1000 Questions - Instruments (With Answers)

PITOT STATICS
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
a)
b)
c)
In case of accidental closing of an aircrafts left static pressure port (rain, birds), the
altimeter?
Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct
information during symmetric flight.
Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations.
Under reads the altitude.
Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct
information during symmetric flight.
If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and
another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal?
At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning
normally.
ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
An Air Data Computer (ADC)?
Measures position error in the static
provide correct altitude reporting.
Transforms air data measurements
instruments.
Is an auxiliary system that provides
source is blocked.
Converts air data measurements given
altitude and speed information.
system and transmits this information to ATC to

into electric impulses driving servo motors in
altitude information in the event that the static
by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from?

The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage.
Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT).
Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and
back.
Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage.
In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is
an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake?
Breaking the rate-of climb indicator glass window.
Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as
possible.
Calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting
the instruments
The altimeter consist of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The
pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively?
(i) Static pressure
(ii) Total pressure
(i) Vacuum (or very low pressure)
(ii) Static pressure
(i) Static pressure at time t
(ii) static pressure at time t-t
2
d)
(i) Total pressure
7.
From the ISA table at page 35, the atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a standard + 10
atmosphere is?
781.85 hPa
942.13 hPa.
1013.25 hPa.
644.41 hPa
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
(ii) Static pressure.
The QNH is by definition the value of the?

Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the
location for which it is provided.
Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft.
Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the
location for which it is given.
Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
During a climb after take-off form a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of
the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot that indicated airspeed?
Decreases abruptly towards zero.
Increases steadily
Increases abruptly towards VNE.
Decreases steadily.
10. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate
in descent a?
a) Increasing speed.
b) Fluctuating speed
c) Decreasing speed.
d) Constant speed.
11. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and
finds that the indicated airspeed?
a) Increases steadily.
b) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
c) Decreases steadily
d) Increases abruptly towards VNE.
12. The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies
substantially with the?
a) Static temperature.
b) Mach number of the aircraft.
c) Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d) Aircraft altitude.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
3
14.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?

Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
Bi-metallic strip.
Return spring.
Second calibrated port.
15. The density altitude is?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual
density of the atmosphere.
The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and
standard temperature.
The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.
ALT (BAROMETRIC ALTIMETERS)

1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?

Time passed at a given altitude.
Mach number of the aircraft
Aircraft altitude.
Static temperature.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?
Under read.
Be just as correct as before.
Show the actual height above ground.
Over read.
3.
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not
exceed?
+/-60 feet.
+/-75 feet.
+/-30 feet.
+/-70 feet.
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is?
Equal to the standard altitude.
Lower than the real altitude.
The same as the real altitude.
Higher than the real altitude.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?

Allow damping of the measurement in the unit.
Reduce the hysteresis effect.
Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
Inform the crew of a failure of the instrument
4
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent
with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates?
-300 ft/min
-150 ft/min.
-250 ft/min.
-500 ft/min
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere
layers below the aircraft are warm is?
Equal to the standard altitude.
Higher than the real altitude.
The same as the real altitude.
Lower than the real altitude.
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate then the
simple pressure altimeter is the use of?
A sub-scale logarithmic function.
An induction pick-off device.
More effective temperature compensating leaf springs.
Combination of counters/pointers.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a static
vent at each side of the fuselage, but the left one is blocked?
Over read
Under read.
No change.
Depends on altitude.
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
From what is true altitude derived?

Pressure altitude.
Density altitude.
Temperature altitude.
Difference between total pressure and static pressure.
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What is QNH?
Ambient pressure at the airfield.
Sea level pressure based on ambient pressure at the airfield.
See level pressure.
Sea level pressure in the ISA.
12. What is QNH?

a) Ambient pressure at msl.
b) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of zero on the
runway.
c) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the pressure
altitude of the runway.
d) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain density altitude when on the
runway.
13. What is the true altitude of an aircraft if its altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the
ambient temperature was -30 C?
a) 15200 ft.
b) 15400 ft.
5
c)
d)
16200 ft.
16400 ft.
14. What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a
warmer air mass?
a) Over indicate.
b) Under indicate.
c) Not change.
d) Remain constant only if above the tropopause.
15.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What is density altitude?

Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.
True altitude.
Pressure altitude corrected for density changes.
True altitude corrected for density changes.
16. What will happen if an aircraft has two altimeters, one of which is compensated for
position error, whilst the other is not?
a) One will over read at high airspeeds.
b) One will under read at high airspeeds.
c) One will under read close to the ground.
d) The ADC will compensate automatically, so both with read correctly.
17.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?

Overcome friction.
Overcome inertia.
Overcome hysterisis.
Reduce lag.
18.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight enters a cold front?
Over indication.
Under indication.
No change.
No change above the tropopause.
RADIO ALTIMETERS
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. this is an
indication of the true.
Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
Altitude of the aircraft.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the?
Height indication is removed.
DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds.
DH lamp flashes red.
Audio warning signal sounds.
3.
a)
A radio altimeter can be defined as a?

Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
6
b)
c)
d)
Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
4.
The data supplied by a radio altimeter?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.

Concerns only the decision height.
Is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
Is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:

Operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.
Are of the pulsed type.
Are of the frequency modulation type.
Have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
Have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.
The combination of the correct statements is?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3, 5.
3, 4.
2, 3, 4.
2, 3, 4.
1, 2, 5.
6.
d)
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on
the ground. For this, it is necessary to?
Change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.
Compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial
cables length.
Account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the
readings.
Place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.
7.
a)
b)
The operating frequency range of a altitude radio altimeter is?

2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.
5 GHz
c)
d)
4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.

5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band?
HF (High Frequency).
UHF (Ultra High frequency).
SHF (Super High Frequency).
VLF (Very Low Frequency).
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on?

Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation,
Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
a)
b)
c)
7
10. In low altitude radio altimeters height measurement (above ground) is based upon?
a) A triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between
transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.
b) A frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the
transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.
c) A pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on
a circular scanning screen.
d) A wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground
reflection is measured.
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
the aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the?
Weathe radar.
Primary radar.
Radio altimeter.
High altitude radio altimeter.
12.
a)
b)
c)
d)
a radio altimeter is?

Aircraft based and indicates true altitude.
Aircraft based and indicates pressure altitude.
Aircraft based and indicates true height.
Ground based and employ microwaves.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Radio altimeters are based on the principle of?

Frequency modulated carrier wave.
Pulse modulated carrier wave.
Amplitude modulated carrier wave.
Continuous wave.
14.
a)
b)
c)
d)
For the landing configuration a radio altimeter indicates?

For the landing configuration a radio altimeter indicates?
Height of the flight deck above the ground.
Height of the main wheel above the ground.
Altitude.
15.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Low altitude radio altimeters operate on the .. Waveband?

HF.
VHF.
UHF.
SHF.
VSI (VERTICAL SPEED INDICATORS)

1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

The VSI indication will be too low when climbing.
The VSI will be too low when descending.
The VSI will not be affected.
The VSI will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.
2.
a)
b)
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

The VSI indication will be too high when descending.
The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating.
8
c)
d)
The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.

The VSI indication will be unaffected.
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
VSI lag is reduced by?

Two dashpots responding to acceleration.
Two return springs.
Bi-metallic strips.
Electronic systems.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?

The VSI indication will be too high when climbing.
The VSI indication will be too low when descending.
The VSI indication will be too high at all times.
The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The correct action to be taken when the static vent blocks on an unpressurised aircraft is
to?
Break the VSI glass.
Use the standby static source.
Calculate ROC using mathematically.
Open a window the equalise pressures.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
If the casing of a VSI in a pressurised aircraft develops a leak?

VSI indications will be too low when climbing or descending.
VSI indications will be too high when climbing or descending.
VSI indications will be too low when climbing and too high when descending.
VSI indications will be too high when climbing and too low when descending.
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A VSI?
Produces an output proportional to ambient pressure.
Measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure.
Measures the difference between the pressure inside and outside a capsule.
Measures only dynamic pressure.
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A VSI indicates increasing ROD by?

VSI needle moving downwards.
VSI needle moving upwards.
VSI needle stationary.
The VSI indicates only vertical speeds, not accelerations.
9.
As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might?
a)
Become inaccurate due to ground effect.

Become inaccurate due to turbulence.
Stick due to loss of pitot source.
Become inaccurate due to aircraft attitude changes.
b)
c)
d)
10. What should the VSI indicate when an aircraft on a 3 degree glideslope is flying at 100
Kts TAS?
a) 224 fpm descent.
b) 324 fpm descent.
c) 424 fpm descent.
d) 524 fpm descent.
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

The VSI indication will be too high with descending.
The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating at constant descending.
The VSI indication will be too low at all times.
The VSI indication will be too low when descending.
12.
a)
b)
c)
d)
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

The VSI indication will over read when descending.
The VSI will be unaffected.
The VSI will over under read at all times.
The VSI will read zero at all times.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?

Accelerometer system.
Choke system.
Bi-metalic compensator.
Return spring.
14. If the port static vent of a large aircraft is blocked, what will happen to the VSI
indications when it is side slipping to the left in a descent?
a) Over indicate.
b) Under indicate.
c) Be unaffected.
d) Fluctuate.
AIRSPEED INDICATORS
1. What does the barbers pole used on some ASIs indicate?
a) MMO.
b) VNE.
c) TAS.
d) Temperature and VMO.
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
a.
b.
What speed is VNO?

That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.
That which may never be exceeded
That which may be exceeded only in emergencies
The maximum at which fully control deflection is possible without overstressing
the aircraft structure
From what is VMO calculated?
TAS.
EAS.
CAS.
RAS.
What will be the effect is the drain hole and pitot tapping in a probe are blocked,
whilst the static source remains open?
The ASI will respond to changes in pressure altitude only.
The ASI will not respond
10
c. The ASI will under read at all speeds
d. The ASI will over read when accelerant, declaring, climbing or descending
5. What do the upper and lower limits of the limits of the yellow arc on an ASI
represent?
a. VNE and VNO.
b. VNO and VNE.
c. VMO and VNE.
d. VNO and VMO.
6. If the pitot source and drain become blocked by ice when in cruse flight, how will
the ASI respond when descending?
a. It will under read.
b. It will over read.
c. It will read zero in all condition.
d. It will remain fixed at the reading at which it became blocked.
7. At mst in the ISA?
a. CAS = TAS
b. IAS = TAS
c. IAS = EAS
d. CAS = TAS
8. In an ASI system, what does the pitot probe measure?
a. Total pressure.
b. Dynamic pressure.
c. Static pressure.
d. Ambient pressure.
9. What does the blue line on a twin engine piston aircraft ASI indicate?
a. VXSE.
b. VNO.
c. VNE.
d. VYSE.
10. What are indicated by the lower and upper ends of the white are on an ASI?
a. VS1 and VFE.
b. VS0 and VFE.
c. VFE and VFO.
d. VSE and VNE.
11. VFE is the?
a. Maximum speed at which the aircraft is permitted to fly with its flaps
extended.
b. Maximum speed at which the flaps can be extended or retracted.
c. The minimum speed for flaps up flight.
d. The maximum speed for flaps up flight.
12. What will be the effect on the ASI the pitot tube of an unpressurised aircraft is
fractured and the pitot drain is blocked.
a. It will over read.
b. It will under read.
c. It will give a constant reading.
d. It will read zero at will speeds.
11
13. At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift off at the same?
a. CAS.
b. TAS.
c. Ground speed.
d. EAS.
14. CAS is?
a. EAS corrected for position error and compressibility error.
b. IAS corrected for position error and instrument error.
c. TAS corrected for instrument error and ram effect.
d. IAS corrected for density error and position error.
15. When descending from FL400 and attending to maintain maximum groundspeed,
airspeed will be limited by?
a. VNE then VMO.
b. VNO then VNE.
c. MMO then VMO.
d. VMO then MMO.
AIRSPEEDS
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a
high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the
maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited?
By the MMO.
By the VMO in still air.
Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.
Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is?
Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at
the same?
Calibrated airspeed.
Ground speed.
True airspeed.
Equivalent airspeed.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS)?
A compressibility and density correction.
An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
An antenna and compressibility correction.
An instrument and density correction.
5.
a)
b)
The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in?

True airspeed (TAS).
Computed airspeed (COAS).
12
c)
d)
Calibrated airspeed (CAS).

Equivalent airspeed (EAS).
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
the limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are?

VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?

VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit.
VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
8.
a)
b)
c)
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are?

VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
d)
VNE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed
(CAS)?
The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
VLE is the maximum?

Speed authorized in flight.
Flight speed with landing gear down.
Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
VLO is the maximum?

Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
Flight speed with landing gear down.
Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
12.
a)
b)
c)
d)
VNE is the maximum speed?

At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.]
With flaps extended in landing position
Which must never be exceeded.
Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
VNO is the maximum speed?

Which must never be exceeded.
At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
With flaps extended in landing position.
Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
13
14. For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature
will result in a?
a) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
c) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
d) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
15. When a climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions,
the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will?
a) Decrease.
b) Increase at a linear rate.
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase at an exponential rate.
MACH
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at FL 270
when it experiences a reduction in OAT?
No change.
Increase.
Decrease.
Increase or decrease depending on TAT.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What is the LSS at 30000 ft if ambient temperature is -40 C?

579 Kts.
660 Kts.
584 Kts.
594 Kts.
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the following best defines Mach number?

The ratio at TAS:LSS.
The ratio of LSS:TAS
The ratio of CAS:LSS
The ratio of ambient density to that at msl in the ISA.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A mach meter comprises of?

A combination of ASI and altimeter.
A combination of VSI and altimeter.
An ASI with its scale marked in mach numbers.
An altimeter with its scale marked in mach numbers.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
what us tge KSS at 40000 ft in the ISA?

542 Kts.
660 Kts.
573 Kts.
550 Kts.
6.
a)
b)
How ill mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb?

Increase.
Decrease.
14
c)
d)
Increase then remain constant.

Remain constant.
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
what is the LSS at msl ISA?

600 Kts.
550 Kts.
750 Kts.
661 Kts.
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Mach meter indications?

Vary with airspeed and temperature
Vary only with airspeed.
Vary only with temperature.
Vary with density and altitude.
9.
How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when
flying at constant CAS and altitude?
increase
a)
b)
c)
d)
Decrease.
Remain constant.
Increase or decrease depending. On altitude.
10. How will the mach meter respond in a constant CAS climb if the static source becomes
blocked?
a) increase
b)
c)
d)
Decrease.
Remain constant
Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.
11. How will the mach meter respond in a constant TAS climb if the static source becomes
blocked?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Increase.
Decrease
Remain constant.
Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.
12. How will mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static source
becomes blocked?
a) Increase.
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The indications on a mach meter are independent of?

Dynamic pressure.
Ambient temperature.
Static pressure.
Total pressure.
14. What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb?

a) Increases.
b) Decreases.
15
c)
d)
Increases then remains constant.

Increases unless in an inversion or isothermal layer.
15. What would happen if the static pipe became detached from the back of a mach meter in
a pressurised aircraft at high altitude?
a) Under read.
b) Over read.
c) No effect.
d) Under read or over read depending on temperature.
GYROSCOPE
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the
concentration of the mass?
Close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.
On the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
Close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
On the periphery and with a low rotation speed.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A Standby horizon or emergency attitude indicator?

Only works of there is a complete electrical failure.
Contains its own separate gyro.
Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails.
Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation.
3.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The
The
The
The
The
The
basis properties of a gyroscope are?

gyros weight.
rigidity in space.
inertia.
high RPM.
precession
The combination of correct statements is?

a. 3, 4.
b. 2, 5.
c. 2, 3, 5.
d. 1, 3, 5.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
The indications of the directional gyro when used as an on-board instrument are valid
only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are?
The earths rotation.
The longitudinal acceleration.
The aircrafts motion over the surface of the earth.
The mechanical defects of the gyro.
The gyros weight.
The gimbals mount of the gyro rings.

a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
c. 2, 5, 6.
16
d.
1, 3, 4, 6.
5.
The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass system
are?
One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is
maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference
direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
Two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained
in this direction by an erecting system.
One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on?
An artificial horizon
A directional gyro unit.
A turn indicator.
A gyro-magnetic indicator.
7.
When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot
observes the following on a classic artificial horizon?
Too much nose-up and bank correct.
Too much nose-up and bank too high.
Attitude and bank correct.
Too much nose-up and bank too low.
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot
observes the following on a classic artificial horizon?
Too much nose-up and bank too high.
Too much nose-up and bank too low.
Attitude and bank correct.
Too much nose-up and bank correct.
Note: in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of
gimbal rings it comprises. Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon
plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with?
Two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to
local vertical by an automatic erecting system.
Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is
maintained in a horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.
One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to
the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
a slaved directional gyro derives its directional signal from?
a direct reading magnetic compass.
The flight director.
The flux valve.
The air-data-computer.
17
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
a turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with?

1 degree of freedom.
12. the indication on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to:
1. Rotation of Earth.
2. Aeroplane motion on Earth.
3. Lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4. North change.
5. Mechanical defects.
Choose the combination with true statements only?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2, 3, 5.
1, 2, 3, 5.
3, 4, 5.
1, 2, 4, 5.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the?
Angular velocity of the aircraft.
Yaw rate of the aircraft.
Pitch rate of the aircraft.
Roll rate of he aircraft.
14. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal
spin axis is?
a) An artificial horizon.
b) A turn indicator.
c) A fluxgate compass.
d) A directional gyro.
15. When, in flight, the needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the
aircraft is?
a) Turning left with too much bank
b) Turning right with not enough bank
c) Turning right with too much bank
d) Turning left with not enough bank
ATTITUDE
1.
How many degrees of freedom and what is the spin axis of an attitude indicator?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Local earth vertical two degrees of freedom.

Aircraft lateral axis two degrees of freedom.
Aircraft horizontal axis one degree of freedom.
Aircraft longitudinal axis three degrees of freedom.
18
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What could be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn?

Climb due to pendulous vanes.
No climb.
Descent due to pendulous vanes.
Correct pitch and bank at all times.
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at
constant attitude and bank angle?
Correct bank angle and attitude.
Too much bank and too much nose up attitude.
Too little bank and too little nose up attitude.
Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
An AI has?
one degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
One degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
How will a basic AI respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn at constant bank
angle and ROT?
Nose up and bank
Nose down and bank
Nose level and bank
Correct bank and pitch.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aircraft attitude is indicated on?

EICAS/ECAM primary display.
EFIS ND.
EFIS PFD.
All of the above.
7.
when turning through 90 at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic
artificial horizon indicate?
Too much nose up and too little bank angle.
Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
Too little nose up and too much bank angle.
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
when turning through 270 at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic
artificial horizon indicate?
Too much nose up and too little bank angle.
Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
Too little nose up and too much bank angle.
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
an artificial horizon has?

Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis
Two degrees of freedom and a longitudinal spin axis.
Two degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
No degrees of freedom because it is earth tied.
10. The latitude nut an artificial horizon?
19
a)
b)
c)
d)
Compensates for transport error.

Is not fitted to.
Compensates for latitude error.
Compensates for earth rate errors.
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
the gravity sensing unit in an artificial horizon is used to?

prevent tilting of the gyro
prevent precession of the gyro.
Erect the gyro.
Provide signals to the autopilot.
12.
a)
b)
c)
d)
classic artificial horizon indications turning through 180 at constant AOB?

Nose up and AOB too low.
Nose up and AOB too high.
Nose up and correct AOB.
Pitch attitude and AOB correct.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
An artificial horizon has. Degrees of freedom in the axis?

Two
vertical.
Two
horizontal.
One
vertical.
One
horizontal.
14. Which or the following properties are possessed by a standby artificial horizon?
1. Independent power supply.
2. Integral gyro.
3. Remote (external) gyro.
4. Used only in emergencies.
5. At least one per pilot in JAR 25 aircraft.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2.
2, 3.
3, 4.
4, 5.
15. If an aircraft turns through 270 at a constant rate of turn and AOB, the indications on
its classic artificial horizon will be?
a) Bank left nose up.
b) Bank right nose up.
c) Wings level nose up.
d) AOB and pitch attitude correct.
TURN AND SLIP

1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is ..by ..and .indicate/s the state
of slip?
Held central
Gravity
Does not always.
Positioned
Acceleration
Does not always.
Held central
Gravity
Always.
Positioned
Acceleration
Always.
20
2.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The turn indicator is affected by?

AOB.
Airspeed.
Weight.
Altitude.
a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 4, 5.
3.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator will show?

Turn direction.
Rate of turn.
Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.
Angular velocity about the aircraft vertical axis.
Angular velocity about the longitudinal axis.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2.
1, 3.
1, 2, 4.
2, 3, 5.
4.
ROT indications are?
a)
Proportional to TAS.
Proportional to CAS.
Proportional to mass.
Proportional to EAS.
b)
c)
d)
5.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
A turn indicator has?

A horizontal spin axis.
A vertical spin axis.
One degree of freedom.
Two degrees of freedom.
A spin axis tied to the yawing plane of the aircraft.
A gravity erecting unit.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 3.
1, 5.
3, 5.
4, 6.
6.
When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the
aircraft is?
Turning right with insufficient bank.
Turning right with too much bank.
Turning left with too much bank.
Turning left with insufficient bank.
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
a)
b)
When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the
aircraft is?
Turning right with too much TAS.
Turning right with insufficient TAS.
21
c)
d)
Turning left with too much TAS.

Turning left with insufficient TAS.
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
When the needle is displaced right and the ball displaced left, in a turn and slip
indicator, the aircraft is?
Turning right with insufficient bank.
Turning left with too much bank.
Turning left with insufficient TAS.
Turning right with too much bank.
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The turn needle indicates .. in a slightly banked turn?

Angular velocity about the vertical axis.
Angular acceleration about the vertical axis.
Angular velocity about the lateral axis.
Yaw displacement.
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A rate 1 turn at 120 kts requires?

10 AOB.
20 AOB.
30 AOB.
40 AOB.
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?
Needle and ball right.
Needle and ball left.
Needle right and ball left.
Needle left and ball right.
12.
1.
2.
3.
ROT indications depend on?

Airspeed.
Mass.
AOB.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2.
2, 3.
1, 3.
1, 2, 3.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
For a rate one turn at 150 Kts the AOB must be?
22.
33.
44.
55.
14. Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to arrest the
yaw, whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the ailerons. What will
the turn and slip indicator show in this condition.
a) Both needle and ball central.
b) Both needle and ball right.
c) Both needle and ball left.
d) Needle left and ball right.
22
15. Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to oppose
yaw and keep the aircraft on heading, whilst using bank to prevent side slip. What will
the turn and slip indicator show?
a) Both needle and ball central
b) Both needle and ball right.
c) Both needle and ball left.
d) Needle central and ball right.
INS, IRS AND FMS

1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What is the Schuler period?

48 minutes.
84 seconds.
48 seconds.
84 minutes.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
to obtain heading information from a gryo-stabilised platform, the gyros should be?
1 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis.
1 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis.
2 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis.
2 degree of freedom and a vertical axis.
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a

device with the following characteristics,. In order to keep the vertical line with the
pendulous system?
With damping and a period of about 84 minutes
With damping and a period of about 84 seconds.
Without damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
Without damping and a period of about 84 seconds.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Heading information given by a gyro platform is given by a gyro with?

3 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis.
3 degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis.
2 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis.
1 degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis.
5.
a)
b)
c)
the ALERT light on an INS control and display unit?

illuminates steadily for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint.
Flashes for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint.
Illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system is operating
on standby battery.
Illuminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next leg is
programmed in.
d)
6.
a)
b)
c)
At the second state of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance gone. To
convert this departure into change of longitude it has to?
Be divided by the secant of latitude.
Be multiplied by the secant of latitude.
Be divided by the tangent of latitude.
23
d)
Be multiplied by the Cosine of latitude.
7.
An INS with the accelerometers aligned N/S and E/W is limited to use at latitudes below
about 82. This is because?
It loses horizontal reference as dip becomes large.
At high speed on East or West tracks the rate of convergency is faster than the azimuth
motor can correct.
The functions of secant latitude and tangent altitude used in certain corrections in
the computer start to approach infinity and the computer cannot handle the rapid
changes involved.
The correction for the Coriolis Effect of the earth rotation approaches infinity above 82
latitude.
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The errors of INS fall into three categories?

Bounded, unbounded and velocity.
Coriolis, unbounded and inherent.
Bounded, unbounded and inherent.
Bounded, unbounded and accelerometer.
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The vertical reference unit of a three axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with?
1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
1 degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
2 degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
10. With reference to Inertial Navigation Systems, the functions of the integrator are?
1. At the second stage integration to suppress unbounded errors (when in nav mode).
2. At the first stage of integration to convert accelerations with respect to time, into
speed, (when in nav mode).
3. at the second stage of integration to convert speed with respect to time, into distance
gone, (when in nav mode).
4. To align the platform (when in level and align modes).
a.
b.
c.
d.
All of the above statements are correct.

Only statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
Only statements 1, 2 and 3, are correct.
Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ring laser gyros use dither motors to?

Reduce random wander.
Prevent unbounded errors.
Level and align the gyros.
Prevent lock in of the laser beams.
12.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The product of the first integration of the E/W acceleration sensed by an INS system is?
Departure.
Speed along the local parallel.
Speed along the local horizontal.
Distance.
13. Why is an INS platform virtually unusable at very high latitudes?
24
a)
b)
c)
d)
The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on
the sine lat. At high latitudes this component id nearly zero and makes alignment to true
north virtually impossible.
the sine lat. At high altitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to true
magnetic virtually impossible.
the cosine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to
magnetic north virtually impossible.
The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component
dependent on the cosine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and
makes alignment to true north virtually impossible.
14.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A longitude error in an INS will cause:

A failure to align.
Poor alignment degraded accuracy.
Will be corrected for once the E/W accelerometer has aligned to true north.
Will cause no problems at all.
15.
a)
b)
c)
d)
When using an INS platform coriolis affects?

The N/S accelerometer.
The E/W accelerometer.
Both a, and b.
Neither a, nor b.
EFIS
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cautionary information on an EHSI is displayed in?

Cyan.
Red or Magenta.
Yellow or Amber.
White.
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to?

Weather.
Piloting.
Engines and alarms.
Systems.
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Decision height is?

Calculated by the Flight management Computer.
Displayed on the EADI, and set by the pilot using the EFIS control panel.
Displayed on the EADI using the FMC inputs.
Pre-set automatically by the autopilt system.
4.
The symbol below when shown on an EHSI display represents?
25
a)
b)
c)
d)
The selected track and track reference.

The selected heading and heading reference.
The heading orientation, current heading, heading reference and heading pointer.
The track orientation, current track, track reference and track pointer.
5.
In addition to altitude and auto flight modes, what information is also typically
displayed on an EADI?
Engine indications and systems information.
Altitude, speed and sometimes heading information.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Speed, altitude, ILS localizer and Glide Slope information, and sometimes heading
information.
Altitude, groundspeed, heading and wind speed and direction.
6.
1)
2)
3)
4)
Regarding the Electronic Flight Instruments System (EFIS).

The Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars.
The altimeter setting is displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD).
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) is the main flying instrument.
The Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) is part of the Navigation Display (ND).
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?

a) 1, 2.
b) 3, 4.
c) 1, 4.
d) 2, 3.
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Below which altitude does the radio altitude indication on an EADI appear within the
circular scale as a digital readout.
Above 2500 ft.
Below 1000 ft.
Below 2500 ft.
Above 1000 ft.
8.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
The weather Radar display data is available on all modes of the EFSI.
In PLAN mode, the Weather Radar data is inhibited on the EHSI.
The weather radar data is inhibited on the full and expanded NAV modes of the EHSI.
The Weather Radar data is only available on the PLAN mode of the EHSI.
b)
c)
d)
9.
a)
b)
c)
Radio altitude is shown on the EADI and changes from a digital display to a circular
scale?
At 2500 ft.
At 1000 ft and below AGL.
Below 1000 ft AGL.
26
d)
At DH.
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Weather Radar returns show as areas of precipitation in the following colours ?

Green Magenta, Yellow and Red.
Green, Orange, Yellow and Red.
Green, Yellow, Red and Magenta.
Green, Yellow, Magenta and Red.
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The heading reference used on the EHSI is?

True.
True or Magnetic.
Magnetic.
Compass.
12. In the displayed weather modes, the intensities of the returns in asending order of
intensity are?
a) Yellow, Green, Blue and red.
b) Yellow, Green, Red and Magenta.
c) Green, Yellow, Red and Magenta.
d) Blue, Green, Yellow and Red.
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The decision Height (DH) warning light illuminates when the aircraft?
Passes over the outer marker.
Descends below a pre set radio altitude.
Descends below a pre set barometric altitude.
Passes the ILS inner marker.
14. The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot while still looking outside, to
have?
a) A monitoring only CAT II precision approaches.
b) A flying and flight path control aid.
c) A synthetic view of the instrument procedure.
d) A monitoring of engine data.
15.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Weather radar data can not be displayed on the EHSI in which of the following maodes?
VOR.
ILS.
MAP.
PLAN.
AUTOFLIGHT
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to?

Tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required.
Help Auto Pilot to compensate for crosswind influence.
Trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation.
Control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load.
2.
a)
b)
c)
the purpose of Auto Throttle is?

Automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature.
To deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot.
To synchronize engines to avoid yawing.
27
d)
To maintain constant engine power or airplane speed.
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
in order to know in which mode the auto-throttles areengaged, the crew will check the?
ND (Navigation Display).
TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
Throttles position.
PFD (Primary Flight Display).
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Mode Localizer ARM active on Flight Director means?

Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized.
Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerline.
Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears.
System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing
centre line.
5.
a)
b)
the altitude select system?

Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at Selected altitude.
Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected
altitude.
Illuminates a light with selected altitude is attained.
Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude.
c)
d)
6.
1)
2)
3)
4)
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in
order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the?
Difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.
Rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous
attitude is high.
Temperature is low.
Pressure altitude is high.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2.
1, 2, 3, 4.
1, 2, 3.
2, 3, 4.
7.
the correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in order
to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the?
difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high.
Variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude
and the instantaneous attitude is high.
Difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous altitude is high.
Variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the instantaneous
altitude is high.
1)
2)
3)
4)
The combination regrouping the correct statements is?

a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, and 4.
1 and 2.
3 and 4
1, 2 and 3.
28
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot?

And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll.
Ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot
controls the power.
And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out.
And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the
human pilot controls the power.
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined aircraft for cargo
transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold the?
Heading.
Altitude.
Heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function.
Heading and to hold the altitude.
10. Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are?
1) Pitch attitude holding.
2) Horizontal wing holding.
3) Indicated airspeed or Mach number holding.
4) Altitude holding.
5) VOR axis holding.
6) Yaw damping.
The combination regrouping all the correct statement is?
a)
1, 3 , 4 and 5.
b) 3, 4 and 5.
c)
1, 2 and 6.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 6.
11. In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is normally
effected about the?
a)Pitch axis only.
1) Roll and yaw axes only.
1) Pitch roll and yaw axis.
2) Pitch and roll axis only.
12. A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger power
output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as?
1) An amplifier.
2) A feedback control circuit.
3) An autopilot.
4) A servomechanism.
13. Mach Trim is a device to compensate for?
1) Weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise.
2) Backing of the aerodynamic centre at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to noseup.
3) The effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal
tail.
4) The effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach.
29
14. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach trim
system?
1) it only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.
2) It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of
pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.
3) It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.
4) It operates over the full aircraft speed range.
15. A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when?
1) The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached
then is disengaged automatically.
2) The auto-throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is
disengaged automatically.
3) The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.
4) The auto-throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.
5) The flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3, 4 and 5.
1 and 4
2, 3 and 5
1 and 2
FLIGHT DIRECTOR
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the?

Control panel of the flight director only.
Upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).
Upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).
Upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).
2.
1).
2).
3)
4)
The essential components of a flight director are:

A computer.
An automatic pilot.
An autothrottle.
Command bars.

a. 2,4
b. 2,3
c. 1,4
d. 1,2
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot?

Allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45 intercept angle.
Allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30 intercept angle.
Allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.
About his position with regard to a radio-electric axis.
30
4.
Flight Director information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of

command bars on the following instrument?
ADI Attitude Display Indicator.
BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.
RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.
HIS Horizontal Situation Indicator.
a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
The heading hold mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to steer of
180. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160. The vertical bar of the FD?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cannot be centered.
Is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180.
Is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20.
Is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The Flight Director bars are?

Always visible in flight.
Always visible in automatic flight.
Sometimes visible in automatic flight.
Never visible in automatic flight.
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an?

HIS (Horizontal Situation Indicator).
RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator).
ILS (Instrument Landing System).
ADI (Attitude Director Indicator).
8)
An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend bars), heading 270,
in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of 360, is selected the vertical trend bar?
a) Deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10 off the new selected
heading.
b) Deviates to the right and will be centered as soon as you roll the aircraft to the
bank angle calculated by the flight director.
c) Deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached
heading 360.
d) Disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.
9)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The flight director indicates the?

Optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial.
Path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.
Path permitting reaching a selected redial over a minimum distance.
Optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial.
10)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The position of a Flight Director command bars?

Indicates the maneuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.
Repeats the ADI and HIS information.
Enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.
Only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.
11) An aircraft is flying on a heading of 275 and the autopilot is in the heading select mode.
What will the flight director command bars do if heading is changed to 350?
a) The roll bar will move to the right until the AFDS angle of bank required to
intercept is achieved. The bar will then centralize.
31
b)
c)
d)
Roll bar moves hard right then gradually centralizes as the difference between actual
heading and selected heading reduces.
Roll bar moves left until the actual heading matches the selected heading.
The roll bar does not move, but the system automatically regains the selected heading.
12) Flight director modes are displayed?
a)
b)
c)
d)
On
On
On
On
the EFIS primary flight display.

the EFIS nav display.
EICAS or ECAM.
the flight director control panel.
13)
a)
b)
c)
d)
On which instrument are the FD bars normally displayed?

EFIS ND.
EFIS PFD.
EICAS OR ECAM.
PPI.
14. Flight will the ADI vertical bar become centralized with 180 degrees is selected when
flying on a heading of 160 degrees?
a)
b)
c)
d)
When at the correct attitude to intercept 180 degrees.

When on a heading of 180 degrees.
When on a heading of 160 degrees.
When within 20 degree of 180 degrees.
15. If heading is set to 180 degrees when the aircraft is stable on 160 degrees, what will
happen to the vertical bar on the flight director?
a) Move left.
b) Move right.
c) Move down.
d) Remain central.
EICAS/ECAM 1
1.
a)
c)
d)
In a basic ECAM system?

The left screen show information in checklist and memo form, while the right
screen shows relevant diagrams.
The right screen shows information in checklist or memo form, whilst the left screen
shows the relevant diagrams.
The left screen is normally blank with the right showing primary engine data.
The right screen is normally blank with the left showing primary engine data.
2.
The basic ECAM system has?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Three automatic modes and one manual mode.

Four automatic modes and one manual mode.
Three manual modes and one automatic mode.
No manual modes.
3.
a)
b)
A message enclosed within a box?

Is used in EICAS to show a system which is unserviceable.
Is used in ECAM to show a system which is unserviceable.
b)
32
c)
d)
Is used in ECAM to show a system which although serviceable, is rendered nonoperational due to the failure of a different system.
Is used in ECAM to show a system which although serviceable, is rendered nonoperational due to the failure of a different system.
4.
ECAM provides?
a)
Information in checklist or memo format on the left or upper display and a

synoptic diagram on the right or lower display.
Information in checklist or memo format on the right or lower display and a synoptic
diagram on the left or upper display.
No information about the engines.
Information about the engines only on the right or lower displays.
b)
c)
d)
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
a)
If a screen fails in a basic (non-EFIS equipped) ECAM system?

The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in compacted
format on the other screen.
The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is provided on
conventional analogue displays.
The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED display.
c)
d)
If a screen fails in an advanced (EFIS equipped) ECAM system?

format on the other screen.
The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is provided on
conventional analogue displays.
7.
If a screen fails in a basic (non EFIS equipped) EICAS system?
a)
The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in

compacted format on the other screen
b)
The information that would normally be displayed on the screen is automatically

transferred to one of the EFIS screens.
b)
c)
d)
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
If a screen fails in an advanced (EFIS equipped) EICAS system?

format on the other screen
The information that would normally be displayed on the screen is automatically
transferred to one of the EFIS screens.
If an emergency occurs in an aircraft employing advanced ECAM?
The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the bottom left of the upper
display, together with corrective instructions in blue.
The nature of the problem is indicate in amber at the bottom left of the upper display,
together with corrective instructions in white.
The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the top left of the upper display.
The nature of the problem is indicated in red on the lower display.
33
10. If an emergency occurs in an aircraft employing advanced EICAS?

a) The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the bottom left of the upper display,
together with corrective instructions in blue.
b) The nature of the problem is indicate in amber at the bottom left of the upper display,
together with corrective instructions in white.
c) The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the top left of the upper display.
d) The nature o the problem is indicated in red on the lower display.
11. In EICAS?
a) Engine primary data such as N1, EGT and EPR are displayed constantly on the lower
screen, the upper screen remaining blank in normal flight.
b) Engine primary and secondary data plus flap, slat and flying control positions control
positions are displayed constantly on the upper screen, the lower screen remaining blank
throughout normal flight.
c) Engine primary and secondary data plus flap, slat and flying control positions are
displayed constantly on the lower screen, the upper screen remaining blank throughout
normal flight.
d) Engine primary data such as N1, EGT and EPR are displayed constantly on the
upper screen, the lower screen remaining blank in normal flight.
12.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The EICAS display modes are?

Operational, status and maintenance.
Normal, failure, status, manual.
Operational, status, manual, emergency.
Normal, manual, status.
13. A red message on an upper EICAS display?

a) Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is required? It may or
may not be accompanied by an aural warning, depending on the seriousness of the
situation.
b) Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is required. It will
be accompanied by an appropriate aural warning.
c) Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective action, but
might do so in the near future. It will always be accompanied. By an aural warning.
d) Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective action, but
might do so in the near future. It may or may not be accompanied by an aural warning,
depending upon the seriousness of the situation.
14. An amber message on an upper EICAS display?
a) a) Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is required? It may or
may not be accompanied by an aural warning, depending on the seriousness of the
situation.
b) Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is required. It will be
accompanied by an appropriate aural warning.
c) Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective action, but
might do so in the near future. It will always be accompanied. By an aural warning.
d) Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective action,
but might do so in the near future. It may or may not be accompanied by an aural
warning, depending upon the seriousness of the situation.
15. A green bug on an EICAS EPR guage indicates?
34
a)
b)
c)
d)
The current EPR value.

The fact that the current EPR value is the correct one for that stage of flight.
The target EPR value.
The maximum safe EPR value.
ENGINE
1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
4)
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is the?
Temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the engine
block.
Average temperature within the whole set of cylinders.
Temperature of the exhaust gases.
Temperature of the carburetor to be monitored when the outside air temperature is
between -5 C and 10C.
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected to
RPM indicator, is a DC voltage varying with the RPM?
The indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min scale measuring an AC voltage, the
frequency of which varies with the RPM.
The indicator converts the signal into square pulses with is then counted as an AC
voltage varying with the RPM.
The indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter a
three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM.
The indicator is provided with a motor, which drives a magnetic tachometer.
The engine supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM
indicator is a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM?
The indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer a DC voltage
varying with the RPM.
The indicator is simple voltmeter with a rev/min scale measuring an AC voltage varying
with the RPM?
The indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter
measuring an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM.
The indicator converts the signal into square pluses which are then counted.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It indicates

the?
Vibration period expressed in seconds.
Vibration amplitude at a given frequency.
Acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g.
Vibration frequency expressed in Hz.
5)
1)
2)
3)
4)
The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of:

A magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage.
A DC generator supplying a DC voltage.
A single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage.
A three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltage.

a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
c) 2, 3, 4.
35
d)
1, 4.
6)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The Engine pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by?

Dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.
Dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
Multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
Multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.
7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of?
2 accelerometers.
2 high and low frequency amplifiers.
2 high and low frequency filters.
A frequency converter.
8)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The green sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to?

An exceptional operating range.
A forbidden operating range.
A special operating range.
A normal operating range.
9)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A synchroscope is used on aircraft to?

Reduce the vibration of each engine.
Reduce the rpm of each engine.
Achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.
Set several engines to the same speed.
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A thermocouple type thermometer consists of?

A single-wire metal winding.
Two metal conductors of different type connected at one point.
Two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points.
A Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.
11). The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to?

a) A frequent operating range.
b) A forbidden operating range.
c) An exceptional operating range.
d) A normal operating range.
12). In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by the
engine is?
a) Directly proportional to engine speed.
b) Fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering.
c) Amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator.
d) Inversely proportional to engine speed.
13). Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure measured
(low, medium or high). Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which
they are suitable?
1) Bellows type.
2) Bourdon tube type.
3) Aneroid capsule type.
a)
2, 1, 3.
36
b)
c)
d)
3, 1, 2.
1, 2, 3.
3, 2, 1.
14). The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc within
the arc normally used (green arc). In the RPM range corresponding t this small red arc the?
a) Rating is the minimum usable in cruise propeller efficiency.
b) Is minimum at this rating.
c) Propeller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden.
d) Rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode.
15). In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge utilize a?
a) Thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.
b) Wheatstone bridge circuit.
c) Ratiometer circuit.
d) Bourdon tube.
TEMPERATURE INDICATOR
1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Total Air Temperature is . Than .. by an amount which is proportional to .?

Higher Static air temperature CAS.
Higher Static Air temperature TAS.
Lower Dynamic air temperature CAS.
Higher Static air temperature LSS.
2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Total air temperature is ?

SAT plus kinetic heating effect.
SAT plus the heating effect caused by shock waves at high mach numbers.
SAT plus skin friction heating effect.
Dynamic heating effect.
3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
What is the ram recovery factor for a Rosemount temperature probe?

0.5.
1.0.
1.5.
2.0.
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The formula for TAT is?

TAT = SAT (1 + (0.2 x K x M).
TAT = SAT/ (1+0.2 x K x M)
TAT = SAT/(1-0.2 M).
TAT = SAT (1-KM)
5)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The pointer that aligns with the red line in an EGT gauge?
Is movable to indicate when temperatures have exceeded the red line limit.
Is painted on the glass.
Is moved only prior to flight.
Is moved to set lower limits when required by ambient conditions.
6)
1)
What types of thermometer are used in modern aircraft?

Resistive.
37
2)
3)
4)
5)
Mercury.
Capacitive.
Inductive.
Thermocouple
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 4.
1, 3, 4.
2, 4, 5.
1, 2, 5.
7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
TAT is?
SAT plus ram rise due to skin friction.
SAT plus ram rise due to adiabatic compression.
SAT plus ram rise due to shock wave formation.
SAT plus gauge error.
8)
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
The advantages of a thermocouple temperature gauging system are?

Self powered.
No moving parts in sensors.
Low voltages.
Not susceptible to resistance losses.
Suitable for high temperatures.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4.
1, 2, 3, 5.
2, 3, 4, 5.
All of the above.
9)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A thermocouple circuit can be graduated to read temperature if?

The hot junction is kept at a constant temperature.
The cold junction is kept at a constant temperature.
The cold junction is kept at ambient temperature.
The cold junction is kept at the same temperature as the hot junction.
10)
a)
b)
c)
d)
What is used to sense temperature in a jet engine turbine and how are they connected?
Thermisters in series.
Thermocouples in parallel.
Thermocouples in series.
Rosemount probes in parallel.
11) An aircraft is flying at Mach 1 at 36000 ft in the ISA. What TAT will a Rosemount probe
indicate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
-13 C.
13 C.
-56 C.
56 C.
12)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The formula for total at temperature is?

TAT = SAT + 0.2 M
TAT = SAT/(1+0.2 M)
TAT = SAT (1-0.2KrM).
TAT = SAT/(1-KrM)
38
13)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A TAT probe measures using the relationship?

TAT = SAT + heating to compressibility.
TAT = SAT + kinetic heating.
TAT = SAT + friction heating.
TAT = SAT + convection heating.
14)
a)
b)
c)
d)
a thermocouple system employs?

Two dissimilar metals joined at one end and a wheatstone bridge at the other.
Two dissimilar metal joined at one end and a ratio meter at the other.
Two dissimilar metals joined at both ends and a moving coil instrument.
Two dissimilar metals separated by a dielectric substance at one end and a capacitive
gauge at the other.
15)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The resistive temperature sensing system is based on the fact that?

Electrical resistance of metals is constant.
Electrical resistance of metals increases with increasing temperature.
Electrical resistance of metals decreases with increasing temperature.
Electrical resistance causes temperature to change.
FUEL
1.
1)
2)
3)
4)
The disadvantages of a float type fuel gauging system include inaccuracies due to?
Changes in aircraft attitude.
Acceleration.
Ambient pressure changes.
Ambient temperature changes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3.
1, 2, 4.
2, 3, 4.
1, 3, 4.
2)
A capacitive fuel gauging system measures?

a) Changes in capacitance of the fuel
b) Changes in capacitance due to variations in the proportion of sensors
immersed in fuel.
c) Changes in capacitance of fuel due to density changes.
d) Changes in dielectric constant of fuel.
3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
What type of sensor If used to measure pressure output of a fuel booster pump?
Bourden tube.
Capacitor.
Aneroid capsule.
Bellows.
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A capacitive fuel gauging system can calculate the mass of fuel by suing the fact that?
Fuel dielectric constant is proportional to and twice that of air.
Fuel dielectric constant is equal to 1/ and proportional to that of air.
Fuel dielectric constant is equal to and proportional to that of air.
Fuel dielectric constant is proportional to 1/ and equal to that of air.
5)
The fundamental principle of a capacitive fuel gauging system is?
39
a)
b)
c)
d)
Changes in capacitive reactance.

Changes in reactive capacitance.
Constant reactive capacitance.
Variations in dielectric constant of fuel.
6)
A volumetric fuel flow meter differs from mass flow meter inwhat only the latter
compensates for?
Changes in density.
Changes in fuel dielectric constant.
Changes in mass of fuel.
Changes in fuel pressure.
a)
b)
c)
d)
7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
An aircraft with a compensated capacitive fuel gauging system is refueled to a fuel load of
45000 kg. If the temperature of the fuel then falls from 15 C to -40C in flight, how will
the indications vary? (ignore fuel usage in flight)
No change.
Increase.
Decrease.
Depends upon density and type of fuel.
8)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A fuel flow meter measures?

The mass flow of fuel.
The volumetric flow of fuel.
The density of fuel.
The mass flow or volumetric flow of fuel depending on type of system.
9)
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
The disadvantages of float type fuel gauging system include?

Errors due to acceleration.
Errors due to changes in aircraft attitude.
It requires an AC power supply.
It requires a DC power supply.
Errors due to thermal expansion and contraction of fuel.
Errors due to refueling with different fuel grades.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 5, 6.
1, 2, 5, 6.
1, 2, 3, 4.
1, 2, 4, 5.
10)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A mass flow meter is better than a volumetric flow meter because it is able to?
Compensate for density changes.
Compensate for pressure changes.
Compensate for changes in fuel calorific value.
Compensate for changes in fuel viscosity.
11) Fuel mass flow rate is more important then volumetric flow rate because?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fuel costs are calculated by mass.

Calorific value is proportional to mass.
Calorific value is proportional to volume.
Fuel air ratio is based on mass.
12) Modern turbojet or turboprop aircraft are likely to employ?
40
a)
b)
c)
d)
Volumetric fuel flow gauges.

Mass fuel flow meters.
Spectrometric fuel flow meters.
Capacitive fuel flow meters.
13)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Modern turbojet and turboprop aircraft are likely to employ?

Capacitive mass fuel flow meters.
Venturi type fuel flow meters.
Variable orifice fuel flow meters.
Turbine impeller type fuel flow meters.
14) If the tanks of an aircraft employing a capacitive fuel gauging system contain only water,
the gauge will?
a) A mass equal to the same mass of water.
b) Read the exact mass of water contained in the tank.
c) A mass equal to zero.
d) A mass of water different from zero but inaccurate.
15)
1)
2)
3)
4)
The advantages of a float type fuel gauging system include?

Automatically compensates for density changes.
It is simple and cheap.
Compensates for thermal expansion and contraction.
Compensates for attitude changes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4.
2.
2, 3, 4.
2, 4.
16)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A float type fuel gauging system?

Is sensitive to variations in system voltage if it employs galvanometer.
Is sensitive to variations in system voltage if it employs a ratiometer.
Depends upon changes in system voltage.
Is independent of variations in system voltage.
17)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A paddle-wheel placed in the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially measures?
Mass flow by tally of the impulses.
Volumetric flow by tally of the impulses.
Volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed.
Mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed.
COMPASS
1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A Direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by?

Soft iron.
Hard iron.
Aluminium.
Soft iron effect hard iron, and hard iron.
41
2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The purpose of the torque motor in a gyro stabilised magnetic compass is to?
Precess the directional gyro.
Adjust the selsyn stator.
Calibrate the pointer.
Convert flux valve electrical output into pointer movement.
3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
When landing on a northerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?
A westerly turn.
An easterly turn.
No turn.
Rapidly increasing oscillations.
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Magnetic heading can be calculated from true heading using?

A compass and a map indicating isogonal lines.
A compass and calibration card.
A calculator and a deviation card
A compass and a deviation card.
5)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A direct reading compass will not be affected by?

Ferrous metals.
Transformers.
Magnetic fields.
Non-ferrous metals.
6)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The purpose of a compass swing is to?

Align the lubber lines with true north.
Confirm the accuracy of the schuler tuning.
Align compass north with magnetic north.
Align compass north with true north.
7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
When landing in a southerly direction a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?
Easterly turn.
Westerly turn.
No turn.
8)
a)
b)
c)
d)
permanent magnetism in aircraft is caused by?

The hammering of rivets during construction.
Large changes in latitude.
Large changes in longitude.
Strong electrical fields and lightening strikes.
9)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A magnetic compass must be swung?

After long term changes in latitude.
After long term changes in longitude.
Short term changes in longitude.
Change of base airfield.
10) The greatest cause of errors in a direct reading magnetic compass is?
a) Turning.
b) Latitude changes.
42
c)
d)
Parallax.
Change in magnetic deviation.
11) The sensitivity of a magnetic compass can be affected by?

a) The H component of the earth magnetic field.
b) The Z component of the Earths magnetic field.
c)
d)
Both of the above.

None of the above.
12)
a)
b)
c)
d)
When cruising on a westerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?
Northerly turn.
Southerly turn.
No turn.
13) When taking-off on calm day on heading of 45 in the northern hemisphere, the compass
will indicate.. If the field is on an agonic line?
a) 45.
b) More than 45.
c) Less than 45.
d) 45 only if the wings are level.
14) The flux gate of a gyro magnetic compass transmits data to?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The error detector.

The amplifier.
The erecting system.,
The annunciator.
15)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Magnetic heading can be found from true heading using?

A compass and a map showing isoclinal lines.
A compass and a map showing isogonal lines.
A compass and compass calibration chart.
A compass and deviation card.
WARNING AND RECORDING SYSTEM

1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The FDR in a JAR certificated aircraft must be located in?

The front.
The back
The undercarriage bay.
The outer wings.
2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
In an aircraft certificated under JAR since 1 April 1998 the CVR must record for?
30 minutes
2 hours.
8 hours.
72 hours.
3)
a)
A basic stall warning system monitors?

A of A.
43
b)
c)
d)
CAS.
Mach number.
Slat and flap Position.
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
In an aircraft of more then 5700 Kg mass certificated under JAR after April 1998, the
FDR must record for?
30 minutes.
60 minutes.
10 hours.
25 hours.
5)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Between what heights in GPWS active?

Zero and 500 ft.
Zero and 2500 ft.
50 ft and 500 ft.
50 ft and 2450 ft.
6)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A CVR records?
Radio conversations.
Cabin crew conversations.
Crew conversations on intercom.
Public address announcements and cockpit discussions.
7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
GPWS must provide?

Visual warnings.
Aural and visual warnings.
Aural warnings which may be supplemented by visual warnings.
Visual and aural warnings, which may be supplemented by tactile warnings.
8)
a)
b)
d)
A stall warning system in a large JAR certificated aircraft must include?

Stick shaker and stick pusher.
Monitoring of speed brake position and angle of attack, a warning module, and visual or
aural warning system.
Monitoring of landing gear squat switch and A of A, a warning module and an aural
warning.
Monitoring of A of A and TAS, plus aural and visual warnings.
9)
a)
b)
c)
d)
An altitude warning system?

Automatically disengages autotrim at 500 ft.
Automatically engages autotrim at 500 ft.
Provides visual alerts when approaching a selected altitude.
Activates a warning light and bell when approaching a selected altitude.
10)
1)
2)
3)
4)
A combined FDR and CVR recoreds?

Cockpit voice discussions.
Cabin voice discussions.
Radio discussions.
All public address messages from the cockpit.
a)
b)
c)
1, 2, 3.
1, 2, 4.
2, 3, 4.
c)
44
d)
1, 3, 4.
11)
a)
b)
c)
d)
An altitude alert system?

Alerts the pilot if the aircraft deviates from selected altitude.
Alerts the pilot when decision height is reached.
Alerts the pilot when the selected height is reached.
Alerts the pilot when the actual altitude is equal to the reference altitude.
12) The FDR starts recording when?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Before the aircraft starts to move under its won power.

When the brakes are released.
When the landing gear squat switch detects lift-off.
When the undercarriage retract button is pressed.
13) For certification of heavy aircraft after 1 April 1998 the FDR and CVR must record for
and .respectively.
a) 10 hours
1 hours.
b) 10 hours
2 hours.
c) 25 hours
1 hour.
d) 25 hours
2 hours.
14)
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
GPWS modes include?

Stall.
Incorrect flap position.
High altitude descents.
High ROC.
Excessive glideslope deviations.
Loss of altitude after take-off and go-around.
Excessive sink rate.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
2, 5, 6, 7.
4, 5, 6, 7.
15)
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
GPWS can indicate?

Excessive bank angle.
Excessive terrain closure rate.
Excessive sink rate after lift-off
Excessive glide slope deviations.
Too close to ground when not in landing configuration.
Excessive rate of descent.
Altitude call-outs.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above.

1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7.
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
TCAS
45
1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
2)
a)
b)
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects
a traffic when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a?
Serviceable SSR transponder.
Serviceable weather radar.
SELCAL system.
DNE system.
c)
d)
Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System).

Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC.
No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR
transponder.
In one of the system modes, the warning, TOO LOW TERRAIN is generated.
In one of the system modes, the warning, PULL UP is generated.
3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions?

In horizontal and vertical planes.
Based on speed control only.
In the vertical plane only.
In the horizontal plane.
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give
information such as?
Turn left/turn right.
Too low terrain.
Glide slope,
Climb/descent.
5)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is based on the use of?
F.M.S. (Flight Management System).
Air traffic control radar systems.
Transponders fitted in the aircraft.
Airborne weather radar system.
6)
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight
is now general. TCAS uses for its operation?
a)
Both the replies form the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar
echoes.
The replies from the transponders of other aircraft.
The echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.
Echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.
b)
c)
d)
7)
a)
d)
A TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides?

The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only.
manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
A simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
8)
1)
The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:

A specific dedicated screen.
b)
c)
46
2)
3)
4)
A screen combined with the weather radar.

A variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic
Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (TA).
An EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen.

a) 1, 2 and 3.
b) 3 and 4.
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
9)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A Close traffic advisory is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
Collision Avoidance System) by?
A blue or white full lozenge.
A red full square.
A blue or white empty lozenge.
An orange full circle.
10) A resolution advisory (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
Collision Avoidance System) by a?
a) Blue or white empty lozenge.
b) Red full circle.
c) Red full square.
d) Blue or white full lozenge.
11) an intruding traffic advisory is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
Collision Avoidance System) by displaying?
a) A red full square.
b) A yellow full circle.
c) A blue or white empty lozenge.
d) A blue or white full lozenge.
12) On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective resolution advisory (RA) is
a resolution advisory?
a) Asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
b) Which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him no to
modify his current vertical speed rate.
c) Asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
d) Asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
13) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the
TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a?
a) Traffic advisory, vertical and horizontal resolution advisory.
b) Traffic advisory, and vertical resolution advisory.
c) Traffic advisory, and horizontal resolution advisory.
d) Traffic advisory, only.
14) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with transponder without altitude reporting
capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a?
a) Traffic advisory, and horizontal resolution advisory.
b) Traffic advisory, vertical and horizontal resolution advisory?
c) Traffic advisory, only.
d) Traffic advisory and vertical resolution advisory.
47
15). The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) Computer receives information:
1. About the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder.
2. From the radio altimeter.
3. Specific to the airplane configuration.
4. From the inertial units.
a. 1,2,4.
b. 1,2.
c. 1,2,3.
d. 1,2,3,4.

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PITOT STATICS

system and transmits this information to ATC to

In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from?

(i) Total pressure

(ii) Static pressure.

The QNH is by definition the value of the?

The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?

15. The density altitude is?

ALT (BAROMETRIC ALTIMETERS)

The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?

The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?

From what is true altitude derived?

12. What is QNH?

What is density altitude?

Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?

A radio altimeter can be defined as a?

The data supplied by a radio altimeter?

Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.

the low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:

The combination of the correct statements is?

The operating frequency range of a altitude radio altimeter is?

4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.

The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on?

a radio altimeter is?

Radio altimeters are based on the principle of?

For the landing configuration a radio altimeter indicates?

Low altitude radio altimeters operate on the .. Waveband?

VSI (VERTICAL SPEED INDICATORS)

If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.

VSI lag is reduced by?

If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?

If the casing of a VSI in a pressurised aircraft develops a leak?

A VSI indicates increasing ROD by?

Become inaccurate due to ground effect.

If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?

What speed is VNO?

The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in?

Calibrated airspeed (CAS).

the limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are?

The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?

The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are?

VLE is the maximum?

VLO is the maximum?

VNE is the maximum speed?

VNO is the maximum speed?

What is the LSS at 30000 ft if ambient temperature is -40 C?

Which of the following best defines Mach number?

A mach meter comprises of?

what us tge KSS at 40000 ft in the ISA?

How ill mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb?

Increase then remain constant.

what is the LSS at msl ISA?

Mach meter indications?

The indications on a mach meter are independent of?