GEAS: Chemistry

1. How many zeroes in the measurement 0.00020040 are significant?

a.
three
b.
four
c.
six
d. seven
2. Which of the following describes a chemical change?
a. Water boiling to form steam
b. Sugar dissolving in a cup of coffee
c. Hamburger grease solidifying on a plate
d. Tarnishing silver
3. A homogenous mixture can be separated by all of the following methods except
a. Filtration
b. Chromatography
c. Crystallization
d. Distillation
4. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Water
d. Milk
5. A laboratory experiment was performed to determine the percent by mass of water in a
hydrate. The accepted value is 36.0% water whose observed value has an error of
5.00%. Find the percent by mass of water.
a. 31.0% water
b. 36.0% water
c. 37.8% water
d. 41.0% water
36% * 1.05 =37.8%
6. Which of the following phase changes represent sublimation?
a. Solid gas
b. Gas solid
c. Solid liquid
d. Gas liquid
7. The amount of energy needed to change a given mass of ice to water at constant
temperature is called the heat of
a. Fusion
b. Formation
c. Condensation
d. Crystallization
8. Which of the following is a binary compound?
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Oxygen
c. Citric acid

d. Sodium chlorate
9. An example of a ternary compound is
a.
b.
c.
d.

Potassium chlorate
Ammonia
Silver chloride
Sodium bromide

10. What is the charge of a hydrogen atom?

a.

b.

c.

d.

11. The impossibility of knowing both the precise location and velocity of subatomic particle
at the same time is known as the
a. Diffraction principle b. Probability principle
c. Limiting principle
d. Uncertainty principle
12. An atom which has the greatest ability to attract electron is
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Sulfur
d. Bromine
13.
How many molecules of
a. 1

b. 2

can be formed using 2 molecules of NO?

c. 3

d. 4

14. If the volume of the mole of gas molecules remains constant, lowering the temperature
will make the pressure
a.
b.
c.
d.

Increase
Decrease
Increase then decrease
Decrease then increase

15. Whenever you have equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure, the
volume must
a.
b.
c.
d.

Contain equal number of particles

Contain 2.4 milliliters of STP
Contain one mole of any gas at STP
Contain the Avogadros number
PV =mRT

16. What pressure must be applied to 225mL of gas at 1atm to reduce its volume to 100mL?
a. 0.44atm
b. 2.25atm
c. 22500atm
d. 1710atm
P1V1=P2V2
17. How many moles of

are present in 44.8L of

at STP?

a. 1.2 moles
b. 1.4 moles
c. 2.0 moles
d. 2.8 moles
At STP, 1 mole will occupy 22.4L
18. The properties of solution include all of the following except that
a. It is homogeneous mixture if it has been well stirred
b. Dissolved particles will settle out upon stirring
c. It is clear and transparent with particles too small to be seen
d. Dissolved particles will pass through a piece of filter paper
19. It refers to matter that do not have definite form or structure
a. Amorphous
b. Morphous
c. Transient

d. Extrinsic

20. Three grams of sulphur dissolved in 200 g of naphthalene C10H8, was found decreasing
the freezing point of the solvent to 0.72 C. Find the molecular weight of the solute. (Kf
C10H8 = 6.9 C/molar)
a. 351.16 g/mole

b. 115.32 g/mole

g- mole =

c. 135.61 g/mole

d. 151.23 g/mole

= 135.61 grams/mole

21. Substance having a pH level less than 7(diba acid?)

a. acid
b. base
c. salt

d. hydrate

22. It is a product of the weathering of complex silicates, particularly of feldspars which are
abundant minerals.
a. clay

b. chalk

c. pyrite

d.diamond

23. Electrons occupy all the orbitals of a given subshell singly before pairing begins. These
unpaired electrons have parallel spins. This is known as:
a. Building Up Principle
b. Aufbau Principle
c. Hunds Rule
d. Davids Rule
24. It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles
a. Mott Scaterring
b. Tyndall Effect
c. Rayleigh Scattering

d. Wolf Effect

25. Consider H3AsO3, Arsenic acid (H=1.01,As=74.9,O=16.0).How many mole is 1kg of

H3AsO3?
a. 7.94 moles

b. 6.94 moles

c. 5.94 moles

d. 8.94 moles

H3AsO3 = 3(1.01 g/mol) + 74.9 g/mol + 3(16.0 g/mol)

= 125.93 g/mol
moles H3AsO3 = (1kg)(1 mol/125.93g)
= 7.94 moles H3AsO3
26. It is customary to indicate accuracy by using a certain numbers of figures or digits.
a. atomic mass unit

b. International
system
27. It is required for organic compounds.

a. hydrogen

b. oxygen

c. significant figures

d. supplementary
units

c. boron

d. carbon

28. Term used to denote the technology of treating a mined ore to obtain a product higher on
concentration of a wanted mineral from the unwanted rock mass in which it occurs.
a. ore dressing

b. galvanization

c. alloying

d. filtering

29. The energy possessed by a substance that allows it to be changed into a new
substance.
a. Chemical energy

b. Physical energy

c. Potential energy

d. Nuclear energy

30. If heat is absorbed by the system during a chemical change, it is called as:
a. exothermal

b. endothermal

c. endothermic

d. exothermic

31. It is considered as derivatives of ammonia in which one or more of the hydrogens have
been replaced by the alkyl or aryl group. It is characterized by unpleasant odors
a. Alkanes
b. Esters
c. Amines
d. Nitriles

32. Calculate the molar concentration of a solution that contains 15g of potassium hydroxide
in 225ml of solution.
a. 1.2 M
b. 11.9 M
c. 4.46 M
d. 2.60 M

33. Calculate the ratio of the rate of diffusion of hydrogen to the rate of diffusion of oxygen.
How fast does hydrogen diffuse than oxygen? Given: Density of oxygen is 0.0899 g/L
and the density of oxygen is 1.43 g/L.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

34. What is the volume of 1 moles of a gas at 2 atm and 273 K?

a. 1.12 L
b. 10L
c.
11.2L
d. 112L
V= 224 L x (n/1mol) x (1atm/2atm) =11.2L
35. It is a borosilicate glass with a very low coefficient of thermal expansion, hence, it's wide
for cooking and serving utensils.
a. Lime Glass
b. Pyrex
c. Silicones
d. Zeotites
36. What is the mass in kilograms of 10.5 gal (39.7 L) of gasoline with a specific gravity of
0.82.
a. 10.5 kg
b. 28 kg
c. 33 kg
d. 44 kg
Specific gravity of gasoline is 0.82
Density = 0.82 times the density of water
Density= specific gravity x density of water
=(0.82)(0.997)
= 0.82 g/mL
V=39.7L = 39700 mL
M= D x V
=(0.82)(39700) = 33 kg
37. It is a colorless solid capable of being cut into brilliant crystals is the hardest, must
abrasive mineral known
a. Graphite
b. Charcoal
c. Diamond
d. Silicon
38. It is the calculation of both energy balances and material balances in a chemical system.
a. Molarity
b. Molality
c. Calorimetry
d. Stoichiometry

39. _________ involves the replacement of one of the atoms or groups of atoms attached to
the carbon Backbone of the organic molecule.
a.halogination b. chemical reaction c. Addition reaction d. Substitution Reaction
40. Calculate the volume (in Litres) occupied by 7.40g of NH3 at STP (Standard
Temperature, and Pressure)
a. 8.73L
b. 10.73L
c . 9.73L
d. 12.73L
Recognizing that 1mole of an ideal gas is equal top 22.4L at STP and using the molar mass of
NH3 (17.03g)
V = 7.40g NH3 x

1 mol NH3 x
17.03g NH3

22.4L__ = 9.73L
1 mol NH3

41. It is the Energy change accompanying a mole of electrons being added to a mole of a
gaseous atoms or ions.
a. Electronic Affinity
b. Bingling Energy
c . Biochemical Energy
d. Fission
42. A silicon chip used in an integrated circuit of a microcomputer has a mass of 5.68mg.
How many silicon (Si) atoms are present in this chip?
a. 5.6x10-3 atoms
b. 2.02x1010atoms
c. 1.22x1020atoms
d. 2.22x1020atoms
5.68mg Si x

1g Si
x
1,000 mg Si

1mol Si x 6.022x1023 = 1.22x1020atoms

28.08 g Si
1 mol Si

43. This process separates the components of a mixture on the basis of differences in
particle size. It is used most often to separate a liquid from a solid.
a. Crystallization
b. Extraction
c. Filtration
d. Chromatography

44. Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) is a colorless, odorless, very unreactive gas. Calculate the
pressure (in atm) exerted by 1.82 moles of gas in a steel vessel of volume 5.43L at
45C.
a. 6.75 atm
b. 7.75 atm
c. 8.75 atm
d. 9.75 atm
P = _nRT_
V
P = (1.82mol) (0.0821L.atm/K.mol) (45+273K)
5.43

P = 8.75 atm
45. It is defined as the pressure exerted by a force of one newton acting on an area of one
square meter.
a. Kelvin
b. Meter
c. Pascal
d. Newton
46. A bottle of certain ceramic tile cleanser, which essentially a solution of hydrogen
chloride, contains 130g of HCl and 750g of water. What is the percent by mass of HCl in
this cleanser?
a. 15.7%
b. 16.3%
c. 14.8%
d. 13.8%
%solute = mass solute_ x 100
mass solution
%solute = ____130g____ x 100
130g + 750g
%solute = 14.8%
47. A covalent bond between two atoms with different electronegativities, so that the
electron density is unsymmetrically distributed.
a. Non- Polar bond
b. Polar bond
c. Single bond
d. Triple bond
48. Which element has the highest ionization potential of its atom?
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Helium

d. Zinc

49. It is the minimum amount of radioactive material needed to sustain a nuclear chain
reaction.
a. Molar mass

b. Critical mass

c. Molecular mass

d. Atomic mass unit

50. In the atmosphere, nitrogen dioxide reacts with water to produce nitric acid, which
contributes to pollution by acid rain: 3NO2(g) + H2O(l) -----> 2HNO3(aq) + NO(g) How many
grams of HNO3 are produced for every 1.0mol of NO2 that reacts? The molecular weight
of HNO3 is 63.0amu.
a. 42 g HNO3
b. 42 kg HNO3
c. 4.2 g HNO3
d. 42 mg HNO3
1.0mol NO2(2mol HNO3/3mol NO2)(63g HNO3/1mol HNO3)=42g HNO3
51. ______ states that in the addition of polar reagents to alkenes, the positive portion of the
reagents adds to the carbon atom in the double bond that already has the most
hydrogen atoms.
a. Markovnikous
rule

b. Le Chateliers
principle

c. Lock-and-key
theory

d. Pauli Exclusion
Theory

52. _______ are atoms that have completely filled ns and np subshells, giving them great
stability.
a. Alkali Metals

b. Noble Gases

c. Halogens

d. alkaline earth
metals

GEAS: Physics
1. Suppose that energy Q is required to accelerate a car from rest to v, neglecting
friction. How much added energy would be required to increase the speed from v to
2v?
a. Q b.2Q c. 3Q d.4Q
Using the energy equation W=KE2 KE1
Q = 0.5mv2 0 - condition 1
W = 0.5m(2v)2 0.5mv2 - condition 2
W=2mv2 0.5mv2 = 3(0.5mv2) = 3Q
2. Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential energy in a volume of 1.00 m3
in vacuum. What is the magnitude of the required electric field?
a. 0.475 MV/m

b. 0.336MV/m

c. 0.225TV/m

d. 0.113TV/m

u=1.00J/1.00m3 = 1.00J/m3

E=0.475 MV/m (a)

3. Material a is a water and material b is a glass with index of refraction 1.52. If the
incident ray makes an angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of the reflected
ray.
a.

49.3o

b. 91.3o

According to law of reflection,

c. 60o
, hence if

d. 34.7o
then

(c)

4. The wavelength of the red light from a helium-neon sensor is 633 nm in air but 474
nm in the aqueous humor inside our eyeballs. Calculate the speed of light in this
substance.
a. 2.25 x 108 m/s

b. 3.25 x 108 m/s

c. 3.00 x 108 m/s

d. 1.25 x 108 m/s

For the velocity of light in this index we have:

(a)
5. A spaceship moving away from Earth with speed of 0.900c fires a robot space probe
in the same direction as its motion, with speed of 0.700c relative to the spaceship.
What is the probes velocity relative to the Earth?
a. 0.900c

b. 0.345c

c. 0.700c

d. 0.982c

6. In optics, this effect refers to the blurring of the image produced on a concave mirror
due to the convergence of rays far from the mirror to other points on the principal
axis. What do you call this effect?
a. spherical aberration
b. focal divergence
c.

parallax error

d.

Snells effect

7. In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a fluid decreases as the speed of
the fluid increases. In addition, the pressure of a fluid decreases as the elevation
increases.
a. Clairuts equation

b. Bernoullis equation

c. Maxwells equation

d. Hyrdofluid equation

8. In electrodynamics, what term refers to the average speed of the charge carriers?
a. drag velocity b. molecular-kinetic speed c. drift speed d. charge velocity
9. In electromagnetics and wave theory, what refers to waves, commonly generated by
electronic devices, whose wavelengths ranges from approximately 0.3m to 10-4 m.
Due to their short wavelengths these are often used in radar systems and for
studying the atomic and molecular properties of matter.
a. Radio waves b. Microwaves c. AM waves d. Radar waves
10. The position x of an experimental rocket moving along a long rail is measured to be
x(t) = (4m/s)t + (7m/s2)t2 + (5m/s3)t3 (0.35m/s4)t4 over the first 10s of its motion,
where t is in seconds and x is in meters. Find the velocity of the rocket for the first 10
seconds.
a. 43 m/s
b. 224 m/s
c. 244m/s
d. 2240 m/s
v = dx/dt = (4m/s) + (14m/s2)t + (15m/s3)t2 (1.4m/s4)t3
Substituting t = 10 s, gives
v = 244 m/s
11. Early in the nineteenth century, James Watt invented the steam engine. In order to
convince people, who relied heavily on horses for mechanical work, he demonstrated
how useful his steam engine was by utilizing a horse that lifted water from a well over
a certain period of time and called the corresponding power expended one
horsepower. Assume that water has a mass density of 1.0 x 103 kg/m3, that the well
was 20m deep, and that the horse worked for 8 hours. How many liters of water did
the horse raise from the well? Use the following constants: 1 hp = 746 Watts, g = 9.8
m/s2.
a. 1.1 x 10 2 L
b. 110 L
c. 1.1 x 103 L
d. 1.1 x 105 L
The work done of the tension in lifting a mass of water is given by:
W = m g y where W = work, m = mass = pV, y = distance, V = volume, p=
mass density,
The power is given by:
P = work /time,

Vgy
t

Substituting all values, we get for V

V=

746W 8hx3600 s / h
1x10 3 kg / m 3 9.8m / s 2 20m

1.1x10 2 m 3

Since 1 m3 = 103 L, then V = 1.1 x 105L.

12. It states that, "If a stress is placed on a system on equilibrium whereby the
equilibrium is altered, that change will take place which tends to relieve or neutralize
the effect of the added stress".
a. Le Chatelier's
Principle

b. Snell's Law

c. Huygen's Principle

d. Avogrado's Law

13. Who determined the quantitative relationship between the amount of electricity used
in electrolysis and the amount of chemical reaction that occurs?
a. Ernest Rutherford b. Michael Faraday c. Marie Curie d. John Dalton
14. The Acceleration of a particular body is directly proportional to the resultant force
acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass is a statement of
a. Joules Law
b. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
c. Newtons 2nd Law of Motion
d. Boyles Law
GEAS: Thermodynamics
1.

It is the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of substance to the
adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between the particles.
a.
b.
c.
d.

2.

Conduction
Radiation
Convection
Absorption

It indicates that the rate of heat conduction in a direction is proportional to the

temperature gradient in that direction.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Fouriers Law of Heat Conduction

Fouriers Law of Heat Convection
Fouriers Law of Heat Radiation
Fouriers Law of Heat Absorption

3.

Which of the following is considered the best conductor of heat? (sa

pagkakaalam ko Silver)
a. Gold
b. Copper
c. Silver d. Diamond

4.

It is the mode of energy transfer between a solid surface and the adjacent liquid
or gas that is in motion, and it involves the combined effect conduction and fluid
motion.
a. Conduction
b. Radiation

c. Convection
d. Absorption

5.

It is the energy emitted by the matter in the form of electromagnetic waves as a

result of the changes in the electronic configurations of the atom or molecules.
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Convection
d. Absorption

6.

It states that energy can neither be destroyed nor created; it can only change
forms.
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Third law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

7.

In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following state that no heat engine
can have a thermal efficiency of 100% or as far as power plant to operate, the
working fluid must exchange heat with the environment as well as the furnace.
a. Kelvin Plank Statement
b. Clausius-Plank Statement
c. Clausius Statement
d. Kelvin Statement

8.

In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following state that no device can
transfer heat from cooler body to a warmer one without leaving an effect on the
surroundings.
a.
b.
c.
d.

9.

Kelvin Plank Statement

Clausius-Plank Statement
Clausius Statement
Kelvin Statement

It is defined as the amount of light output in lumens per W of electricity

consumed.
a. Light intensity
b. Light efficiency

c. Light efficacy
d. Light luminosity

10.

Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?

a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d. 4

11.

Which of the following processes are involved in carnot cycle?

a. Two isothermal ; two isobaric
b. One isothermal; three adiabatic
c. Three isobaric; one adiabatic
d. Two adiabatic ; two isothermal

12.

State that the thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating
between the same two reservoirs are the same, and that no heat engine is more
efficient than a reversible one operating between the same two reservoirs.

a.
b.
c.
d.
13.

Throttle principle
Otto principle
Carnot principle
Kelvin principle

A carnot heat engine receives 500KJ of heat per cycle from a high-temperature
source at 600 C and rejects heat a low temperature sink at 40C. Determine the
thermal efficiency of this Carnot engine.
a. 93.33%

1
14.

b. 6.67%

A piston cylinder device contains a liquid-vapor mixture of water at 400K. During

a constant pressure process, 700 KJ of heat is transferred to the water. As a
result, part of the liquid in the cylinder vaporizes. Determine the entropy change
of the water during this process.

c. 7000kJ

d. 0.57K/kJ

Q 700kJ
kJ

1.75
T
400 K
K

How many constant are there in Strobridge Equation of State?

b. 14

c. 15

d. 16

Which of the following equation of state has eight constant?

a.
b.
c.
d.

18.

280kJ-K

Vander Waals Equation

Beattie-Bridgeman Equation
Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equation
Strobridge Equation

a.13
17.

b.

Which of the following equation of state has two constants?

a.
b.
c.
d.

16.

d. 64.15%

TL
(40 273) K
1
0.6415(64.15%)
TH
(600 273) K

a. 1.75kJ/K

15.

c. 35.85%

Vander Waals Equation

Beattie-Bridgeman Equation
Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equation
Strobridge Equation

Consider a person standing in a breezy room at 22C. Determine the total rate of
heat transfer from this person if the exposed surface area and the average outer
surface temperature of the person are 1.2 m2 and 33C, respectively, and the
convection heat transfer coefficient is 6 W/m2.=0.95 and =5.67x10-8 W/m4-K4

a. 120.5J/s b. 135.7J/s

c. 143.2J/s

d. 151.9J/s

Qconvection hA(Ts T f )
W
(1.2m 2 )(33 22)C
2
m C
= 66W
=5

4
Qradiation (Ts4 Tsurr
)

= 0.95(5.67 x10 8

19.

= 77.2W
Qtotal 66W 77.2W 143.2W 143.2 J / s
A piston cylinder device initially contains 0.8 m3 of air at 110kPa and 80C. The
air is now compressed to 0.2 m3 in such a way that the temperature inside the
cylinder remains constant. Determine the work done during this process.
a. -122kJ b. -123kJ c. -124kJ d. -125kJ

W (110 kPa)(0.8m 3 ) ln(

20.

22.

0.2
1kJ
)(
) 122kJ
0.8 1kPa m 3

It is the energy possesses by the system as a result of its elevation with respect
to the gravitational acceleration of the earth.
a. Potential

21.

W
)(1.2m 2 )[(33 274) 4 ( 22 273) 4 ]K 4
m4 K 4

b.Kinetic

c. Momentum

d.Impulse

It states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are
also in thermal equilibrium with each other.
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Third law of thermodynamics
e. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
Determine the mass of the air in a room whose dimensions are (5x6x7) cm at
105 kPa and 27C.

R ' gas constant

R' air 0.287 m3 kPa
/ kg K
m

23.

105kPa(5 x 6 x 7 m 3 )
PV

256.1g
R ' T 0.287 m 3 kPa
(
27

273
K
)
/ kg K

Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at a rate of 92MW. If the rate
of waste heat rejection to a nearby river is 45MW, determine the net power
output and the thermal efficiency for this heat engine.
a. 48.91%
b. 51.09% c. 32.84%
d. 67.15%

Q H 92 MJs
Q L 45 MJs

QL
45
1
0.5109 (51.09%)
QH
92

24.

The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4C by removing heat

from it at a rate of 300 KJ/min. If the required power input to the refrigerator is
3KW, determine the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator.
a. 1.67
COP

25.

b. 2.33

c. 3.67

300kJ / min
1kW
(
) 1.67
3kW
60kJ / min

A 50 kg iron block at 80C is dropped into an insulated tank that contains 0.5 m3
of liquid water at 25C. Determine the temperature when thermal equilibrium
reached. The specific heat of iron is 0.45kJ/kg-C and for water is 4.18kJ/kg-C.
a. 20. 7C

b. 25.6C

c. 30.1C

50kg (0.45 kgkgC )(T2 80C )

26.

d. 4. 12

d. 35.6C

0.5m 3
kJ
( 4.18
)(T2 25C ) 0
m3
kg C
0.001 kg

T2 25.6C

A rigid tank contains a hot fluid that is cooled while being stirred by a paddle
wheel. Initially, the internal energy of the fluid is 850kJ. During the cooling
process, the fluid loses 550kJ of heat, and the paddle wheel does 200kJ of work
on the fluid. Determine the final energy of the fluid. Neglect the energy stored in
the paddle wheel.
a. 500kJ b. 550 kJ c. 600kJ d. 650 kJ
Q U W
200kJ (U 2 850kJ ) 550kJ
U 2 500kJ

27.

Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed slowly and isothermally from a
volume of 5 to 1.5 ft3, at a temperature of 320K. How much work is done?
a. -8.12kJ b. -9.61kJ
c. -10.44kJ
d. -11.59kJ

V2
J
1.5
3mol (8.317
)(320 K ) ln
9612.9 J 9.61kJ
V1
mol K
5
A 4-in wall of fire brick, k=9 Btu/(ft2-hr-F/in), has one surface at 300F, the other at
90F. Find the heat conducted through the area of 2ft2 in 1 day.
a. 22, 680Btu b. 19, 650Btu c. 15,510Btu d. 10,730Btu

W nRT ln
28.

Q kAt

T
Btu
(9 2
L
ft hr

= 22,680 Btu

F
in

)( 2 ft 2 )(24 hr )

300 90
4

F
in

29.

If 80 g of iron shot at 100C is dropped into 200 g of water at 20C contained in an

iron vessel of mass 50 g, find the resulting temperature.
a. 20.1C
b. 21.8C
c. 22. 3C d. 24.6C
80(0.12)(T2 100) 200(1)(T2 20) 50(0.12)(T2 20)
T2 24.6C

30.

When a 2lb of brass at 212F is dropped into 5lb of water at 35F, the resulting
temperature is 41.2F. Find the specific heat of brass in Btu/lb-F.
a. 1.120
b. 0.091
c. 0.321
d. 1.233
Qlost Qgain
Qbrass Qwater
2lb(C )( 212 F 41.2 F ) 5lb(1

Btu
)(41.2 F 35 F )
lb F

Btu
lb F
How much heat is necessary to raise the temperature of 0.80 kg of ethyl alcohol
from 15C of its boiling point 78.3C?
a. 10kcal b. 20kcal c. 30kcal d. 40kcal
C 0.091

31.

Q mct
Q 0.8kg (0.6

cal
)(78.3 15)C
g C

Q 30kcal

32.

The weight-density of air at 32F and 29.92 in Hg pressure is 0.081 lb/ft3. What is
its weight-density, in lb/ft3, at an altitude where the pressure is 13.73 in Hg and
the temperature is -40F?
a. 0.044
b. 0.055 c. 0.066 d. 0.77
PV

mT

PV

mT

P

T

13.73
29.92

0
.
081
x
273
K

1 x 233K 2
lb
2 0.044 3
It explains combustionftas a result of loss of a substance.

33.

a. Phlogiston

b. Roasting

c. Reduction

d. Fission

34.

The volume of a definite quantity of dry gas is inversely proportional to the

pressure provided the temperature remains constant.
a. Charles Law
b. Boyles Law
c. Gay-Lussacs Law
d. Daltons Law
35.

It is the enthalpy change associated with the condensation of gaseous positive

and negative ion into a crystal.
a Raoults Law
b. Lattice Energy
c. Enthalpy Of
d. Partition Coefficient
.
Solution
36.

This law states that at constant temperature the volume of a sample of gas varies
inversely with the pressure.
a. Avogadros Law
b. Boyles Law
c. Charles Law
d. Gay-Lussacs Law
37.

A 466g sample of Water is Heated from 8.50C to 74.60C. Calculate the amount
of Heat Absorbed (in Kilo Joules) by the Water.
a. 130 KJ
b. 129 KJ
c . 192 KJ
d. 160 KJ
q = mct
= (466g)(4.184 J/g C)(74.60C 8.50C)

38.

39.

= 129 KJ
This Law states that if a process can be written as the sum of several stepwise
processes, the Enthalphy change the total process equals the sum of the
Enthalphy changes of the Various Steps.
a. Gauss Law
b. Hess Law
c . Boyles Law
d. Newtons Law
_________ states that a constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas
is directly proportional to the number of moles present.

a. Boyles Law
40.

b. Charles Law

d. Avogrados Law

_______ states that the partial pressure of a solvent over a solution is given by
the vapor pressure of the pure solvent times the mole fraction of the solvent in
the solution.

a. Daltons law of
partial pressure
41.

c. Gay-Lussacs Law

b. de Broglies
hypothesis

c. Aufbau principle

d. Raoults Law

The property of a substance which remains constant if no heat enters or leaves

the system, while it does work or alters its volume, but which increases or
diminishes should a small amount of heat enter or leave.
a. internal energy
b. system
c. entropy
d. enthalpy

42.

The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of unit mass through
one degree.
a. Temperature
b. Specific Heat
c. Thermal Equilibrium
d. Calorie

43.

If the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the volume of the
gas varies inversely with the absolute pressure during a change of state
a. General Gas Laws
b. Joules Law
c. Charles Law
d. Boyles Law

44.

An internally reversible process of a substance during which the pressure

remains constant.
a.isometric
b.isothermal
c.adiabatic
d.isobaric

45.

The energy stored in a substance by virtue of the activity and configuration of its
molecules and of the vibration of the atoms within the molecules.
a.Internal Energy
b .Heat
c. Enthalpy
d.Entropy

46.

When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal equilibrium
with a third body, the two are in thermal equilibrium with each other is a
statement of
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. Zeroth Law
c. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
d. Maxwells Theory of Thermal Equilibrium

47.

Not all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cycle can be converted into
mechanical work, some are also rejected is a statement of
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. Zeroth Law
c. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
d. Law of Conservation of Energy

48.

The combined mass of car and passengers travelling at 72 km/hr is 1500kg. Find
the kinetic energy of this combined mass.
a.300kJ
b.330kJ
c.305kJ
d. 310kJ
2
2
2
K=mv
= (1500kg)(72km/hr) (1000m/km)
2k
(2)(1kg-m/N-sec2 )(3000 sec/hr)2
= 300,000 J or 300 kJ
A mass of 5kg is 100m above a given datum where local g=9.75 m/sec2. Find the
gravitational force in newtons and the potential energy of the mass w/ respect to
the datum.
a.49.25 N,4925 J
b.52.05 N,5205 J
c.48.75 N,4875 J
d.47.85 N,4785 J

49.

P = mg z
k

50.

= (5kg)(9.75m/sec2)(100m
(1kg-m/N-sec2)

= 4875 J

Fg = mg
= 5(9.75)
= 48.75 N
k
1
A pressure gage register 50 psig in a region where the barometer is 14.25 psia.
Find the absolute pressure in Pa.
a.453 kPa
b.434 kPa
c.435 kPa
d.443 kPa

51.

During an isentropic process of 1.36 kg/sec of air, the temperature increases

from 4.44 C to 115.6C. if Cp=1.0062kNm for a non-flow process, what is H?
kgK
a.152.2 kg/s
b.152.2 J/s
c.152.2 kJ/s
d.152.2 Btu/s
H = mCpT = 1.36kg/s(1.0062kNm/kgK)(388.75-277.59K) = 152. kJ/s

52.

This Law States that The quantity of the substance entering the system is equal
to the substance leaving the system
a.1st Law of Thermodynamics
c.Newtons 2nd Law of Motion

53.

b.Law of Conservation of Mass

d.Law of Conservation of Energy

if the pressure of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the volume of the gas
varies directly with the absolute temperature
a. General Gas Law
b. Boyles Law
c. Charles Law
d. Joules Law

54.

Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but is converted from one form to
another
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. Newtons 2nd Law of Motion
c. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
d. Law of Conservation of Mass
GEAS: Strength of Materials

1. It occurs when a cutting action is applied as you would see with scissors, tin snips, or
punches.
a. Direct shear
b. Bending Stress
c. Torsional Shear
d. Torsional Stress
2. It occurs when a member carries a load perpendicular to its long axis while being
supported in a stable manner.
a. Direct shear
b. Bending Stress

c. Torsional Shear
d. Torsional Stress
3. It is the internal resistance offered by a unit area of the material from which a member
from which a member is made to an externally applied load.
a. stress

b.

strain

c.

moment

d. torque

4. A certain support stand design to carry downward loads. Compute the stress in the
square shaft at the upper part of the stand for a load of 27,000 lb. The line of action of
the applied of the applied load is centered on the axis on the shaft, and the load is
applied through a thick plate that distributes the force to the entire cross section of the
stand.
a.

10,000psi

b. 11,000psi

c.

12,000psi

d. 13,000psi

F 27,000lb
lb

12,000 2 12,000 psi

2
A
2.25in
in

5. The proportional limit is the value of stress on the stress-strain diagram curve at which
the curve first deviates from a straight line.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point
6. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at which the material has deformed
plastically; that is, it will no longer return to its original size and shape after removing the
load.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point
7. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at which there is a significant increase
in strain with little or no increase in stress.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point
8. It is the highest value of apparent stress on the stress-strain curve.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point
9. It is a measure of the stiffness of a material determined by the slope of the straight-line
portion of the stress-strain curve.
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Modulus of rigidity
c. Strain

d. Stress
10. A ductile material is one that can be stretched, formed, or drawn to a significant degree
before fracture. A metal that exhibits a percent elongation greater than ____ % is
considered to be ductile.
a. 2
b.
3
c.
4
d. 5
11. A brittle material is one that fails suddenly under load with little or no plastic deformation.
A metal that exhibits a percent elongation ____ 5.0% is considered to be brittle.
a. equal
b. Greater than
c. Less than
d. It depends on the room temperature
12. The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain is called:
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Modulus of rigidity
c. Modulus of elongation
d. Modulus of stressibility
13. It is the ability of a material to absorbed applied energy without failure
a. Ductility
b. Brittleness
c. Hardness
d. Toughness
14. It is the indication of the resistance of a material to indentation by a penetrator.
a. Ductility
b. Brittleness
c. Hardness
d. Toughness
15. It is a measure of pulling and pushing force
a. Axial force
b. Shear force
c. Torque
d. Bending moments .
16. It is the measure of the total resistance to sliding.
a. Axial force
b. Shear force
c. Torque
d. Bending moments
17. It is the measure of the resistance to twisting.
a. Axial force
b. Shear force
c. Torque
d. Bending moments
18. A common bar suspended from certain support has axial load of 10kN. If the bar has a
cross section of 20mm2, find the stress experience by the bar.
a. 350MPa
b. 420MPa
c. 485MPa
d. 500MPa

10,000 N
500 MPa
20 x10 6 m 2

19. Assume that a 25-mm diameter rivet joins the plates that are each 125 mm wide. The
allowable stresses are 130 MPa for bearing in the plate material and 65 MPa for
shearing of the rivet. Determine the minimum thickness of each plate.
a. 10MPa
b. 20MPa
c. 30MPa
d. 40MPa

V
2
4 d
65M

V
(25mm) 2

P
b
dt
P
t
d b

P
A

31.91kNkN
[125mm 8mm 25mm 8mm]
39.89MPa

31.91kPa
( 25mm)130 M
t 9.82mm
t

V P 31.91kN

20. A cylinder pressure vessel is fabricated from plates which have a thickness of 20mm.
The diameter of the pressure vessel is 450 mm and its length is 3.5m. Determine the
maximum internal pressure which can be applied if the stress in the steel is limited to
150MPa.
a. 15.33MPa
b. 16.67MPa
c. 17.53MPa
d. 18.83MPa
D
t
2t
(450mm)
150 MPa
2( 25mm)
16.67 MPa
21. The wall thickness of a 3ft-diameter spherical tank is 4/17 in. Calculate the allowable
internal pressure if the stress is limited to 9000 psi.
a. 155.47psi
b. 169.25psi
c. 176.47psi
d. 188.73psi

pD
4t

p (4 12in)
4(4 / 17in)
p 176.47 psi
22. A steel bar 40mm in diameter and 3m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 6mm
thick. Compute the load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.95 mm in the
length of 2m. For steel E=300GPa, and for cast iron, E=150GPa.
a. 151kN
b. 161kN
c. 171kN
d. 181kN
9000

PL
AE
P ( 2 m)
AE

0.8 10 3 m
0.95 10 3

P 160.57 kN

P (3)
( 40mm) 300G [(52mm) 2 (40mm) 2 ]150G
2

23. A steel rod 3.5m long is secured between two walls. If the load on the rod is zero at
30C, compute the stress when the temperature drops to -30C. The cross sectional
area of the rod is 1200mm2, =11.7um/(mC), and E=200GPa.
a. 110MPa
b. 120MPa
c. 130MPa
d. 140MPa

LT

PL
T

E
AE

TE
(11.7 )(30 30)(200G )
PL
LT
140.4 MPa
AE
24. A steel shaft 3ft long that has a diameter of 5in is subjected to a torque of 14kip-ft.
Determine the maximum shearing stress. G=12x106 psi.
a. 0.47

b.

0.53

c.

0.68

d.

0.71

TL 14k (12)(3x12) 180

( 5) 4
x
0.47
6
JG

32 12 x10

25. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will not twist through more than
4 in a 6m length when subjected to a torque of 13kN-m? What max shearing stress is
developed? G=85 GPa
a. 107.6mm
b. 113.3mm
c. 121.9mm
d. 126.4mm

TL
JG

4 x

180

13k (6)
( d )4
32

85 x10 9

d 107.57 mm

26. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20-mm
diameter wire on a mean radius of 90 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2.5kN.
Use G=83 GPa.
a. 160mm
b. 165mm
c.
170mm
d. 175mm
3
64( 2.5k )(90mm) (20)

175mm
83GPa ( 20mm) 4
27. A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing strength of 40 ksi. The
compressive stress in the punch is limited to 50 ksi. Compute the maximum thickness of
plate from which a hole 2.5 inches in diameter can be punched
a. 0.500 in
b. 0.781 in
c. 0.102 in
d. 0.204 in
t = 2.5(50) / 4(40) = 0.781 inches
28. A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing strength of 40 ksi. The
compressive stress in the punch is limited to 50 ksi. If the plate is 0.25 inches thick,
determine the diameter of the smallest hole that can be punched.
a. 0.800 in
b. 0.871 in
c. 0.435 in
d. 0.600 in

D = 4(0.25)(40) / 50 = 0.800 inches

29. A large pipe, called a penstock in hydraulic work, is 1.5 m in diameter. It is composed of
wooden staves bound together by steel hoops, each 300 sq. Millimetre in cross-sectional
area, and is used to conduct water from a reservoir to power a house. If the maximum
tensile stress permitted in the hoops is 130 MPa, what is the maximum spacing between
hoops under a head of water of 30 m?
a. 17.7mm
b. 77.1 mm
c. 177 mm
d. 71.7 mm
(1000)(9.81)(30)(1.5)L = 2(300x10^-6)(130x10^6)
L = 177 mm
30. At what angular velocity will the stress in a rotating steel ring equal to 150 MPa if its
mean radius is 220 mm? The density of the steel is 7.85 Mg/m^3.
a. 19.87 rad/s
b. 159 rad/s
c. 138.2 rad/s
d. 628 rad/s
= (1/0.22)(150x10^6 / 7850)^(1/2) = 628 rad/s
31. A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness
of 10 mm. A gasket is inserted between the flange at one end of the pipe and a flat plate
use to cap the end. How many 40-mm-diameter bolts must be used to hold the cap on if
the allowable stress in the bolts is 80 MPa, of which 55 MPa is the initial stress?
a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. 17
N = (3.5x10^6)(0.45 2x0.01)^2 / [(0.04^2)(8855)x10^6] = 16.18 round up
N = 17
32. A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness
of 10 mm. A gasket is inserted between the flange at one end of the pipe and a flat plate
use to cap the end. What circumferential stress is developed in the pipe?
a. 75.3 MPa
b. 37.65 MPa
c. 78.75 MPa
d. 39.38 MPa
= (3.5)(450 2x10) / [2(10)] = 75.3 MPa
33. It is the maximum safe stress that a material can carry
a. working stress b. Ultimate stress c. rupture strength

d. Yield strength

34. It is the point at which there is an appreciable elongation of the material without any
corresponding increase of load.
a. Elastic limit
b. Yield point
c. Ultimate stress
d. Point of rupture
35. This component measures the pulling (or pushing) action perpendicular to the section
a. Torque
b. Bending moment
c. Axial forces
d. Shearing force
36. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 sq. Meters and a length of 150 m is
suspended vertically from one end. It supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end. If

the unit mass of steel is 7850 kg/m^3 and E = 200x10^3 MN/m^2, find the total
elongation of the rod.
a. 54.3 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 43.3 mm
d. 35 mm
= [(7850)(9.8)(150^2) / 2(200X10^9)] + [(20000)(150)(1000^2) / 300(200X10^9)]
= 54.3 mm
37. What is the theoretical maximum value of Poissons ratio of any given material subjected
to a uniform triaxial stress.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 1/3
d. 1/2
38. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 5 mm
thick. Compute the load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.8 mm in the
length of 2m. For steel E = 200 GPa, and for cast iron E = 100 GPa
a. 291 kN
b. 240 kN
c. 192 kN
d. 420 kN
P = [(/4)(0.05^2)(200x10^9)(0.0008)/2] +
[(/4)(0.06^2 -0.05^2)(100x10^9)(0.0008)/2]
P = 192 kN
39. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 80 MPa when twisted through 4 degrees.
Using G = 83 GPa, compute the shaft diameter.
a. 104 mm
b. 138 mm
c. 148 mm
d. 160 mm
r = (80)(5) / [(4)(/180)(83000)] = 69 mm
d = 2(69) = 138 mm
40. A solid steel shaft is not to twist through more than 3 degrees in a 6 m length when
subjected to a torque of 12 kN.m. What maximum shearing stress is developed? Use
G=83GPa.
a. 41.3 MPa
b. 43.4 MPa
c. 34.3 MPa
d. 17.6 MPa
(/4)d^4 = (12000)(6) / [(3)(/180)(83x10^9)]
d = 114 mm
= 16(12000) / [(.114)^3]
= 41.3 MPa
41. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will not twist through more than
3 degrees in a 6 m length when subjected to a torque of 12 kN.m? Use G=83GPa.
a. 114 mm
b. 116 mm
c. 118 mm
d. 120 mm
(/4)d^4 = (12000)(6) / [(3)(/180)(83x10^9)]
d = 114 mm

42. A steel rod 2.5 m long is secured between two walls. If the load on the rod is zero at 20
degree Celsius, compute the stress when the temperature drops to -20 degrees Celsius.
The cross-sectional are if the rod is 1200 sq. mm, coefficient of linear expansion = 11.7
um/(m-deg.C), and E = 200 GPa. Assume that the walls are rigid.
a. 69.3 MPa
b. 96.3 MPa
c. 93.6 MPa
d. 69.3 MPa
= (200x10^9)(11.7x10^-6)(20 - -20) = 93.6x10^6 Pa
= 93.6 MPa
43. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns
of 20 mm-diamter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when tha spring is supporting a load
of 2 kN. Use G = 83 GPa.
a. 110.6 MPa
b. 112.3 MPa
c. 120.6 MPa
d. 134.6 MPa
m = 80/10 = 8
= [16(2000)(0.08) / (0.02)^3]x{[4(8)-1]/[4(8)-4] + (0.615/8)}
= 120.6 MPa
44. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mmdiamter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when tha spring is supporting a load of 2 kN.
Use G = 83 GPa.
a. 87.9 mm
b. 78.9 mm
c. 98.7 mm
d. 89.7 mm
= 64(2000)(0.08^3)(20) / [(83x10^9)(0.02^4)]
= 98.7 mm
45. These are components of the total resistance to sliding the portion to one side of the
exploratory section past the other.
a. Torque
b. Bending moment
c. Axial forces
d. Shear forces
46. Who first postulated that stress is proportional to strain in 1678?
a. Thomas Young
b. Robert Hooke c. Andrew Pytel d. Charles Augustus
GEAS: Engineering Economy
1. An investor has an option to purchase a tract of land that will be worth P20,000 in
seven years. If the value of the land increases at 9% each year, how much should
the investor be willing to pay now for this property?
a. P9,341
b. P10,941
c. P11,521
d. P12,015

= F(P/F, i%, n)

P F

P = P20,000(P/F,9%,7) = P10,940.68

2. Suppose that you make 12 equal annual deposits of P2,000 each into a bank
account paying 8% interest per year. The first deposit will be made one year from
today. How much money can be withdrawn from this bank account immediately after
the 12th deposit?
a. P35,492
b. P36,218
c. 37,954
d. P38,755
(1 i ) n 1

F A
i

= P2000(F/A,8%,12) P37,954.25

3. What is the effective rate of interest if P1000 is invested at a nominal rate of 15%
compounded quarterly?
a. 15.86%
b. 16.86%
c. 17.86%
d. 18.86%

0.15

ieff 1
1 15.86%
4
4. A man
a house for P425,000. In the first month that he owned the house,
purchased

he spent P75,000 on repairs and remodeling. Immediately after the house was
remodeled, he was offered P545,000 to sell the house. After some consideration, he
decided to keep the house and have it rented for P4,500 per month starting two
months after the purchase. He collected rent for 15 months and then sold the house
for P600,000. if the interest rate was 1.5% per month, how much extra money did he
make or lose by not selling the house immediately after it was remodeled?
a. P3,000
b.P4,000
c. P5,000
d. P6,000
Ans P545,000 P 4,500( P / A,1.5%,15) P 600,000( P / F ,1.5%,15)
= P5,015

5. On the day his grandson was born, a man deposited to a trust company a sufficient
amount of money so that the boy could receive five annual payments of P20,000
each for his college tuition fees, starting with his 18th birthday. Interest at the rate of
12$ per annum was to be paid on all amounts on deposit. There was also a provision
that the grandson could elect to withdraw no annual payments and receive a single
lump amount on his 25th birthday. The grandson chose this option. How much did the
grandfather deposit?
a. P9,500
b. P10,500
c. P11,500
d. P12,500
P P 20,000( P / A,12%,5)( P / F ,12%,17)
= P10,500

6. A man bought an equipment costing P30,000 payable in 12 quarterly payments,

each installment payable at the beginning of each period. The rate of interest is 24%
compounded quarterly. What is the amount of each payment
a. P1,700
b. P2,700
c. P3,700
d. P4,700
P30,000 A(1 P / A,8%,12 1)
A P3,685.96

7. A telecommunication company purchased an equipment for P53,000 and paid

P1,500 for freight and delivery charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal
life of 10 years with a trade-in value of P5,000 against the purchase of a new
equipment at the end of the life. Determine the annual depreciation cost by the
sinking fund method. Assume interest at 6.5% compounded annually.
a. P2,543
b. P3.,668
c. P4,215
d. P5,956
CO P53,000 P1,500 P54,500
C L P5,000
d

P54,500 P5,000
P3,668
F / A,6.5%,10

8. A plant bought a machine for P200,000 and used it for 10 years, the life span of the
equipment. What is the book value of the machine after 5 years of use? Assume a
scrap value of P20,000. Use double declining balance method.
a. P43,648
b. P59,425
c. P65,536
d. P70,923

C5 P 200,00(1 102 ) 5 P65,536

GEAS: Engineering Management
1. It is a method of managing all the activities that affect the quality of goods or services in
order to prevent faults.
a. Quality Assurance
b. Quality Circle
c. Quality Control
d. Quality Standard
2. This type of business organization can be set up without any formality. It exist when
there are a number of people involved who are part owners of the business.
a. Association
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. Sole Proprietorship
3. Items purchased from a vendor cost Php 20 each, and the forecast for next years
demand is 1,000 units. If it costs Php 5 every time an order is placed for more units and
the storage cost is Php 4 per unit per year, what quantity should be order each time?
a. 20
b.
30
c.
40
d. 50
Q = (2DS/H) = ((2(1000)(5))/4) = 50 units
Where
D = Demand
S = Ordering cost
H = Storage cost/holding cost
4. This process can be used to measure achievement in Total Quality Management (TQM)
system. Also it provides the essential control and measure feedback loop necessary for
quality improvement
a. Benchmarking b. Continuous Improvement
c. Quality chain
d. Quality circle

5. It is the process of attracting potential employees to the company so that the selection
process can be carried out.
a. Advertising

b. Benchmarking

c. Selection

d. Recruitement

6. Two products, X and Y, both require processing time on machines I and II. Machine I has
200 hours available, and machine II has 400 hours available. Product X requires one
hour on machine I and four hours on machine II. Product Y requires one hour on
machine I and one hour on machine II. Each unit of product X yields PhP 10 profit and
each units of Y yields PhP 5 profit. What is the Linear Programming Model for this
problem.
a. Max Profit = PhP 5X + PhP 5Y
Subject to:
X + Y 200
X + Y 400
X,Y0
b. Max Profit = PhP 10X +PhP 5Y
Subject to: X + Y 200
4X + Y 400
X,Y0
c. Max Profit = PhP 5X + PhP 10Y
Subject to:
X + Y 200
4X + Y 400
X,Y0
d. Max Profit = PhP 10X + PhP 5Y
Subject to:
X + Y 200
X + Y 400
X,Y0
Let X = number of units of product X to be produced.
Y = number of units of product Y to be produced.
Max Profit = PhP 10X +PhP 5Y
Subject to:
X + Y 200
Capacity of Machine I
4X + Y 400 Capacity of Machine II
X,Y0
Nonnegativity Constraints

7. A project has been defined to contain the following list of activities, along with their
required times for completion
Activity
A
B
C

Time (days)
5
6
3

Immediate Predecessors
A

D
8
A
E
2
B,C
F
11
B,C
G
1
D
H
12
E,D
What is the completion time of the whole project?
a. 17 days
b. 22days
c. 25 days
d. 37 days

11
8

F 11

6
0
0

A
5

C3

13
13

D
2

8
5

5
G

H
12
1

13
13

8. Here are the monthly data for the past 8 months. From these data, what are the
forecasts for the following 4 months using linear regression?
Period
Actual
1
300
2
540
3
885
4
580
5
416
6
760
7
1191
8
760
a. 9th825, 10th- 910.33, 11th 995.66, 12th 1,081
b. 9th--900, 10th- 967, 11th - 1034, 12th 1,101

c. 9th--997, 10th- 1067.67, 11th 1138.33, 12th 1209

d. 9th--1027, 10th- 1,104, 11th 1,181, 12th 1,258
y = a + bx
Where
y = the dependent variable
a = the intercept
b = the slope of the line
x = the independent variable
b

a y - bx

xy n x y
x nx
2

a = 361 b = 70.67
equation :
y = 361 + 70.67x
9. It is the name given to any activity undertaken by the organization with the express
purpose of gaining information about potential customer
a. Market Analysis
b. Market Intelligence
c. Market Research
d. Market System
10. It is used when product are made singly or in small batches. It happens when a small
number of products are processed at each storage before going on to the next stage.
a. Batch Production
b. Flow Production
c. Job Production
d. Production Design
11. It involves a voluntary association of people, called members, who operate an enterprise
collectively. The aim of this organization is not to make profit but to give support to their
members.
a. Association
b. Cooperatives
c. Private Companies
d. Public Companies
12. It is the rational way to ensure that our limited time is always used effectively.
a. Management Commitment
b. Management Responsibility
c. Time Management
d. Time Conflict
GEAS: Laws, Contracts and Ethics
1. Date of approval of RA 9292
a. April 14, 2004
b. April 14, 2007 c. April 17, 2004 d. None of these
2. There are __________ Articles and __________ sections in the RA 9292.
a. 8,42
b. 8, 43
c. 7, 43
d. 7,42
3. Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any rules, regulations, the
Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice is stated in section
_________.
a. 35

b. 36

c. 37

d. 38

4. This act is was consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill No. 2683.
a. RA 9292
b. RA 5734
c. RA 6541
d. None of these

5. The chairperson of the PRC shall include in the Commissions program the
implementation of RA 9292, the funding of w/c shall be included in the Annual General
Appropriation Act.
a. Sec 39
b. Sec 40
c. Sec 41
d. Sec 42
6. According to section 43, RA 9292 shall take effect __________ following its full
publication in the __________ or any newspaper of general circulation.
a. 15 days, Law Gazette
b. 15 days, Official Gazette
c. 15 days, internet
d. 30 days, internet
7. Who among the following persons was not a signatory of the 9292?
a. FRANKLIN DRILON
b. JOSE DE VENECIA JR
c. OSCAR G. YABES
d. JESUS P. NAZARENO
8. Section 40 of RA 9292.
a. Appropriations b. Repealing clause

c. Effectivity d. Separability clause

9. Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members of Electronics
Engineering?
a. Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs prior to his
appointment
b. Member of good standing of the APO
c. Must not have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude
d. Be of good moral character and integrity
10. All records of the Board, including applications for the examination, administrative cases
involving PECE, ECE and ECTs shall be kept by
a. BECE
b. IECEP
c. PRC
d. APO
11. The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of __________ from date of
appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may
be re-appointed once for another term.
a. two years
b. at least 3 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
12. Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the authority to: Adopt an official
__________ of the Board.
a. logo
b. icon
c. Avatar
d. Seal
13. The compensation and allowances of the Board is comparable to that being received by
the Chairman and members of existing regulatory boards under the Commission as
provided for in the __________.
a. Civil Service
b. Dept of Budget & Mngt
c. RA 1992

d. Gen Appropriations Act

14. Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________ prior to the assumption of
office.
a. panel interview from the Appointment committee
b. board exam
c. proper oath
d. none of these
15. How much or what fine is required for any person who shall violate any provision or any
rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice
promulgated under RA 9292?
a. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not less
than 6 months nor more than 6 year
b. Php100,000.00 to Php 1M or 6 yrs imprisonment or both, in the discretion of the court
c. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not
less than 6 months nor more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of the court
d. none of these
16. The Board and the __________ shall correct and rate the licensure examination papers
a. Commission
b. APO
c. IECEP
d. none of these
17. According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state shall therefore develop and nurture
competent, virtuous, productive, and __________ PECE, ECE, and ECTs
a. God-fearing
b. religious c. versatile d. well-rounded
18. A candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician who obtains a passing
rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s below
_________ percent but not lower than __________ percent, shall be allowed to take one
removal examinations on the subject/s where he/she failed to obtain the passing rating.
a. 70, 50
b. 70, 60 c. 50, 70
d. 60, 70
19. Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the Board shall issue
Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Cards without examination to
all applicants for registration as Electronics Technicians who comply to all the
requirements stated in section 20.
a. 3 (three)
b. 5 (five)
c. 7 (seven) d. none of these
20. With reference to prob 22, all submittals/documents shall be accompanied by a
certification from __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant.
a. at least 3
b. 3
c. 5
d. none of these
21. As provided in ACT 3846, the construction of a radio station shall begin only when
a. A personnel of NTC has conveyed through telephone that the application has already
been approved.
b. the firm applying for the construction permit has submitted to the NTC its application
for the same.

c. the technical documents has already been signed and sealed by the PECE.
d. The NTC has already issued a Permit to construct.
22. As provided in RA7925, a VAS provider needs to secure a franchise if
a. it is offered by a telecommunications entity whose proceeds of utility operations are
not cross-subsidized.
b. it does not discriminate other service providers against rates.
c. it is offered by a telecommunications entity that uses a separate book of accounts for
VAS.
d. it puts up its own network.
23. According to the code of ethics, if you are employed in a company and you wish to
engage in a business which may compete with your company, the most ethical thing to
do is to
a. inform your employer about it
b. have somebody run the business instead of you
c. try to find new clients
d. keep your prices lower than your companys