
b. Password; challenge value
c. Password; authentication identification
d. Challenge value; password
14. ___________, an (a) __________ protocol,
establishes and terminates a network layer
connection for IP packets.
a. NCP; IPCP
b. CHAP; NCP
c. IPCP; NCP
d. SLIP; PPP

Chapter 13: Multiple Access
1. The most primitive random access method is
______________.
a. ALOHA
b. CSMA
c. Channelization
d. Token passing
2. In the ___________ random-access method
there is no collision.
a. ALOHA
b. CSMA/CD
c. CSMA/CA
d. Token-passing
3. In the ___________ random-access method,
stations do not sense the medium.
a. ALOHA
b. CSMA/CD
c. CSMA/CA
d. Ethernet
4. In the 1-persistent approach, when a station
finds an idle line, it _______.
a. Waits 0.1 s before sending
b. Waits 1 s before sending
c. Waits a time equal to 1 - p before
sending
d. Sends immediately
5. In the p-persistent approach, when a station
finds an idle line, it _______.
a. Waits 1 s before sending
b. Sends with probability 1 p
c. Sends with probability p
d. Sends immediately
6. A network using the CSMA random-access
method with p equal to 0.25 will send _______
percent of the time after accessing an idle line.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
7. The 1-persistent approach can be considered
a special case of the p-persistent approach with
p equal to _______.
a. 0.1
b. 0.5
c. 1.0
d. 2.0
8. ____________ is a random-access protocol.

a. MA
b. Polling
c. FDMA
d. CDMA
9. ___________ is a controlled-access protocol.
a. Reservation
b. FDMA
c. TDMA
d. CSMA
10. _____________ is (are) a channelization
protocol.
a. FDMA
b. TDMA
c. CDMA
d. All the above
11. _______ is the access protocol used by
traditional Ethernet.
a. CSMA
b. CSMA/CD
c. CSMA/CA
d. Token ring
12. When a collision is detected in a network
using CSMA/CD, _________.
a. The frame is immediately resent
b. A jam signal is sent by the station
c. The backoff value is set to 0
d. The backoff value is decremented by 1
13. In the reservation access method, if there
are 10 stations on a network, then there are
_______ reservation minislots in the reservation
frame.
a. 5
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
14. _______ requires one primary station and
one or more secondary stations.
a. Reservation
b. Polling
c. Token ring
d. CSMA

Chapter 13: Multiple Access
15. When a primary device asks a secondary
device if it has data to send, this is called
_______.
a. Polling
b. Selecting
c. Reserving
d. Backing off
16. If an FDMA network has eight stations, the
medium bandwidth has _______ bands
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
17. If a TDMA network has eight stations, the
medium bandwidth has _______ bands.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
18. If a CDMA network has eight stations, the
medium bandwidth has _______ bands.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
19. A Walsh table for 16 stations has a chip
sequence of _______ chips.
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32

Chapter 14: Local Area Networks (Ethernet)
1. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the
Ethernet address 01011010 00010001
01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111?
a. 5A-88-AA-18-55-F0
b. 5A-81-BA-81-AA-0F
c. 5A-18-5A-18-55-0F
d. 5A-11-55-18-AA-0F
8. A _______-station Ethernet LAN uses a fourport bridge. Each station has an effective
average data rate of 1.25 Mbps.
a. 32
b. 40
c. 80
d. 160
2. If an Ethernet destination address is 07-0102-03-04-05, then this is a ______ address.

a. Unicast
b. Multicast
c. Broadcast
d. Any of the above
9. Forty stations are on an Ethernet LAN. A 10port bridge segments the LAN. What is the
effective average data rate of each station?
1.0 Mbps
2.0 Mbps
a. 2.5 Mbps
b. 5.0 Mbps
3. If an Ethernet destination address is 08-0706-05-44-33, then this is a ______ address.

a. Unicast
b. Multicast
c. Broadcast
d. Any of the above
4. Which of the following could not be an
Ethernet source address?
a. 8A-7B-6C-DE-10-00
b. EE-AA-C1-23-45-32
c. 46-56-21-1A-DE-F4
d. 8B-32-21-21-4D-34
Ethernet unicast destination?
a. 43-7B-6C-DE-10-00
b. 44-AA-C1-23-45-32
c. 46-56-21-1A-DE-F4
d. 48-32-21-21-4D-34
Ethernet multicast destination?
a. B7-7B-6C-DE-10-00
b. 7B-AA-C1-23-45-32
c. 7C-56-21-1A-DE-F4
d. 83-32-21-21-4D-34
7. A 10-station Ethernet LAN uses a _______port bridge if the effective average data rate for
each station is 2 Mbps.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
10. An 80-station traditional Ethernet is divided

into four collision domains. This means that a
maximum of _______ stations contend for
medium access at any one time.
a. 320
b. 80
c. 76
d. 20
11. What is the efficiency of 4B/5B block
encoding?
a. 20 percent
b. 40 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 80 percent
12. What is the efficiency of a frame in halfduplex Gigabit Ethernet carrying 46 bytes of
data?
a. 97 percent
b. 70 percent
c. 56 percent
d. 12 percent
13. Which of the following is a four-wire Gigabit
Ethernet implementation?
a. 1000Base-SX
b. 1000Base-LX
c. 1000Base-CX
d. 1000Base-T
14. What is the efficiency of 8B/10B encoding?
a. 20 percent
b. 40 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 80 percent

Chapter 15: Wireless Lans
1. A wireless LAN using FHSS hops 10 times
per cycle. If the bandwidth of the original signal
is 10 MHz, the spread spectrum is _____ MHz.
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10,000
2. A wireless LAN using FHSS hops 10 times
per cycle. If the bandwifth of the original signal
is 10 MHz and 2 GHz is the lowest frequency,
the highest frequency of the system is _____
GHz.
a. 1.0
b. 2.0
c. 2.1
d. 3.0
3. An FHSS wireless LAN has a spread
spectrum of 1 GHz. The bandwidth of the
original signal is 250 MHz, and there are _____
hops per cycle.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4. A wireless LAN using DSSS with an 8-bit
chip code needs _____ MHz for sending data
that originally required a 10-MHz bandwidth.
a. 2
b. 8
c. 20
d. 80
5. A wireless LAN using DSSS with _____-bit
chip code needs 320 MHz for sending data that
originally required a 20-MHz bandwidth.
a. A 2
b. An 8
c. A 16
d. A 32
6. A wireless LAN using DSSS with a 4-bit chip
code needs 10-MHz for sending data that
originally required a _____-MHz bandwidth.
a. 2.5
b. 20
c. 25
d. 40
7. In an ESS the _____ station is not mobile.

a. AP
b. Server
c. BSS
8. In an ESS the _____ stations are part of a
wired LAN.
a. AP
b. Server
c. BSS
d. All of the above
9. A station with _____ mobility can move from
one BSS to another.
a. No-transition
b. BSS-transition
c. ESS-transition
d. B and C
10. A station with _____ mobility can move from
one ESS to another.
a. No transition
b. BSS-transition
c. ESS-transition
d. B and C
11. A station with _____ mobility is either
stationary or moving only inside a BSS.
a. No-transition
b. BSS
c. ESS
d. A and B
12. A _____ frame usually precedes a CTS
frame.
a. DIFS
b. SIFS
c. RTS
d. Any of the above
13. A _____ frame usually precedes an RTS
frame.
a. DIFS
b. CIFS
c. CTS

Chapter 15: Wireless Lans
14. Stations do not sense the medium during
_____ time.
a. RTS
b. CTS
c. SIFS
d. NAV
21. A wireless LAN uses ______ frames for

acknowledgement.
a. Management
b. Control
c. Data
15. Wireless transmission is _____ prone to

error than/as wired transmission.
a. More
b. Less
c. Half as
22. A wireless LAN uses ______ frames for the

initial communication between stations and the
access points.
a. Management
b. Control
c. Data
16. Which MAC sublayer does IEEE 802.11

define?
a. LLC
b. PCF
c. DCF
d. B and C
17. What is the basic access method for
wireless LANs as defined by IEEE 802.11?
a. LLC
b. DCF
c. PCF
d. BFD
18. The access method for wireless LANs as
defined by IEEE 802.11 is based on ______.
a. CSMA
b. CSMA/CD
c. CSMA/CA
d. Token passing
19. FHSS, DSSS, and OFDM are ______ layer
specifications.
a. Physical
b. Data link
c. Network
d. Transport
20. In the ______ method, the sender hops from
frequency to frequency in a specific order.
a. FHSS
b. DSSS
c. OFDM
d. HR-DSSS
23. A Bluetooth network can have ______

meter(s).
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Eight
24. ______ combine to form a scatternet.
a. BSSs
b. ESSs
c. APs
d. Piconets
25. Bluetooth uses _____ in the physical layer.
a. FHSS
b. DSSS
c. DHSS
d. OFDM
26. A bluetooth frame needs ______ s for
hopping and control mechanisms.
a. 625
b. 259
c. 3
d. a multiple of 259

Chapter 16: Connecting LANS, Backcbone
Networks and Virtual LANS
1. Which of the following is a connecting
device?
a. Bridge
b. Repeater
c. Hub
d. All of the above
8. A bridge has access to the _______ address of

a station on the same network.
a. Physical (MAC)
b. Network
c. Service access point
d. All of the above
2. A bridge forwards or filters a frame by

comparing the information in its address table
to the frames _______
a. Layer 2 source address
b. Source node's physical address
c. Layer 2 destination address
d. Layer 3 destination address
9. A system redundant bridges might have a

problem with _____ in the system.
a. Loops
b. Filters
c. Spanning tress
d. All of the above
3. A bridge can ______

a. Filter a frame
b. Forward a frame
c. Extend a lan
d. Do all of the above
4. Repeaters function in the ______ layer(s)
a. Physical (MAC)
b. Data link
c. Network
d. A and b
5. A _______ is actually a multiport repeater.
a. Bridge
b. Router
c. VLAN
d. Hub
6. Bridges function in the _______________
layer(s)
a. Physical (MAC)
b. Data link
c. Network
d. A and b
7. A repeater takes a weakend or corrupted
signal and ____________ it.
a. Amplifies
b. Regenerates
c. Resamples
d. Reroutes
10. A
a.
b.
c.
d.
_________ bridge has the smallest ID.

Root
Designated
Forwarding
Blocking
11. The bridge with the least-cost path between

the LAN and the root bridge is called the ____
bridge.
a. Designated
b. Forwarding
c. Blocking
d. A and b
12. A bridge never forwards frames out of the
____ port.
a. Root
b. Designated
c. Forwarding
d. Blocking
13. Which type of bridge builds and updates its
tables from address information in frames?
a. Simple
b. Transparent
c. A and b
14. VLAN technology divides a lab into _____
groups.
a. Physical
b. Logical
c. Multiplexed
d. Framed

Chapter 16: Connecting LANS, Backcbone
Networks and Virtual LANS
15. Which station characteristics can be used
to group stations into a vlan?
a. Port numbers
b. MAC addresses
c. IP addresses
d. All of the above
16. In a VLAN, stations are seperated into
groups by ____________.
a. Physical methods
b. Softwarre methods
c. Locations
d. Switches

Chapter 17: Cellular Telephone and Satellite
Networks
1. A ________ is computerized center that is
responsible for connecting calls, recording
call information, and billing.
a. base station
b. mobile switching center
c. cell
d. mobile station
2. In _______, a mobile station always
communicates with just one base station.
a. roaming
b. a hard handoff
c. a soft handoff
d. a roaming handoff
3. ________ is a first generation cellular phone
system.
a. AMPS
b. D-AMPS
c. GSM
d. IS-95
4. ________ is a second generation cellular
phone system
a. D-AMPS
b. GSM
c. IS-95
d. All of the above
5. AMPS uses _________ for modulation.
a. FM
b. FSK
c. PM
d. a and b
6. ________ separates AMPS voice channels
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. FDMA
d. b and c
7. ________ is a cellular telephone systems
popular in Europe.
a. AMPS
b. D-AMPS
c. GSM
d. IS-95
8. D-AMPS used ________ for multiplexing.

a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. FDMA
d. b and c
9. GSM uses _________ for multiplexing.
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. FDMA
d. b and c
10. DSSS is used by the _______ cellular phone
systems.
a. AMPS
b. D-Amps
c. GSM
d. IS-95
12. ________ base stations uses GPS for
synchronization.
a. AMPS
b. D-Amps
c. GSM
d. IS-95
13. IS-95 has a frequency reuse factor of
_________.
a. 1
b. 5
c. 7
d. 95
14. The path that a satellite makes around the
world is called?
a. a period
b. a footprint
c. an orbit
d. an uplink
15. A
a.
b.
c.
d.
GEO satellite has _______ orbit.

an equatorial
a polar
an inclined
an equilateral

Chapter 17: Cellular Telephone and Satellite
Networks
16. The signal from a satellite is aimed at a
specific area called the __________.
a. period
b. footprint
c. orbit
d. uplink
17. Which orbit has the highest altitude?
a. GEO
b. MEO
c. LEO
d. HEO
23. Teledesic is a _________ LEO satellite system

a. little
b. big
c. passband
d. broadband
24. __________ has 66 satellites in six LEOs.
a. Globalstar
b. Iridium
c. Teledesic
d. GPS
18. MEO satellites orbit _______ Van Allen belts.

a. in the
b. between the
c. above both
d. below both
25. __________ has 48 satellites in six polar

orbits.
a. Globastar
b. Iridium
c. Teledesic
d. GPS
19. Transmission from the earth to the satellite

is called _________.
a. footlink
b. up print
c. downlink
d. uplink
26. __________ will have 288 satellites in 12

polar orbits.
a. Globalstar
b. Iridium
c. Teledesic
d. GPS
20. The __________ is not used for voice

communication
a. IS-95 system
b. Globalstar system
c. GPS
d. Iridium system
21. _________ is often used for navigation
purposes.
a. AMPS
b. IS-95
c. Iridium
d. GPS
22. A LEO satellite has ________ orbit.
a. an equatorial
b. an inclined
c. a polar
d. all of the above

Chapter 18: Virtual Circuit Switching (Frame
Relay and ATM)
1. Frame Relay operates in the _______.
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Physical and data link layers
d. Physical, data link, and network layers
2. In the data link layer, Frame Relay uses
_____________.
a. BSC protocol
b. A simplified HDLC protocol
c. LAPB
d. Any ANSI standard protocol
3. Routing and switching in Frame Relay are
performed by the _______ layer.
a. Physical
b. Data link
c. Network
d. (b) and (c)
4. Frame Relay is unsuitable for ________ due to
possible delays in transmission resulting from
variable frame sizes.
a. Real-time video
b. File transfers
c. Fixed-rate data communication
d. All the above
5. Frame relay provides _____ connections.
a. PVC
b. SVC
c. (a) and (b)
6. The Frame Relay address field is _______ in
length.
a. 4 bytes
b. 2 bytes
c. 3 bytes
d. Any of the above
7. A device called a(n) _______ allows frames
from an ATM network to be transmitted across
a Frame Relay network.
a. LMI
b. VOFR
c. FRAD
d. DLCI
8. _______ is a protocol to control and manage

interfaces in Frame Relay networks.
a. LMI
b. VOFR
c. FRAD
d. DLCI
9. _______ is a Frame Relay option that
transmits voice through the network.
a. LMI
b. VOFR
c. FRAD
d. DLCI
10. In data communications, ATM is an
acronym for _______.
a. Automated Teller Machine
b. Automatic Transmission Model
c. Asynchronous Telecommunication
Method
d. Asynchronous Transfer Mode
11. Because ATM _______, which means that
cells follow the same path, the cells do not
usually arrive out of order.
a. Is asynchronous
b. Is multiplexed
c. Is a network
d. Uses virtual circuit routing
12. Which layer in ATM protocol reformats the
data received from other networks?
a. Physical
b. ATM
c. Application adaptation
d. Data adaptation
13. Which layer in ATM protocol has a 53-byte
cell as an end product?
a. Physical
b. ATM
c. Application adaptation
d. Cell transformation
14. Which AAL type is designed to support a
data stream that has a constant bit rate?
a. AAL1
b. AAL2
c. AAL3/4
d. AAL5

Chapter 18: Virtual Circuit Switching (Frame
Relay and ATM)
15. Which AAL type is designed to support
SEAL?
a. AAL1
b. AAL2
c. AAL3/4
d. AAL5
16. In an ATM network, all cells belonging to a
single message follow the same _______ and
remain in their original order until they reach
their destination.
a. Transmission path
b. Virtual path
c. Virtual circuit
17. A _______ provides a connection or a set of
connections between switches.
b. Virtual path
c. Virtual circuit
18. A _________ is the physical connection
between an endpoint and a switch or between
two switches.
b. Virtual path
c. Virtual circuit
19. The VPI of a UNI is _________ bits in length.
a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 24
20. The VPI of an NNI is _________ bits in
length.
a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 24

Chapter 19: Host-To-Host Delivery
(Internetworking, Addressing and Routing)
1. In which type of switching do all the packets
of a message follow the same channels of a
path?
a. Datagram packet switching
b. Virtual circuit packet switching
c. Message switching
2. In _______, each packet of a message need
not follow the same path from sender to
receiver.
a. Message switching
b. The virtual approach to packet switching
c. The datagram approach to packet
switching
3. An IP address consists of _______ bits.
a. 4
b. 8
c. 32
d. Any of the above
4. Identify the class of IP address 4.5.6.7.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
7. A subnet mask in class A can have _______
1s with the remaining bits 0s.
a. Nine
b. Four
c. Thirty-three
d. Three
8. A subnet mask in class B can have _______

a. Nine
b. Fourteen
c. Seventeen
d. Three
9. A subnet mask in class C can have _______
a. Ten
b. Twenty-five
c. Twelve
d. Seven
10. A subnet mask in class A has fourteen 1s.
How many subnets does it define?
a. 32
b. 8
c. 64
d. 128
11. A subnet mask in class B has nineteen 1s.
How many subnets does it define?
a. 8
b. 32
c. 64
d. 128
12. A subnet mask in class C has twenty-five
1s. How many subnets does it define
a. 2
b. 8
c. 16
d. 0
13. Given the IP address 201.14.78.65 and the
subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the
subnet address?
a. 201.14.78.32
b. 201.14.78.65
c. 201.14.78.64
d. 201.14.78.12
subnet mask 255.255.192.0, what is the
subnet address?
a. 180.25.21.0
b. 180.25.0.0
c. 180.25.8.0
d. 180.0.0.0

Chapter 19: Host-To-Host Delivery
(Internetworking, Addressing and Routing)
subnet mask 255.240.0.0, what is the subnet
address?
a. 18.0.0.14
b. 18.31.0.14
c. 18.240.0.0.
d. 18.9.0.14
16. Class _________ has the greatest number of
hosts per given network address.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
17. _______ is a client-server program that
provides an IP address, subnet mask, IP
address of a router, and IP address of a name
server to a computer.
a. NAT
b. CIDR
c. ISP
d. DHCP
18. On a network that uses NAT, the __________
has a translation table.
a. Switch
b. Router
c. Server
19. On a network that uses NAT, _______
initiates the communication.
a. An external host
b. An internal host
c. The router
d. (a) or (b)
20. On a network that uses NAT, the router can
use _______ global address(es).
a. One
b. Two
c. A pool of
21. In _______ routing, the full IP address of a

destination is given in the routing table.
a. Next-hop
b. Network-specific
c. Host-specific
d. Default
22. In _______ routing, the mask and
destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the
routing table.
a. Next-hop
b. Network-specific
c. Host-specific
d. Default
23. In _______ routing, the destination address
is a network address in the routing table.
a. Next-hop
b. Network-specific
c. Host-specific
d. Default

Chapter 20: Network Layer Protocols
(ARP, IPV4, ICMP, IPV6 AND ICMPV6)
1. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in
which a physical address is found for a given IP
address.
a. ARP
b. RARP
c. ICMP
2. A router reads the _______ address on a
packet to determine the next hop.
a. MAC
b. Source
c. IP
d. ARP
3. The target hardware address on an Ethernet
is _______ in an ARP request.
a. 0x000000000000
b. 0.0.0.0
c. Variable
d. Class-dependent
4. An
a.
b.
c.
d.
ARP reply is _______ to _______.

Broadcast; all hosts
Multicast; one host
Unicast; one host
Unicast; one host
5. An
a.
b.
c.
d.
ARP request is _______ to _______.

Broadcast; all hosts
Multicast; one host
Unicast; one host
Unicast; one host
6. What is the maximum size of the data

portion of the IP datagram?
a. 65,535 bytes
b. 65,515 bytes
c. 65,475 bytes
d. 65,460 bytes
7. A best-effort delivery service such as IP does
not include _______.
a. Error checking
b. Error correction
c. Datagram acknowledgment
d. All the above
8. An HLEN value of decimal 10 means

_________.
a. There is 10 bytes of options
b. There is 40 bytes of options
c. There is 10 bytes in the header
d. There is 40 bytes in the header
9. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length
field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the
data field is 400 bytes?
a. 428
b. 407
c. 107
d. 427
10. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field
given an HLEN value of 12 and total length
value of 40,000?
a. 39,998
b. 40,012
c. 40,048
d. 39,952
11. A datagram is fragmented into three smaller
datagrams. Which of the following is true?
a. The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all
three datagrams.
b. The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all
three datagrams.
c. The identification field is the same for
all three datagrams.
d. The offset field is the same for all three
datagrams
12. If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it
means that ______________.
a. The datagram has not been fragmented
b. The datagram is 100 bytes in size
c. The first byte of the datagram is byte 100
d. The first byte of the datagram is byte
800
13. What is needed to determine the number of
the last byte of a fragment?
a. Identification number
b. Offset number
c. Total length
d. (b) and (c)

Chapter 20: Network Layer Protocols
(ARP, IPV4, ICMP, IPV6 AND ICMPV6)
14. The IP header size ___________.
a. Is 20 to 60 bytes long
b. Is 20 bytes long
c. Is 60 bytes long
d. Depends on the MTU
15. If a host needs to synchronize its clock with
another host, it sends a _______ message.
a. Time-stamp request
b. Source-quench
c. Routert-advertisement
d. Time-exceeded
16. Which of the following types of ICMP
messages needs to be encapsulated into an IP
datagram?
a. Time-exceeded
b. Multicasting
c. Echo reply
d. All the above
17. The purpose of echo request and echo reply
is to ________________.
a. Report errors
b. Check node-to-node communication
c. Check packet lifetime
d. Find IP addresses
18. In error reporting the encapsulated ICMP
packet goes to _______.
a. The sender
b. The receiver
c. A router
d. Any of the above
19. When the hop-count field reaches zero and
the destination has not been reached, a _______
error message is sent.
a. Destination-unreachable
b. Time-exceeded
c. Parameter-problem
d. Redirection
20. When not all fragments of a message have
been received within the designated amount of
time, a _______ error message is sent.
a. Source-quench
b. Time-exceeded
c. Parameter-problem
d. Time-stamp request
21. Errors in the header or option fields of an IP

datagram require a ______ error message
a. Parameter-problem
b. Source-quench
c. Router-solicitation
d. Redirection
22. A ______ can learn about network ______ by
sending out a router-solicitation packet.
a. Router; routers
b. Router; hosts
c. Host; hosts
d. Host; routers
23. One method to alert a source host of
congestion is the _______ message.
a. Redirection
b. Echo-request
c. Source-quench
d. Destination-unreachable
24. A time-exceeded message is generated if
_______.
a. The round-trip time between hosts is
close to zero
b. The time-to-live field has a zero value
c. Fragments of a message do not arrive
within a set time
d. (b) and (c)
25. To determine whether a node is reachable,
_____________ message can be sent.
a. An echo-reply
b. An echo-request
c. A redirection
d. A source-quench
26. Which of the following is a necessary part of
the IPv6 datagram?
a. Base header
b. Extension header
c. Data packet from the upper layer
d. (a) and (c)
27. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header
restricts the lifetime of a datagram.
a. Version
b. Priority
c. Next-header
d. Hop limit
e. Neighbor-advertisement

Chapter 21: Unicast and Multicast Routing
(Routing Protocols)
1. RIP
a.
b.
c.
d.
is based on
Link state routing
Distance vector routing
Dijkstras algorithm
Path vector routing
2. In distance vector routing each router

receives information directly from _______.
a. Every router on the network
b. Every router less than two units away
c. A table stored by the network hosts
d. Its neighbours only
8. Dijkstras algorithm is used to

a. Create LSAs
b. Flood an internet with information
c. Calculate the routing tables
d. Create a link state database
9. An area is _______
a. Part of an AS
b. Composed of at least two Ass
c. Another term for an internet
d. A collection of stub areas
3. In distance vector routing a router sends out

information
a. At regularly scheduled intervals
b. Only when there is a change in its table
c. Only when a new host is added
d. Only when a new network is added
10. In an autonomous system with n areas,

how many areas are connected to the
backbone?
a. 1
b. n 1
c. n
d. n + 1
4. A routing table contains

a. The destination network ID
b. The hop count to reach the network
c. The router ID of the next hop
d. All of the above
11. An area border router can be connected to

a. Only another router
b. Another router or another network
c. Anly another network
d. Only another area border router
5. Router B receives an update from router A

that indicates Net1 is two hops away. The next
update from A says Net1 is five hops away.
What value is entered in Bs routing table for
Net1? Assume the basic RIP is being used.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 7
12. Which of the following usually has the least

number of connections to othe areas?
a. An area
b. An autonomous system
c. A transient link
d. A stub link
6. If the routing table contains four new entries,

how many updates messages must the router
send to its neighbour router?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
7. The cost field of a routers first table form
itself always has a value of
a. 0
b. 1
c. Infinity
d. Some positive integer
13. Which type of network using the OSPF

protocol always consists of just two connected
routers?
a. Point-to-point
b. Transient
c. Stub
d. Virtual
protocol is the result of a break in a link
between the two routers?
a. Point-to-point
b. Transient
c. Stub
d. Virtual

(Routing Protocols)
protocol can have five routers attached to it?
a. Point-to-point
b. Transient
c. Stub
d. All of the above
16. A WAN using the OSPF protocol that
connects two routers is an example of a
_________ type of OSPF network.
a. Point-to-point
b. Transient
c. Stub
d. Virtual
17. An Ethernet LAN using the OSPF protocol
with five attached routers can be called a
________ network.
a. Point-to-point
b. Transient
c. Stub
d. Virtual
18. Which layer produces the OSPF message?
a. Data link
b. Network
c. Transport
d. Application
19. Which of the following is an exterior routing
protocol?
a. RIP
b. OSPF
c. BGP
d. a and b
20. Which of the following is an interior routing
protocol?
a. RIP
b. OSPF
c. BGP
d. a and b
21. OSPF is based on ____________.
a. Distance vector routing
b. Link state routing
c. Path vector routing
d. a and b
22. BGP is based on ___________.

a. Distance vector routing
b. Link state routing
c. Path vector routing
d. a and b
23. Which type of BGP message creates a
relationship between two routers?
a. Open
b. Update
c. Keep-alive
d. Notification
24. Which type of BGP message announces a
route to a new destination?
a. Open
b. Update
c. Keep-alive
d. Notification
25. Which type of BGP message is sent by a
system to notify another router of the senders
existence?
a. Open
b. Update
c. Keep-alive
d. Notification
26. Which type of BGP message is sent by a
router to close a connection?
a. Open
b. Update
c. Keep-alive
d. Notification
27. The ________ is an IGMP message.
a. Query message
b. Membership report
c. Leave report
d. All of the above
28. An IGMP query is sent from a _________ to a
_________.
a. Host; host
b. Host; router
c. Router; router
d. Router; host or router

(Routing Protocols)
29. The ________ is used by a router in response
to a received-leave report.
a. General query message
b. Special query message
c. Membership report
d. Leave report
30. The ________ field of the IGMP message is all
zeros in a query message.
a. Version
b. Type
c. Checksum
d. Group address
31. The _________ field of the IGMP message is
0x11 for a query message.
a. Version
b. Type
c. Checksum
d. a and b
35. A one-to-one communication between a

source and one destination is classified as a
_________ communication.
a. Unicast
b. Multicast
c. Broadcast
d. a and b
36. ___________ is a multicasting application.
a. Teleconferencing
b. Distance learning
c. Information dissemination
d. All of the above
37. A __________ is a data structure with nodes
and edges and a hierarchical structure.
a. Tree
b. Graph
c. Leaf
d. Root
32. If four hosts on a network belong to the

same group, a total of _________ sent in
response to a general query message.
a. One membership report is
b. Two membership reports are
c. Three membership reports are
d. Four membership reports are
38. A system uses source-based trees for

multicasting. If there are 100 sources and 5
groups, there is a maximum of _________
different trees.
a. 5
b. 20
c. 100
d. 500
33. A one-to-all communication between a

source and all hosts on a network is classified
as a _________ communication.
a. Unicast
b. Multicast
c. Broadcast
d. a and b
39. In a _________ tree approach to

multicasting, the combination of source and
group determines the tree.
a. Spanning-source
b. Shortest-group
c. Source-based
d. Group-shared
34. A one-to-many communication between a

source and a specific group of hosts is classified
as a ________ communication.
a. Unicast
b. Multicast
c. Broadcast
d. a and b
40. In a _________ tree approach to

multicasting, the group determines the tree.
a. Spanning-source
b. Shortest-group
c. Source-based
d. Group-shared

(Routing Protocols)
41. A system uses group-shared trees for
multicasting. If there are 100 sources and 5
groups, there is a maximum of ____________
different trees.
a. 5
b. 20
c. 100
d. 500
42. ___________ is a multicast routing protocol
using source-based trees.
a. DVRMP
b. MOSPF
c. CBT
d. a and b
47. A _________ message tells an upstream

router to start sending multicast messages for a
specific group through a specific router.
a. Weed
b. Graft
c. Prune
d. Plum
48. __________ uses multicast link state routing
concepts to create source-based trees.
a. DVMRP
b. MOSPF
c. CBT
d. BVD
43. ___________ is a multicast routing protocol

using group-shared trees.
a. DVRMP
b. MOSPF
c. CBT
d. a and b
49. In the __________ protocol, a multicast

packet is encapsulated inside a unicast packet
with the core router as the destination.
a. DVMRP
b. MOSPF
c. CBT
d. BVD
44. In _________ a network can receive a

multicast packet from a particular source only
through a designated parent router.
a. RPF
b. RPB
c. RPM
d. All of the above
50. ____________ is used in a dense multicast

environment while __________ is used in a
sparse multicast environment.
a. PIM-DM; PIM-SM
b. PIM-SM; PIM-DM
c. PIM; PIM-DM
d. PIM; PIM-SM
45. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in

a. RPF
b. RPB
c. RPM
d. All of the above
51. When a multicast router is not directly

connected to another multicast router, a
_________ can be formed to connect the two.
a. Physical tunnel
b. Logical tunnel
c. Logical core
d. Spanning tree
46. A __________ message tells an upstream

router to stop sending multicast messages for a
specific group through a specific router.
a. Weed
b. Graft
c. Prune
d. Plum

Chapter 22: Process-to-Process Delivery
(UDP AND TCP)
1. UDP and TCP are both _____ layer protocols
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Transport
2. Which of the following functions does UDP
perform?
a. Process-to-process communication
b. Host-to-host communication
c. End-to-end reliable data delivery
d. All of the above
3. UDP needs the _____ address to deliver the
user datagram to the correct application
program.
a. Port
b. Application
c. Internet
d. Physical
4. Which is a legal port address?
a. 0
b. 513
c. 65,535
d. All of the above
5. The definition of reliable delivery includes
____
a. Error-free delivery
b. Receipt of the complete message
c. In-order delivery
d. All of the above
6. Which of the following does the UDP
guarantee?
a. Sequence numbers on each user
datagram
b. Acknowledgments to the sender
c. Flow control
7. The source port address on the UDP user
datagram header defines ___
a. The sending computer
b. The receiving computer
c. The application program on the
sending computer
d. The application program on the receiving
computer
8. Which of the following is not part of the UDP

user datagram header?
a. Length of header
b. Source port address
c. Checksum
d. Destination port address
9. The ______ defines the client program
a. Ephemeral port number
b. IP address
c. Well-known port number
d. Physical address
10. The _______ defines the server program
a. Ephemeral port number
b. IP address
c. Well-known port number
d. Physical address
11. IP is responsible for ____ communication
while TCP is responsible for ________
communication
a. Host-to-host; process-to-process
b. Process-to-process; host-to-host
c. Process-to-process; node-to-node
d. Node-to-node; process-to-process
12. A host can be identified by _______ while a
program running on the host can be identified
by _____
a. An IP address ; a port number
b. A port number ; an IP address
c. An IP address ; a host address
d. An IP address ; a well-known port
13. The ______ address uniquely identifies a
running application program
a. IP address
b. Host
c. NIC
d. Socket
14. The ______ field is used to order packets of a
message.
a. Urgent pointer
b. Checksum
c. Sequence number
d. Acknowledgment number

Chapter 22: Process-to-Process Delivery
(UDP AND TCP)
15. The _____ field is used for error detection.
a. Urgent pointer
b. Checksum
c. Sequence number
d. Acknowledgement number
16. Multiply the header length field by _______
to find the total number of bytes in the TCP
header
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
22. The _____ timer prevents a long idle

connection between two TCPs
a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited
23. The ____ timer is needed to handle the zero
window-size advertisement
a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited
17. Urgent data require the urgent pointer field

as well as the URG bit in the _____ field
a. Control
b. Offset
c. Sequence number
d. Reserved
24. Karns algorithm is used in calculations by

the ______ timer
a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited
18. In ______, data are sent or processed at a

very inefficient rate, such as one byte at a time
a. Nagles syndrome
b. Silly window syndrome
c. Sliding window syndrome
d. Delayed acknowledgement
25. The ____ timer is used in the termination

phase
a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited
19. To prevent silly window syndrome created

by a receiver that processes data at a very slow
rate, _____ can be used.
a. Clarks solution
b. Nagles algorithm
c. Delayed acknowledgment
d. (a) or (c)
26. The _____ timer keeps track of the time

between the sending of a segment and the
receipt of an acknowledgment
a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited
20. To prevent silly window syndrome created

by a sender that processes data at a very slow
rate, _____ can be used.
a. Clarks solution
b. Nagles algorithm
c. Delayed acknowledgment
d. (a) or (c)
27. Connection establishment involves a

_______handshake.
a. One-way
b. Two-way
c. Three-way
21. An ACK number of 1000 always means that

_____
a. 999 bytes has been successfully received
b. 1000 bytes has been successfully
received
c. 1001 bytes has been successfully
received
28. A special segment called a probe is sent by

sending a TCP when the _____ timer goes off.
a. Transmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited

Chapter 23: Congestion Control and Quality
of Service
1. The maximum length of time that traffic is
generated at the peak rate is called the
___________.
a. Average data rate
b. Maximum burst size
c. Effective bandwidth
d. Constant bit rate
2. The ____ is the maximum data rate of the
traffic
b. Peak data rate
c. Maximum burst size
d. Effective bandwidth
8. Slow start is used in conjunction with

______as a TCP congestion control strategy
a. Additive increase
b. Additive decrease
c. Multiplicative increase
d. Multiplicative decrease
9. The FECN informs the _____ of congestion
while the BECN informs the _____ of congestion
a. Destination; interface
b. Destination ; sender
c. Sender; destination
d. Interface; sender
3. The effective bandwidth is based on

_________.
b. Peak data rate
c. Maximum burst size
d. All of the above
10. _____ is a flow characteristic in which the

delay varies for packets belonging to the same
flow
a. Choke point
b. Throughput
c. Additive increase
d. Jitter
4. _____traffic features sudden data rate

changes in very short periods of time.
a. Constant-bit-rate
b. Variable-bit-rate
c. Bursty
d. Peak-bit-rate
11. In _____ queuing the first packet into the

queue is the first packet out of the queue
a. FIFO
b. LIFO
c. Priority
d. Weighted fair
5. When the load is greater than the capacity,

the delay _______
a. Decreases
b. Increases linearly
c. Goes to infinity
d. Goes to zero
12. The ____ traffic shaping method gives a host

credit for its idle time
a. Leaky bucket
b. Token bucket
c. Traffic bucket
d. Bursty bucket
6. ______ is a closed loop mechanism to alleviate

congestions
a. A choke point
b. Implicit signaling
c. Explicit signaling
d. All of the above
13. A flow-based QoS model designated for IP is

called________
a. Integrated services
b. Differentiated services
c. RSVP
d. Multicast trees
7. For a system using TCP, the sender window

size is determined by the _____ window size
a. Receiver
b. Sender
c. Congestion
d. (a) and (c)
14. A signaling protocol that helps IP create a

flow is called _____
a. Integrated services
b. Differentiated services
c. RSVP
d. Multicast trees

of Service
15. RSVP uses _____ messages
a. Path
b. Resv
c. Resource
d. (a) and (b)
16. In a RSVP reservation style called ______
filter, the router creates a single reservation
that can be shared by a set of flows.
a. Wild card
b. Fixed
c. Shared explicit
d. All of the above
17. Differentiated services was designed to
handle the ______ problem associated with
Integrated Services
a. Scalability
b. Stability
c. Reservation
d. All of the above
18. A ____ is a Differentiated Services traffic
conditioner
a. Meter
b. Marker
c. Shaper
d. All of the above
19. When added to Be, Bc should be less than
the ________
a. CIR
b. Access rate
c. Committed burst size
d. (a) and (b)
20. What is the relationship between the access
rate and the CIR?
a. CIR is always equal to the access rate
b. CIR is greater than the access rate
c. CIR is less than the access rate
d. CIR plus Bc is equal to the access rate
21. A Frame Relay network is committed to
transfer ______ bps without discarding any
frames
a. Bc
b. Be
c. CIR
d. (a) and (b)
22. In Frame Relay the transmission rate can

never exceed _____.
a. Bc
b. Be
c. CIR
d. The access rate
23. The cell _______ is the difference between
the CTD maximum and minimum
a. Loss ratio
b. Transfer delay
c. Delay variation
d. Error ratio
24. The cell ____ is the ratio of lost cells to cells
sent
a. Loss ratio
b. Transfer delay
c. Delay variation
d. Error ratio
25. The _____ service class is particularly
suitable for applications with bursty data
a. CBR
b. VBR
c. ABR
d. UBR
26. The _____ service class is suitable for
customers who need real-time video
transmission without compression
a. CBR
b. VBR
c. ABR
d. UBR
27. The ______ is greater than the SCR.
a. PCR
b. MCR
c. CVDT
d. All of the above
28. ________ measures the variation in cell
transmission time
a. SCR
b. PCR
c. MCR
d. CVDT

of Service
29. If the SCR is 60 000, the PCR is 70 000 and
the MCR is 55 000, what is the minimum
number of cells that can be sent per second?
a. 55 000
b. 60 000
c. 70 000
d. 5000
30. The ____ is the fraction of the cells delivered
in error
a. CLR
b. CTD
c. CDV
d. CER
31. If the maximum CTD is 10 s and the
minimum CTD is 1s, the _______ is 9s
a. CLR
b. CTD
c. CDV
d. CER

Chapter 24: Client-Server Model
(Socket Interface)
1. _____ can request a service.
a. A socket interface
b. A port
c. A client
d. A server
2. _____ can provide a service.
a. An iterative server
b. A concurrent server
c. A client
d. A and B
3. The client program is _____ because it
terminates after it has been served.
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Finite
d. Infinite
4. The server program is ______ because it is
always available, waiting for a client request.
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Finite
d. Infinite
5. A connection-oriented concurrent server uses
_____ ports.
a. Ephemeral
b. Well-known
c. Active
d. A and B
6. A connectionless iterative server uses _____
ports.
a. Ephemeral
b. Well-known
c. Active
d. A and B
7. Machine A requests service X from machine
B. Machine B requests service Y from machine
A. What is the total number of application
programs required?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
8. A client issues _____ when it needs service

from a server.
a. An active open
b. A passive open
c. An active request
d. A finite open
9. A server program, once it issues ______, waits
for clients to request its service.
a. An active open
b. A passive open
c. An actuve request
d. A finite open
10. _____ processes requests one at a time.
a. An iterative client
b. An iterative server
c. A concurrent client
d. A concurrent server
11. _____ processes many requests
simultaneously.
a. An iterative client
b. An iterative server
c. A concurrent client
d. A concurrent server
12. In a connection-oriented concurrent server,
the _____ is used for connection only.
a. Infinite port
b. Ephemeral port
c. Well-known port
d. B and C
13. A
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____ is an instance of a _____.

Process ; program
Program ; process
Process ; service
Structure ; process
14. The _____ socket is used with a connectionoriented protocol.

a. Stream
b. Datagram
c. Raw
d. Remote

Chapter 24: Client-Server Model
(Socket Interface)
15. The _____ socket is used with a
connectionless protocol.
a. Stream
b. Datagram
c. Raw
d. Remote
16. The _____ socket is used with a protocol
that directly uses the services of IP.
a. Stream
b. Datagram
c. Raw
d. Remote
17. A _____ server serves multiple clients,
handling one request at a time.
a. Connection-oriented iterative
b. Connection-oriented concurrent
c. Connectionless iterative
d. Connectionless concurrent
18. A _____ server serves multiple clients
simultaneously.
a. Connection-oriented iterative
b. Connection-oriented concurrent
c. Connectionless iterative
d. Connectionless concurrent

Chapter 25: Domain Name System (DNS)]
1. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _____
is the least specific label.
a. chal
b. atc
c. fhda
d. edu
2. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _____
is the most specific label.
a. chal
b. atc
c. fhda
d. edu
3. Which of the following domain names would
most likely use a country domainto resolve its
IP address?
a. chal.atc.fhda.edu
b. gsfc.nasa.gov
c. kenz.acct.sony.jp
d. mac.eng.sony.com
4. A DNS response is classified as _____ if the
information comes from a cache memory.
a. Authoritative
b. Unauthoritative
c. Iterative
d. Recursive
5. In _____ resolution the client is in direct
contact with at most one server.
a. A recursive
b. An iterative
c. A cache
d. All of the above
6. In _____ resolution the client could directly
contact more than one server.
a. A recursive
b. An iterative
c. A cache
d. All of the above
7. In address-to-name resolution the _____
domain is used.
a. Inverse
b. Reverse
c. Generic
d. Country
8. How is the lifetime of a name-to-address

resolution in cache memory controlled?
a. By the time-to-live field set by the server
b. By the time-to-live counter set by the
server
c. By the time-to-live field set by the
authoritative server
d. B and C
9. In the string 219.46.123.107.in-addr.arpa,
what is the network address of the host we are
looking for?
a. 219.46.123.0
b. 107.123.0.0
c. 107.123.46.0
d. 107.0.0.0
10. A host with the domain name
pit.arc.nasa.gov is on the _____ level of the DNS
hierarchical tree. (the root is level 1)
a. Third
b. Fourth
c. Fifth
d. Not enough information given
11. A host with the domain name
trinity.blue.vers.inc is on the _____ level of the
DNS hierarchical tree. (the root is level 1)
a. Third
b. Fourth
c. Fifth
d. Not enough information given
12. A DNS _____server gets its data from
another DNS server.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Root
d. All of the above
13. A DNS _____server creates, maintains, and
updates the zone file.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Root
d. All of the above

Chapter 25: Domain Name System (DNS)]
14. A
tree.
a.
b.
c.
d.
DNS _____ server's zone is the entire DNS
15. A
a.
b.
c.
d.
resolver is the _____.

DNS client
DNS server
Host machine
Root server
Primary
Secondary
Root
All of the above
16. To find the IP address of a host when the

domain name is known, the _____ can be used.
a. Inverse domain
b. Generic domains
c. Country domains
d. B or C

Chapter 26: Electronic Mail (SMTP) and File
Transfer (FTP)
1. The purpose of the UA is _______.
a. Message preparation
b. Envelope creation
c. Transferral of messages across the
internet
d. (a) and (b)
2. The purpose of the MTA is _______.
a. Transferral of messages across the
Internet
b. Message preparation
c. Envelope creation
d. (a) and (b)
3. Which part of the mail created by the UA
contains the sender and receiver names?
a. Envelope
b. Header
c. Address
d. Body
4. In the email address
[email protected], what is the
domain name?
a. mackenzie
b. pit.arc.nasa.gov
c. [email protected]
d. (a) and (b)
5. The _______ field in the MIME header is the
type of data and the body of the message.
a. Content-type
b. Content-transfer-encoding
c. Content-id
d. Content-description
6. The _______ field in the MIME header uses
text to describe the data in the body of the
message.
a. Content-type
c. Content-id
7. The _______ field in the MIME header
describes the method used to encode the data.
a. Content-type
c. Content-id
8. The _______ field in the MIME header has

type and subtype subfields.
a. Content-type
c. Content-id
9. A JPEG image is sent as email. What is the
content-type?
a. Multipart/mixed
b. Multipart/image
c. Image/JPEG
d. Image/basic
10. An email contains a textual birthday
greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song. The
text must precede the image. What is the
content-type?
a. Multipart/mixed
b. Multipart/parallel
c. Multipart/digest
d. Multipart/alternative
11. An email contains a textual birthday
greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song. The
order is not important. What is the contenttype?
a. Multipart/mixed
b. Multipart/parallel
c. Multipart/digest
d. Multipart/alternative
12. A message is fragmented into three email
messages. What is the content-type?
a. Multipart/mixed
b. Message/RFC822
c. Message/partial
d. Multipart/partial
13. A client machine usually needs _______ to
send email.
a. Only SMTP
b. Only POP
c. Both SMTP and POP

Chapter 26: Electronic Mail (SMTP) and File
Transfer (FTP)
14. Which of the following is true?
a. FTP allows systems with different
directory structures to transfer files.
b. FTP allows a system using ASCII and a
system using EBCDIC to transfer files.
c. FTP allows a PC and a SUN workstation
to transfer files.
d. All the above are true.
15. During an FTP session the control
connection is opened _______.
a. Exactly once
b. Exactly twice
c. As many times as necessary
d. All of the above
16. During an FTP session the data connection
is opened _______.
a. Exactly once
b. Exactly twice
c. As many times as necessary
d. All of the above
17. In FTP, what attributes must be defined by
the client prior to transmission?
a. Data type
b. File structure
c. Transmission mode
d. All of the above
18. In FTP, there are three types of _______:
stream, block, and compressed.
a. Files
b. Data structures
c. Transmission modes
d. All of the above
19. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define
an attribute called _______.
a. File type
b. Data structure
c. Transmission mode
d. All of the above
20. In FTP, when you _______, it is copied from
the server to the client.
a. Retrieve a file
b. Store a file
c. Retrieve a list
d. (a) and (c)
21. In FTP, when you _______, it is copied from

the client to the server.
a. Retrieve a file
b. Store a file
c. Retrieve a list
d. (a) and (c)
22. In anonymous FTP, the user can usually
______.
a. Retrieve files
b. Navigate through directories
c. Store files
d. Do all the above

Chapter 27: HTTP And WWW
1. HTTP has similarities to both _______ and
_______.
a. FTP; SNMP
b. FTP; SMTP
c. FTP; MTV
d. FTP; URL
2. A request message always contains _______.
a. A header and a body
b. A request line and a header
c. A status line, a header, and a body
d. A status line and a header
3. Which of the following is present in both a
request line and a status line?
a. HTTP version number
b. URL
c. Status code
d. Status phrase
4. What does the URL need to access a
document?
a. Path name
b. Host computer
c. Retrieval method
d. All the above
5. Which of the following is a retrieval method?
a. HTTP
b. FTP
c. TELNET
d. All of the above
6. A user wants to replace a document with a
newer version; the request line contains the
_______ method.
a. GET
b. POST
c. COPY
d. PUT
7. A user wants to copy a file to another
location; the request line contains the _______
method.
a. PUT
b. PATCH
c. COPY
d. POST
8. A user needs to retrieve a document from the

server; the request line contains the _______
method.
a. GET
b. HEAD
c. POST
d. PUT
9. A user needs to send the server some
information. The request line method is
________.
a. OPTION
b. PATCH
c. MOVE
d. POST
10. A user needs to move a file to another
location. The request line method is _______.
a. MOVE
b. PUT
c. GET
d. PATCH
11. A response message always contains
_______.
a. A header and a body
b. A status line, a header, and a body
c. A request line and a header
d. A status line and a header
12. The _______ header supplies information
about the body of a document.
a. General
b. Request
c. Response
d. Entity
13. The _______ header can specify the server
configuration or provide information about a
request.
a. General
b. Request
c. Response
d. Entity
14. The _______ header can specify the client
configuration and the client's preferred
document format.
a. General
b. Request
c. Response
d. Entity

15. Hypertext documents are linked through
___________.
a. DNS
b. TELNET
c. Pointers
d. Homepages
22. The _______ of a Web page contains the title

and parameters used by the browser.
a. Tags
b. Head
c. Body
d. Attributes
16. Which of the following is not a client

program in WWW?
a. FTP
b. TELNET
c. HTTP
d. HTML
23. In < IMG SRC="Pictures/book1.gif"

ALIGN=middle> ALIGN is _______.
a. A tag
b. The head
c. The body
d. An attribute
17. Which of the following is an interpreter?

a. HTTP
b. HTML
c. CGI
d. FTP
24. An ending tag is usually of the form _______.

a. </tagname>
b. <\ tagname>
c. < tagname >
d. < tagname!>
18. What are the components of a browser?

a. Retrieval method, host computer, path
name
b. Controller, client program, interpreter
c. Hypertext, hypermedia, HTML
d. All the above
25. Which category of HTML tags allows the

listing of documents?
a. Image
b. List
c. Hyperlink
d. Executable contents
19. Which type of Web document is run at the

client site?
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Active
d. All the above
26. The __________ tags enclose binary code or

byte code.
a. Image
b. List
c. Hyperlink
d. Executable contents
20. Which type of Web document is created at

the server site only when requested by a client?
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Active
d. All the above
27. A program can use _____ to write a CGI

program.
a. Bourne shell script
b. Perl
c. C
d. Any of the above
21. Which type of Web document is fixedcontent and is created and stored at the server
site?
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Active
d. All the above
28. An unemployed actor has posted his

resume on the Web. This is probably a(n)
_______ document.
a. Active
b. Static
c. Passive
d. Dynamic

29. The server receives input from a browser
through _________.
a. An attribute
b. A tag
c. A form
d. Any of the above
36. Stock quotations are posted on the Web.

This is probably a(n) ____________ document.
a. Active
b. Static
c. Passive
d. Dynamic
30. Output from a CGI program is _______.

a. Text
b. Graphics
c. Binary data
d. Any of the above
37. Updates for a satellites coordinates can be

obtained on the WWW. This is probably a(n)
________ document.
a. Active
b. Static
c. Passive
d. Dynamic
31. Which type of Web document is transported

from the server to the client in binary form?
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Active
d. All of the above
32. An applet is a small application program
written in _____.
a. C
b. C++
c. Shell script
d. Java
33. _____________ is used to enable the use of
active documents.
a. HTML
b. CGI
c. Java
d. All the above
34. Java is ____________.
a. A programming language
b. A run-time environment
c. A class library
d. All the above
35. An applet is ____________ document
application program.
a. A static
b. An active
c. A passive
d. A dynamic

Chapter 28: Multimedia
1. For streaming stored audio/video, the
_______ holds information about the
audio/video file
a. Alpha file
b. Beta file
c. Metafile
d. Jitter
8. A _______ changes the format of a highbandwidth video signal to a lower-quality

narrow-bandwidth signal
a. Timestamp
b. Sequence number
c. Mixer
d. Translator
2. _______ is a control protocol that adds

functionalities to the streaming process.
a. RTSP
b. HTTP
c. TCP/IP
d. SIP
9. An RTP packet is encapsulated in

a(n)_______.
a. UDP user diagram
b. TCP segment
c. IP datagram
d. RTCP packet
3. The audio/video stream is sent by the media

server to the _______.
a. Browser
b. Web server
c. Media player
10. TCP is not suitable for real-time traffic

because _______.
a. There is no provision for timestamping
b. There is no support for multicasting
c. Missing packets are retransmitted
d. All of the above
4. A _______ shows when a packet was

produced relative to the first or previous packet.
a. Timestamp
b. Playback buffer
c. Sequence number
d. Threshold
11. JPEG encoding involves _______, a process

that reveals the redundancies in a block.
a. Blocking
b. The DCT
c. Quantization
d. Vectorization
5. _______ are used to number the packets of a

real-time transmission.
a. Timestamps
b. Playback buffers
c. Sequence numbers
d. Translators
12. The last step in JPEG, _______, removes

redundancies.
a. Blocking
b. Quantization
c. Compression
d. Vectorization
6. In a real-time video conference, data from the

server are _______ to the client sites.
a. Unicast
b. Multicast
c. Broadcast
13. The RTCP _______ message shuts down a

stream.
a. Aplication-specific
b. Bye
c. Source description
d. Farewell
7. A _______ adds signals from different sources

to create a single signal.
a. Timestamp
b. Sequence number
c. Mixer
d. Translator
14. The RTCP _______ report informs the sender

and other receivers about the quality of service.
a. Sender
b. Receiver
c. QoS
d. Passive

Chapter 28: Multimedia
15. Voice over IP is a(n) _______ audio/video
application.
a. Streamin stored
b. Streaming live
c. Interactive
16. _______ is an application layer protocol that
establishes, maintains, and terminates a
multimedia session.
a. SIP
b. RTCP
c. DCT
d. JPEG
17. _______ is a SIP message type.
a. INVITE
b. CANCEL
c. OPTION
d. All of the above
18. A _______ is involved in an SIP mechanism
to find the IP address of a callee.
a. Proxy server
b. Register
c. Media server
d. a and b
19. A standard that allows a telephone
(connected to a public telephone network) to
talk to a computer connected to the Internet is
_______.
a. IEEE 802.3
b. SIP
c. H.323
d. V.90bis
20. _______ is a protocol to set up and terminate
a connection between a computer on the
Internet and a telephone (connected to a public
telephone network).
a. H.323
b. Q.931
c. H.245
d. H.225

Chapter 29: CRYPTOGRAPHY
1. Before a message is encrypted, it is called
_______.
a. Plaintext
b. Ciphertext
c. Cryptotext
d. Cryptonite
2. After a message is decrypted, it is called
_______.
a. Plaintext
b. Ciphertext
c. Cryptotext
d. Cryptonite
3. A cipher is _______.
a. An encryption algorithm
b. A decryption algorithm
c. A private key
d. (a) or (b)
4. In the symmetric-key method of
cryptography, which key is publicly known?
a. Encryption key only
b. Decryption key only
c. Both
d. None of the Above
5. If 20 people need to communicate using
symmetric-key cryptography, ____ symmetric
keys are needed.
a. 19
b. 20
c. 190
d. 200
6. The _______ is an example of polyalphabetic
substitution.
a. P-box
b. S-box
c. Product block
d. Vigenere cipher
7. The _________ is a block cipher.
a. P-box
b. S-box
c. Product block
d. All the above
8. We use a cryptography method in which the

character Z always substitutes for the character
G. This is probably ___________.
a. Monoalphabetic substitution
b. Polyalphabetic substitution
c. Transpositional
9. We use a cryptography method in which the
plaintext AAAAAA becomes the ciphertext
BCDEFG. This is probably ____________.
a. Monoalphabetic substitution
b. Polyalphabetic substitution
c. Transposition
10. One way to encrypt and decrypt long
messages is through the use of the _______.
a. ECB mode
b. CBC mode
c. CFM
d. All of the Above
11. An initialization vector is needed in the
_____________.
a. CSM
b. CBC mode
c. CVF
d. a and b
12. In the __________, the encryption of each 8byte block is independent of the other
a. ECB mode
b. CBC mode
c. CVF
d. CSM
13. In the public key method of cryptography,
which key is publicly known?
a. Encryption key only
b. Decryption key only
c. Both

Chapter 29: CRYPTOGRAPHY
14. In the public-key method of cryptography,
only the receiver has possession of the
__________.
a. Private key
b. Public key
c. Both keys
15. The RSA algorithm uses a __________
cryptography method.
a. Public-key
b. Private-key
c. Symmetric-key
d. Denominational

Chapter 30: Message Security, User
Authentication and Key Management
1. If user A wants to send an encrypted
message to user B, the Plaintext is encrypted
with the public key of _______.
a. User A
b. User B
c. The network
d. a or b
2. When symmetric-key encryption is combined
with private-key encryption, the _______ key is
encrypted with the public key.
a. Private
b. Public
c. Symmetric
d. Skeleton
3. In the digital signature technique, the sender
of the message uses _______ to create
ciphertext.
a. His or her own symmetric key
b. His or her own private key
c. His or her public key
d. The receivers private key
4. In the digital signature technique, the
receiver of the message uses _______ to create
plaintext.
a. His or her own symmetric key
b. His or her own private key
c. His or her own public key
d. The senders public key
5. A _______ is a trusted third party that solves
the problem of symmetric-key distribution.
a. CA
b. KDC
c. TLS
d. Firewall
6. A _______ certifies the bonding between a
public key and its owner.
a. CA
b. KDC
c. TLS
d. Firewall
7. In a _______ attack, a message captured by

an intruder is illegally sent a second time.
a. Return
b. Man-in-the-middle
c. Bucket brigade
d. Replay
8. A _______ is a large number used only once
that helps distinguish a fresh authentication
request from a repeated one.
a. Ticket
b. Nonce
c. Realm
d. Public key
9. In an authentication using symmetric keys, if
10 people need to communicate, we need
_______ keys.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 45
d. 90
10. In the _______ protocol, the symmetric key
is K = Gxy mod N, where G and N are public
numbers.
a. Diffie-Hellman
b. Needham-Schroeder
c. Otway Rees
d. Kerberos
11. In a ________ attack, an intruder comes
between two communicating parties,
intercepting and replying to their messages.
a. Return
b. Man-in-the-Middle
c. Bucket-in-the-Middle
d. Replay
12. A _______ is a trusted third party that
establishes a symmetric key between two
parties who wish to communicate.
a. KDC
b. CA
c. PKI
d. TGS

Chapter 30: Message Security, User
Authentication and Key Management
13. In the _______ protocol, a nonce is
decremented by 1 so that an intruder cannot
send the exact same message a second time.
a. Diffie-Hellman
c. Otway Rees
d. Kerberos
14. _______ is an authentication protocol that
needs an authentication server and a ticketgranting server.
a. Diffie-Hellman
c. Otway Rees
d. Kerberos
15. The _______ is the KDC in the Kerberos
protocol.
a. AS
b. TGS
c. Real server
d. Data server
16. The _______ issues tickets for the real
server.
a. AS
b. TGS
c. Real server
d. Data server
17. In _______-key cryptography, everyone has
access to all the public keys.
a. Private
b. Symmetric
c. Public
d. Certified
18. A protocol called _______ describes the
certificate issued by a CA in a structural way.
a. X.509
b. CA level 1
c. KDC
d. Kerberos
19. Windows 2000 uses an authentication
protocol called ________.
a. Diffie-Hellman
c. Otway Rees
d. Kerberos

Chapter 31: Virtual Private Network
1. IPSec requires a logical connection between
two hosts using a signalling protocol called
_____.
a. AH
b. SA
c. PGP
d. TLS
7. A _____ can forward or block packets based

on the information in the network layer and the
transport layer headers.
a. Proxy firewall
b. Packet-filter firewall
c. Message digest
d. Private key
2. The handshake protocol and data exchange

protocol are part of _____.
a. CA
b. KDC
c. TLS
d. SSH
8. The _____ field in the authentication header

and the ESP header define the security method
used in creating the authenication data.
a. Padding
b. Sequence number
c. Authenticatiin data
d. SPI
3. _____ is a collection of protocols that provide

security at the IP layer level.
a. TLS
b. SSH
c. PGP
d. IPSec
9. _____ is a transport layer security protocol.

a. TLS
b. PGP
c. IPSec
d. AH
4. _____ is an IP layer security protocol that

only provides integrity and authentication.
a. AH
b. PGP
c. ESP
d. IPSec
10. A method to provide for the security

transport of email is called _____.
a. TLS
b. SA
c. PGP
d. IPSec
5. _____ is an IP layer security protocol that

provides privacy as well as integrity and
authentication.
a. AH
b. PGP
c. ESP
d. IPSec
11. A _____ can forward or block messages

based on the information in the message itself.
a. Proxy firewall
b. Packet filter firewall
c. Message digest
d. Private key
6. An IP datagram carries an authentication

header if the _____ field of the IP header has a
value of 51.
a. Next-header
b. Protocol
c. Security parameter index
d. Sequence number
12. A _____ network is totally isolated from the

global Internet.
a. Private
b. Hybrid
c. Virtual private
d. Any of the above
13. A _____ network can use a leased line for
intraorganization communication and the
Internet for interorganization communication.
a. Private
b. Hybrid
c. Virtual private
d. Any of the above

Chapter 31: Virtual Private Network
14. A
a.
b.
c.
d.
VPN uses _____ to guarantee privacy.

IPSec
Tunneling
Both a and b
None of the above
15. In a VPN, _____ encrypted.

a. The inner datagram is
b. The outer datagram is
c. Both inner and outer diagram are
d. Neither the inner nor the outer datagram
is
16. Tunneling is a technique in which the IP
diagram is first _____ and then _____.
a. Encapsulated in another
datagram;encrypted
b. Encrypted;encapsulated in another
datagram
c. Authenticated;encrypted
d. Encrypted;authenticated
17. An _____ is a private network with no
external access that uses the TCP/IO suite.
a. Internet
b. internet
c. Intranet
d. Extranet
18. An _____ is a private network with limited
external access that uses the TCP/IP suite.
a. Internet
b. internet
c. Intranet
d. Extranet

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