CAAV QUESTION BANK ATR 72

ATA 06
1. 500 is major zone for:
a. Power plant and nacelles.
b. Left wing.
c. Right wing
2. The zoning system is based on:
a. One group.
b. Two group.
c. Three group.
3.
a.
b.
c.

The sequence of zone numbering run:

After to forward.
From inboard to outboard in the wing.
Rear to front in the wing.

ATA 07
4.
a.
b.
c.

When jacking of aircraft is performed:

Fuel in both tanks must be the same.
Fuel in the left tank is more than in the right tank.
Fuel in the right tank is more than in the left tank.

5. When jacking of aircraft is performed outside of the hangar, maximum allowwable

wind speed is:
a. 40 km/h.
b. 45 km/h.
c. 50 km/h.
6.
a.
b.
c.

Aircraft must be in the following configuration for jacking:

Main gear wheel brakes engaged, wheel chocks removed.
Main gear wheel brakes released, wheel chocks installed.
Main gear wheel brakes released, wheel chocks removed.

ATA 08
7. During quick levelling precision rule and clinometer are positioned:
a. At level of forward cargo compartment.
b. At level of cargo compartment door.
c. At level of after cargo compartment.
ATA 09
8. Towing of the aircraft by nose gear can not be performed when:
a. Aircraft in hangar.
b. Aircraft in run way.
c. Aircraft in soft sand or mud.
9. Towing of the aircraft by nose gear can not be performed when:
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a. Nose gear has two flat tyres.
b. Nose gear has one flat tyre.
c. Main gear has one flat tyre.
10. Aircraft can be towed with speed:
a. Same as slow walk.
b. Less than slow walk.
c. Faster than slow walk.
11. Before towing the aircraft the N/W steering swich is in which position?
a. OFF.
b. ON.
c. Neutral.
12. Towing operation must have permision from:
a. Director.
b. Maintenance manager.
c. Control tower.
ATA 10
13. Aircraft must be parked:
a. Head into wind.
b. Tail into wind.
c. Crosswind.
14. When check full travel of the rudder TLU selector swich is in which position?
a. HI SPD.
b. LO SPD.
c. AUTO.
15. For parking for longer than one week:
a. Install the two air inlet covers.
b. Install the two engine nacelle covers.
c. Remove MLG safety pins.
16. For parking for less than one week:
a. Install the two air inlet covers.
b. Install the two engine nacelle covers.
c. Remove MLG safety pins.
17. Mooring is needed when:
a. Aircraft on its wheels and parked outside, wind speed exceeding limit.
b. Aircraft on its wheels and parked in hangar wind speed exceeding limit.
c. Aircraft on its wheels and parked outside, wind speed less than the limit.
ATA 11
18. For installation of decals applied across lap joints:
a. Decal is wrapped smoothly and continiously around the edge of the lap joint.
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b. Decal is cut and wrapped around the edge.
c. Decal is cut and wrapped over the edge.
ATA 12
19. On the aircraft, a black point strip shows:
a. The NO STEP areas.
b. The NO SMOKING areas.
c. The DANGEROUS areas.
20. What are the kinds of drainage points on the aircraft?
a. Draining points with piston valves and direct draining points.
b. Draining points with piston valves; direct draining points and draining points with
pipes.
c. Draining points with piston valves and draining points with pipes.
21. Only use explosion proof inspection lights when:
a. Carry out refueling or defueling
b. Refill hydraulic fluids.
c. Refill engine oils.
22. What is the purpose of installation of the caps or other suitable protectors when
electrical connectors are disconnected?
a. To prevent entry of hydraulic fluid, moisture and foreign objects.
b. To prevent entry of foreign objects.
c. To prevent entry of hydraulic fluid, moisture.
23. During MLG wheel/Tire assy. removal and installation, what do you do to prevent
inadvertent retraction of landing gear on ground?
a. Check that the landing gear ground locking pins are in place.
b. Display a warning notice prohibiting landing gear operation on panel 404VU.
c. Both (a) & (b).
24. During NLG wheel/Tire assy removal and installation, the old cotter pin is:
a. Discarded.
b. Re-used.
c. Inspected before re-using.
25. You can check fuel level by using manual indicators when fuel quantity of each
tank is:
a. Greater than 300 litres.
b. Greater than 150 litres.
c. Greater than 200 litres.
26. During check of fuel level by using manual indicators, the accuracy of the manual
indicators is:
a. + or - 200 litres.
b. + or - 50 litres.
c. + or - 100 litres.
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27. During check of fuel level by using manual indicators, you calculate fuel quantity
by using inclinometer indicating when:
a. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 30cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 30cm.
b. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 30cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 20cm.
c. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 20cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 20cm.
28. How do you know the water tank is full during potable water filling?
a. Observe water quantity indicator on potable water service panel.
b. Check that water flows through overflow port.
c. Observe water quantity indicator on service vehicle.
ATA 20
29. Safetying principle for using lockwire:
a. Applied tension must come with loosening.
b. Applied tension must oppose loosening.
c. Applied tension can either come with loosening or oppose loosening.
30. What is interfraying?
a. Applying a sealant with high viscosity on the edge of a structural assembly.
b. Applying a very thin layer of sealant on the edge of a structural assembly.
c. Applying a very thin layer of sealant between the surfaces of the two materials to be
assembled.
31. Fuel leaks are defined in categories:
a. Seapage only.
b. Running leaks only.
c. Seapage and running leak.
32. What is slight seapage (oozing)?
a. A measurement not exceeding 50 mm in any direction.
b. A measurement not exceeding 60 mm in any direction
c. A measurement not exceeding 70 mm in any direction
33. What is heavy seapage (dripping)?
a. A measurement greater than 50 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction.
b. A measurement greater than 60 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction.
c. A measurement greater than 70 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction.
34. What is running leak?
a. A leak less than seapage.
b. A leak greater than seapage.
c. A leak as same as seapage.
35. If there is a fuel leak with 0 to 10 drops per minute:
a. No action.
b. Weekly inspection for ensure that the leak is not worsening.
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c. Repair to be carried out at next A check.
36. If there is fuel leak with 10 to 20 drops per minute:
a. No action.
b. Weekly inspection for ensure that the leak is not worsening.
c. Repair to be carried out at next A check.
37. If there is fuel leak with 20 to 30 drops per minute:
a. Repair to be carried out within 100 flights. Daily inspection.
b. Repair to be carried out at next A check.
c. Repair to be carried out at next Ccheck.
38. If there is a fuel leak over 30 drops per minute:
a. Immediate repair action before next flight.
b. Repair at next A check.
c. Repair at next C check.
39. How many fuel leak location can be defined on aircraft?
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
ATA 21
40. In air conditioning system, the air flow and pressure are controlled by:
a. Two pack valves.
b. Two ACMs (air cycle machine).
c. Two turbo fan shutoff valves.
41. A DUMP function is used:
a. In case of emergency depressurization (full open signal).
b. In case of ditching.
c. In both cases (a) and (b).
42. A DITCH function is used:
a. In case of emergency depressurization.
b. In case of ditching.
c. In both cases (a) and (b).
43. To avoid a bump at landing the automatic mode controls the cabin altitude to
have a value:
a. Equal to selected landing altitude minus 530 ft.
b. Equal to selected landing altitude plus 300 ft.
c. Equal to selected landing altitude minus 300 ft.
44. Overpressure relief allows the valve to open when:
a. P reaches 6.35 PSI.
b. P reaches 6.50 PSI.
c. P reaches 0.50 PSI
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45. Cabin pressure and rate of change are obtained through:
a. A manual pneumatic controller (in Manual mode) only.
b. An automatic digital controller (in Auto mode) or a manual pneumatic controller (in
Manual mode).
c. An automatic digital controller (in Auto mode) only.
46. The automatic digital pressure controller receives several parameters, such as:
a. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure(from ADC), TAT(Total air
temperature)
b. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure (from ADC), cabin
pressure.
c. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure(from ADC), cabin
pressure, TAT(Total air temperature)
47. During automatic digital pressure controller test, the following items are checked:
a. Electropneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; digital controller
electrical circuitries.
b. Pneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; landing gear and pack
valves microswitches, digital controller electrical circuitries.
c. Electropneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; landing gear and
pack valves microswitches, digital controller electrical circuitries.
48. The test of automatic digital pressure controller is performed by depressing the
test pushbutton. The test is OK if:
a. No light comes on.
b. The digits displayed on the front face of the controller switch ON to indicate
alternatively: 18800 and -8800.
c. The digits displayed on the front face of the controller switch ON to indicate
alternatively: 18000 and -8800.
ATA 22
49. The yaw actuator is located
a. In the wing center box.
b. In the rear unpressuried compartment
c. Inside the rudder.
50. The yaw actuator controls the rudder when:
a. The AP is engaged
b. YD is engaged only
c. Both of a & b are correct
51. Manual disengagement of the AP is achieved by:
a. Using STBY & NORMAL PITCH TRIM
b. Using AIL.TRIM
c. Using RUDDER TRIM.
52. Manual disengagement of the YD is achieved by:
a. Using the AP quick disconnect SW.
b. Pressing the GA pushbutton on the power lever.
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d. Applying a force greater than 30daN on rudder pedals.
53. The purpose of the STBY pushbutton SW on the AFCS control panel is:
a. To control the bank angle (HI or LO)
b. To engage FD mode.
c. To disengage FD mode.
54. The DH Audio warning is generated by the:
a. MFC.
b. AFCS system.
c. GPWS system.
55. AP is automatically disengaged in the:
a. Icing condition.
b. Stall condition.
c. Bad weather.
56. YD is automatically disengaged:
a. In stall condition.
b. In icing or bad weather.
c. At touch down during landing.
57. The AFCS computer is located in:
a. Racks 90VU
b. Racks 80VU
c. Forward electronic rack.
58. The GA pushbutton SW is located on:
a. Power lever.
b. Condition lever.
c. Captain instrument panel.
59. GUIDANCE light is illuminated in case of:
a. Cat 2 in valid
b. EXCESS DEV warning.
c. Both of a & b are correct.
60. In the heading select mode, if the ADU indicates "HDG SEL LO" the bank angle
limit is:
a. 15o
b. 27o
c. 30o
61. GA mode can be disengaged by action on the:
a. Quick release p.b.
b. TCS p.b.
c. GA p.b.
62. The pitch, roll & rudder actuator are:
a. Interchangeable.
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b. Not identical
c. Both of a & b are correct.
63. Action on CPL p.b. on AFCS control panel, you can:
a. Change the coupled side.
b. Engage the AP.
c. Both of a & b are correct
64. The AFCS computer interfaces with SGU, AHRS, ADU & ADC through:
a. ARINC 429
b. ARINC 629
c. ASCB (Avionic Standard Communication Bus)
65. Which is the correct statement:
a. When AFCS is operating in FD mode (FD only), AFCS computer provides information
through FD bars on EADI which allow an automatic guidance of the aircraft.
b. When AFCS is operating in FD mode (FD only), AFCS computer provides information
through FD bars on EADI which allow a manual guidance of the aircraft.
c. There are not information on EADI. In this mode, the AFCS computer is not powered.
66. FD mode (lateral or vertical) can be disengaged:
a. By a second action on the corresponding p.b. HDG, NAV, APP, BC IAS VS ALT.
b. By action on STBY p.b.
c. Both of a& b are correct.
67. With AP not engaged, YD automatic disengagement results in:
a. "YD DISENGAGED" steady on ADU.
b. "AP/YD DISENGAGED" steady on ADU.
c. "YD DISENGAGED" flashing on ADU.
68. In AP mode, the TCS function declutches the:
a. Roll & pitch servo actuators.
b. Roll, pitch & yaw servo actuators.
c. Roll servo actuator only.
69. GA mode can be engaged by:
a. Action on both GA p.b.
b. Action on only one GA p.b.
c. Both a &b are correct.
70. The Roll actuator is located in the:
a. Left wing side.
b. Center part of the wing
c. Right wing side.
71. The function of the BANK p.b. on ACP:
a. to clear the upper mode if it is engaged before.
b. To change bank angle limit value.
c. To engage FD function.
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72. Which bank angle limit value is automatically selected upon energization:
a. Hi
b. Low
c. The value stored in AFCS computer memory.
73. GA mode selection disengages:
a. AP
b. YD
c. AP/YD
ATA-23
74. The frequency of VHF:
a. 118.0MHz. 136,975MHz.
b. 118,0 MHz 130,975MHz.
c. 2,00 MHz 20, 0 MHz.
75. Power Supply for VHF#1
a. DC Bus 1
b. DC Bus 2.
c. DC Emergency Bus.
76. When TX annunciator in VHF control panel illuminates:
a. Receiver is receiving.
b. VHF is transmitting.
c. VHF is remotely tuned.
77. Which statement is NOT correct:
a. Six preset frequencies can be stored in preset display window of VHF.
b. The function of SQ OFF in selector of VHF control panel is disable the receiver squelch
circuit.
c. ACT button in VHF control panel is controlled for brightness.
78. When performing the test in VHF, if display in control panel showed DIAG
message and code 03:
a. No fault detected.
b. Fault detected.
c. None of above.
79. The priority for Passenger Address announcement between Cockpit and
Attendant:
a. Cockpit announcement is first priority.
b. Attendant announcement is first priority.
c. Both of them are the same priority.
80. To make Passenger Address announcement by Attendant:
a. Lift off the hand set in Attendant panel, press PA switch, and press PTT switch in
Attendant handset.
b. Lift off the hand set in Attendant panel, press PA switch in Audio Control Panel, press
PTT switch in Attendant handset.
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c. Lift off the handset in Attendant panel, press INT switch, press PTT switch in Attendant
handset.
81. Which statement is correct:
a. The audio level of Passenger Address is increased by 6 db as soon as an engine is
running, via the contacts of the corresponding engine low oil pressure relay.
b. Cockpit announcements are given priority over cabin attendant announcements via pulse
generator.
c. There are three loudspeakers are in cockpit ceiling.
82. To make a call from Cockpit to Mechanic:
a. The horn is sound.
b. The doorbell is sound.
c. The single chime is sound.
83. The condition to erase in information recorded in Cockpit Voice Recorder:
a. In all flight phases.
b. A/C on ground, Press Erase switch.
c. A/C on ground, Parking Brake set, Press ERASE switch.
ATA 24
84. The Main Battery is charged by
a. DC Bus 1
b. DC Bus 2
c. DC Emer Bus
85. AC on ground, no engine running, no EXT. power, the DC GRND HDL Bus is
supplied from
a. The HOT EMER BAT Bus
b. The HOT MAIN BAT Bus
c. The DC SVCE Bus
86. The 45% NH signal (starter cut out) is sent to the GCU from the
a. Speed sensor incorporated in S/G
b. BPCU
c. HES
87. Rated nominal voltage of the Starter/Generator is
a. 28V
b. 30V
c. 24V
88. GFR (Generator Field Relay) is incorporated in
a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU
89. The Generator Under speed protection is the one of the functions of
a. BPCU
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b. MFC
c. GCU
90. The BTC (Bus Tie Contactor) is controlled by
a. BPCU
b. GCU
c. MFC
91. The SC (Starter Contactor) is controlled by:
a. BPCU
b. GCU
c. MFC
92. Nominal capacity of Main Battery is:
a. 45 Ah
b. 15 Ah
c. 43 Ah
93. In the AC CF system the BTR (Bus Tie Relay) is controlled by
a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU
94. In flight, with the 2 SGs failed, or on the ground with the Batt. ON only (no EXT
power, no eng running), the INV2 is supplied by:
a. DC Bus 2
b. HOT MAIN BAT Bus
c. None of a & b are correct
95. ACW GENs are driven by
a. Eng. AGB
b. Propeller RGB
c. Both a & b are correct
96. How many BTCs (Bus Tie Contactor) are there in the ACW electrical system
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
97. The GCU confidence check can be performed
a. On ground only with the main buses not energized (battery only)
b. In flight, after take off
c. Anytime
98. An ACW SVCE Bus can be supplied from
a. The EXT power
b. The ACW Bus 1, if the EXT. Power is not available and if the 2 ACW generators are
operational
c. Both a & b are correct
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99. What is the meaning of the BCC
a. Battery Charging Contactor
b. Bus Contactor Controller
c. Bus Cut-off Contactor
100. The GC (Generator Contactor) is controlled by the:
a. BPCU
b. GCU
c. MFC
101. The DC GEN is driven by:
a. Engine AGB
b. Propeller RGB
c. Both of a & b are correct
102. The EPC (external power contactor) is controlled by
a. GCU
b. BPCU
c. MFC
103. What is the purpose of the DC Electrical generating power feeder system
a. To provide warning and/or maintenance signal only when the AC is on ground
b. To provide warning and/or maintenance signal only when the AC is in flight
c. It can provide warning at any time when the DC Gen is in generation mode
104. Normal capacity of the Emer Batt.
a. 13 Ah
b. 15 Ah
c. 43 Ah
105. What is an internal Battery over temperature
a. >1000C
b. >810C
c. >710C
106. In normal condition, AC STBY Bus is supplied from
a. Static inverter 1
b. Static inverter 2
c. Both a & b are correct
107. What is the inverters nominal power in continuous operation
a. 500 W
b. 500VA
c. 750VA
108. What is the ACW GEN normal frequency range
a. 400Hz 10%
b. 400Hz 10Hz
c. From 341 to 488 Hz
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109. Open phase protection is one of the functions of
a. GCU ACW
b. BPCU ACW
c. MFC
110. ACW SVCE Bus is controlled by
a. BPCU DC
b. BPCU ACW
c. GCU ACW
111. The HES (Hall Effect Sensor) is used in ACW system for the purpose
a. Over load, Open phases and differential current protection
b. Over/under voltage protection and current measuring
c. Both a & b are not correct (ACW Sys used CT (current transformer). Not HES)
112. AC in flight, if one ACW GEN faulty:
a. Both ACW Bus 1 & ACW Bus 2 are supplied from operating ACW GEN via BTCs
closing
b. ACW SVCE Bus is supplied from ACW Bus 1, ACW SVCE Bus is supplied from ACW
Bus 2
c. ACW SVCE Bus is shed off
113. You can perform the ACW system confidence check
a. Only on ground
b. Only in flight
c. At any time
ATA 25
114. The ATR flight compartment is equipped with:
a. A Captain seat and a First Officer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto the
floor structure. Observer folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
b. An Observer seat and a First Officer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto
the floor structure. Captain folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
c. A Captain seat and an Observer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto the
floor structure. First Officer folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
115. Emergency evacuation of the crew is made via:
a. Emergency exit doors located in the forward passenger compartment.
b. An emergency hatch located in the flight compartment ceiling.
c. Cargo door located on forward cargo compartment.
116. An evacuation rope is located:
a. In the upper part of electrics rack.
b. Under Captain seat.
c. Under Observer seat.
117. The Pax double seat unit consists of:

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a. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage
retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a seat belt; a folding table
attached to seat back.
b. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage
retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a life vest stowage; a seat
belt.
c. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage
retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a life vest stowage; a seat
belt; a folding table attached to seat back; a bumper strip on aisle side.
118. The ATR aircraft consists of:
a. Two cargo compartments, therere 03 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 02 nets in
AFT cargo compartment.
b. Two cargo compartments, therere 02 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 02 nets in
AFT cargo compartment.
c. Two cargo compartments, therere 03 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 01 net in
AFT cargo compartment.
119. How many cabin attendant seats in passenger compartment?
a. Only one cabin attendant seat is provided in AFT section.
b. Two cabin attendant seats are provided: one in FWD section the other in the AFT
section.
c. Three cabin attendant seats are provided: one in FWD section, one in the MID section
and the other in the AFT section.
120. AFT section cabin attendant seat is:
a. Located next to the cabin attendant partition in line with the aisle and attached to floor
rail.
b. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition. The seat slides towards the aisle for
utilization.
c. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition and attached to floor rail.
121. FWD section cabin attendant seat is:
a. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition and attached to floor rail.
b. Located in the housing, behind FWD partition. The seat slides towards the aisle for
utilization.
c. Located next to the cabin attendant partition in line with the aisle and attached to floor
rail.
122. Each basic PSU( Passenger Service Unit) includes:
a. Two attendant call pushbuttons; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 2 or 4 air outlets.
b. One attendant call pushbutton; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 2 or 4 air outlets.
c. Two attendant call pushbuttons; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 01 air outlet.
123. The Passenger Service Units are located:
a. On LH armrest of the double seat.
b. Under the overhead stowage compartments above the passengers.
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c. On RH armrest of the double seat.
124. The purpose of the attendant call pushbutton is:
a. To call Captain when the passenger need his help.
b. To call attendant when the passenger need their help.
c. To call attendant in emergency case only.
125. The passenger can use PSU (Passenger Service Units) to:
a. Call attendant; adjust air outlets and volume of loudspeaker; turn on or turn off the
reading light.
b. Call attendant; adjust volume of loudspeaker; turn on or turn off the reading light.
c. Call attendant; adjust air outlets; turn on or turn off the reading light.
126. The emergency items of equipment in the flight compartment are:
a. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; fireproof gloves; torches and life vests.
b. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; an axe; fireproof gloves; torches and life vests.
c. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; an axe; fireproof gloves and torches.
127. The emergency items of equipment in the passenger compartment are:
a. A megaphone; first aid kits; torches and a rope.
b. A megaphone; first aid kits; torches.
c. A megaphone; first aid kits; life vests; torches and a rope.
128. Emergency locator system consists of:
a. A transmitter; a remote control and an antenna.
b. A transmitter and a remote control.
c. A transmitter and an antenna.
129. Several galleys exist:
a. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the service door. One secondary galley located in the passenger
compartment aft section, on the left side, forward of entry door.
b. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the service door. One secondary galley located in the passenger
compartment aft section, on the left side, aft of entry door.
c. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the entry door. One secondary galley located in the passenger compartment
aft section, on the left side, forward of the service door.
ATA 26
130. NAC OVHT system is ready to operate when:
a. Aircraft is on ground.
b. Aircraft is in flight.
c. Aircraft is on ground, 30 seconds after landing.
131. NAC OVHT system monitors temperature in:
a. Right nacelle.
b. Left nacelle.
c. Left and right nacelle.
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132. NAC OVHT located on Crew Alert Panel light comes on when the right nacelle
temperature reaches:
a. 170 C.
b. 177 C.
c. 177 C.
133. In engine fire detection, FAULT light comes on when:
a. Short circuit occurred in engine fire detection circuit
b. The cartridge of engine fire extinguisher bottle failed.
c. The sensing element was double broken.
134. When the sensing element of engine fire detection was single broken:
a. FAULT light comes on.
b. FAULT light doesnt come on
c. Both (a) and (b) are not correct.
135. In engine fire detection, when a fire is detected:
a. Resistance of fire sensing element reduces and capacitance of fire sensing element
increases.
b. Resistance of fire sensing element increases and capacitance of fire sensing element
reduces.
c. Both resistance and capacitance of fire sensing element increase.
136. In case of single or double break of the engine fire sensing element:
a. The fault is always indicated to the crew.
b. The fault is not indicated to the crew any time.
c. The fault is indicated to the crew during the pre-flight test only.
137. In engine fire detection, the fault signal activates when:
a. There is a variation in resistance of the sensing element not accompanied by a variation
in capacitance.
b. There is a variation in resistance of the sensing element.
c. There is a variation in capacitance of the sensing element.
138. Whats the kind of smoke detector located in Avionic Compartment?
a. Ambient detector.
b. Duct detector
c. Both (a) and (b) are not correct.
139. Lavatory fire extinguisher is activated automatically when temperature of heat
source reaches:
a. 77 C
b. 70 C.
c. 100 C.
140. The whole engine fire detection system is supplied from:
a. DC EMER BUS.
b. DC STBY BUS.
c. DC ESS BUS.
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141. In flight, FWD cargo, lavatory and aft cargo smoke detection circuit can be
tested by:
a. Action on SMK TEST pushbutton switch located on ceiling panel of the cockpit.
b. Action on selector switch located on left maintenance of the cockpit.
c. Both (a) & (b).
142. Whats the kind of smoke detector located in Lavatories Compartment?
a. Photoelectric cell detector
b. Duct detector.
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
143. Where are two fixed fire extinguisher bottles installed?
a. In engine.
b. After the fire-wall into the fairing between the engine nacelle and the wing.
c. In the wing-to-fuselage junction fillet.
144. When engine fire handle is pulled:
a. All LP fuel shutoff valve, air bleed valve, pressure regulating and shut off valve, deicing shut off valve close; AC & DC generators de-energize; SQUIB legend comes on
b. SQUIB legend comes on.
c. LP fuel shutoff valve closes and SQUIB legend comes on.
145. What is the function of SQUIB TEST switch?
a. Discharge fire extinguisher bottle.
b. Check of the enabling electrical continuity of the percussion resistances.)
c. Check of pressure inside fire extinguisher bottle.
ATA27
146. The control of aileron is done:
a. By control wheel.
b. By control column.
c. By pedal.
147. The purposes of TLU:
a. To limit rudder travel at high speed.
b. To limit rudder travel at low speed.
c. To limit damper function for rudder.
148. The TLU switch in overhead panel includes:
a. Two position: AUTO- MANUAL.
b. Three position: HIGH SPEED-AUTO-LOW SPEED.
c. Two position: ONAUTO-OFF.
149. The signal of aileron position transmitter sends to:
a. The indicator in flight Deck.
b. The FDAU.
c. Both of above.
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150. In all trim actuators of flight control system, there are two electric motor, one
electric motor is not used if installing in:
a. Rudder trim and Elevator trim.
b. Aileron trim and Elevator trim.
c. Aileron trim and Rudder trim.
151. Which of the following cases are given warning alert:
a. Flaps asymmetry.
b. Pitch asymmetry.
c. Pitch disconnected.
152. The flaps system includes:
a. 02 flap valve block, 04 actuators.
b. 01 flap valve block, 02 actuators.
c. 01 flap valve block, 04 actuators.
153. The hydraulic system supply for flaps is came from:
a. Green system.
b. Blue system.
c. Both hydraulic system
154. When flaps asymmetry occurs:
a. The flaps are returned to up position.
b. The flaps can be controlled by alternate method.
c. The flaps remain in reached position.
155. When pressing on one of two Roll trim swiches:
a. Trim actuator will be supplied for acting the left tab.
b. Trim actuator will be supplied for acting the right tab.
c. Trim actuator will not supplied.
156. The descicant cartridge in the aileron trim actuator is used to:
a. Absorb ambient humidity.
b. Check actuator temperature.
c. Check actuator external condition.
157. Releasable Centering Unit (RCU) is automatically centered when:
a. Trim command is applied.
b. Yaw damper is active.
c. Pedals are free.
158. When pushing on the Elevator trim switches on the first officer control wheel:
a. The left trim actuator is suplied to move the left tab and the right tab is moved through
flexible shaft.
b. Both left and right trim actuators are supplied.
c. The left trim actuator is suplied to move the left tab and the right tab is moved through
Pitch Uncoupling Mechanism.
159. The elevator trim value is supplied by:
a. Position transmitter installed on control surfaces.
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b. Right trim actuator position transmitter.
c. Left trim actuator position transmitter.
160. The shift between the left and right trim actuator is performed by:
a. FDAU.
b. DFDR.
c. MFC.
161. There is green sector on elevator trim indicator:
a. The pointer must not be out of this sector when take off.
b. The pointer must not be out of this sector when landing.
c. The pointer must not be out of this sector when cruzing.
162. When the left AOA sensor is failed:
a. The stall warning system is failed.
b. The right stick shaker is still opeartive.
c. The right stick shaker and the stick pusher are still operative to prevent aircraft from
stalling.
163. When stick pusher is operating it:
a. Pushes elevator control linkage in nose-down direction.
b. Pushes elevator control linkage in nose-up direction.
c. Causes vibrattion to the control columns.
164. The angle-of- attack limit value depends on:
a. Aircraft speed.
b. Aircraft configuration and flight conditions.
c. Engine power.
165. An EXT electromagnetic flag on the flap position indicator indicates:
a. Energization of extension solenoid valve.
b. Energization of retraction solenoid valve.
c. Indicator failure.
166. Spoilers are controlled by:
a. Control wheel.
b. Control column.
c. Pedals.
167. When turning the control wheel to the right end:
a. The left spoiler moves up.
b. Both left and right spoiler move up.
c. The right spoiler moves up.
168. Spoiler extension is initiated for aileron deflection of:
a. 4.5 degrees.
b. 3.5 degrees.
c. 2.5 degrees.
ATA 28
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169. Where are the fuel tanks located on the wing of the aircraft?
a. Between RIB#3 and RIB#24.
b. Between RIB#4 and RIB#23.
c. Between RIB#4 and RIB#24.
170. How many kilograms is the fuel maximum capacity?
a. 5500.
b. 4800.
c. 5000.
171. Where is the feeder tank located on the wing of the aircraft?
a. Between RIB#4 and RIB#5.
b. Between RIB#0 and RIB#4.
c. Between RIB#23 and RIB#24.
172. How many liters is the capacity of feeder tank?
a. 200.
b. 220.
c. 150.
173. Where is the vent surge tank located on the wing of the aircraft?
a. Between RIB#24 and RIB#25.
b. Between RIB#22 and RIB#23.
c. Between RIB#23 and RIB#24.
174. What is the purpose of the tank venting system?
a. To ensure tank venting in all operating phases in flight and on the ground.
b. To recover fuel entering the vent line and evacuated outwards in case of skidding.
c. Both (a) & (b).
175. Where is the NACA intake located?
a. On the lower surface of the vent surge tank.
b. On the upper surface of the vent surge tank.
c. On the lower surface of the feeder tank.
176. What is the purpose of the NACA intake?
a. To keep constant pressure in the fuel tank.
b. To enable a slight overpressure of approximately 20mb(0.3psi) to be maintain in the
fuel tank.
c. To enable a slight overpressure of approximately 20mb(0.3psi) to be maintain in the
fuel tank and limit overpressure in the tank.
177. Each feeder tank is equipped with:
a. One electric pump and two jet pumps.
b. Two electric pumps and one jet pump.
c. One electric pump and one jet pump.
178. LO LVL light comes on when:
a. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 160KG.
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b. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 260KG.
c. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 150KG.
179. Fuel mass is measured by:
a. Six capacitance probes installed in each feeder tank.
b. Six capacitance probes installed in each tank.
c. Five capacitance probes installed in each tank.
180. In order to close fuel LP valve, what do you do?
a. Pull the corresponding engine fire handle.
b. Place the corresponding condition lever at FUEL SO position.
c. Both (a) & (b).
181. Each tank is equipped with;
a. Two manual magnetic indicators.
b. Four manual magnetic indicators.
c. Three manual magnetic indicators.
182. When the two REFUEL VALVES switches are in NORM position, the
refuel/defuel valves are opened by:
a. Placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in REFUEL position.
b. Placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in DEFUEL position.
c. Both (a) & (b).
183. How do you know the refuel/defuel valves were opened?
a. By two indicator lights identified VALVE/LH/OPEN and VALVE/RH/OPEN located
on the REFUELING panel come on.
b. By placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in REFUEL position.
c. By placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in DEFUEL position.
184. What is the function of crossfeed system?
a. To allow both engine to be fed by one tank.
b. To allow one engine to be fed by both tanks
c. Both (a) & (b).
185. Low pressure in the engine feed system is detected by:
a. The electric pump auto control pressure switch installed on the engine feed jet pump
outlet duct.
b. The fuel feed low pressure switch installed downstream of the LP valve.
c. Both (a) & (b).
ATA 29
186. The aircraft is provided with:
a. Two independent hydraulic systems.
b. Three independent hydraulic systems.
c. Four independent hydraulic systems.
187. During all normal conditions, both hydraulic systems operate:
a. Alternatively providing 3000psi supply pressure.
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b. Simultaneously providing 3000psi supply pressure.
c. Simultaneously providing 1500psi supply pressure.
188. The blue hydraulic system uses:
a. One 115V ACW pump.
b. One 28 DC pump.
c. One 115V ACW pump, one 28V DC pump.
189. The green hydraulic system is pressurized by:
a. Its own electric pump normally.
b. The blue electric pump, through the cross-feed valve (It need to be reconfirmed), in
case of failure of its electric pump.
c. Both (a) & (b).
190. Each pressure module external casing is equipped with:
a. A low pressure switch; an overheat sensor.
b. A thermal switch; a pressure transmitter.
c. A low pressure switch; an overheat sensor; a pressure transmitter.
191. The LO LVL light (on Blue & Green hydraulic system control panel 26VU)
comes on when:
a. Fluid quantity below 8.5 L
b. Fluid quantity below 2.5 L
c. Fluid quantity below 4.0 L
192. The OVHT light (on Blue & Green hydraulic system control panel 26VU) comes
on when:
a. Temperature in case drain line reaches 121C.
b. Temperature in return line reaches 121C.
c. Temperature in supply line reaches 121C.
193. The auxiliary electric pump can be controlled by:
a. Pushbutton switch located on overhead panel.
b. Momentary switch located on pedestal.
c. Both (a) & (b).
194. The auxiliary electric pump is supplied by:
a. 28V DC.
b. 115V AC.
c. 115V ACW
195. AUX PUMP runs in AUTO mode when:
a. AUX PUMP pushbutton is pressed, at least one engine running.
b. Propeller brake disengaged, landing gear lever in DOWN position, pressure on blue
system < 1500 PSI.
c. AUX PUMP pushbutton is pressed, at least one engine running, propeller brake
disengaged, landing gear lever in DOWN position, pressure on blue system < 1500
PSI

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196. How can you release propeller brake with both engines not running and no
ground power unit?
a. Press pushbutton switch of auxiliary electric pump located on overhead panel.
b. Press pushbutton switch of blue electric pump located on overhead panel.
c. Press momentary switch located on pedestal.
197. During hydraulic pump running, the corresponding LO PR light comes on when:
a. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 1500 +/- 100 psi.
b. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 3000 +/- 100 psi.
c. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 1800 +/- 100 psi.
ATA 30
198. How many overheat thermal switch is the pneumatic de-icing system equipped
with?
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
199. Where is the overheat thermal switch located?
a. Upstream of pressure regulator and shutoff valves.
b. Downstream of pressure regulator and shutoff valves.
c. Upstream of isolation valves.
200. When de-icing system are working, if LH engine fire handle is pulled then:
a. All pressure regulator and shutoff valves and Isolation valves close.
b. Only pressure regulator and shutoff valve and isolation valve associated with LH
engine fire handle close.
c. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves close and both isolation valves open.
201. During flight in no icing condition, only AFR AIR BLEED pushbutton switch is
pressed (ON position) then:
a. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves open, both isolation valves close.
b. All pressure regulator and shutoff valves and isolation valves open.
c. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves close, both isolation valves open.
202. During flight, when AFR AIR BLEED pushbutton switch is released (OFF
position) and only ENG #1 DE-ICING pushbutton is pressed (ON position):
a. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves open, both isolation valves close.
b. The pressure regulator and shutoff valve associated with ENG #1 opens, both isolation
valves close.
c. Only pressure regulator and shutoff valve and isolation valve associated with ENG #1
open.
203. When SAT< -20C, de-icing system operates at:
a. Normal 90s cycle.
b. Slow 180s cycle.
c. Slow 120s cycle.
204. The engine ice protection system is composed of:
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a. Air intake leading edge de-icers; cooler upper duct de-icers; upper throat de-icers.
b. Air intake leading edge de-icers; cooler upper duct de-icers; air intake throat de-icers;
upper throat de-icers.
c. Air intake leading edge de-icers; air intake throat de-icers; upper throat de-icers.
205. The isolation valve is:
a. Maintained close by spring and opened by exciting control solenoid.
b. Maintained open by spring and closed by exciting control solenoid.
c. Both (a) & (b) are not correct.
206. The excessive bleed air temperature is detected by overheat thermal switch when
air temperature reaches:
a. 230C +/- 11.
b. 250C +/- 11.
c. 270C +/- 11.
207. The AIRFRAME / AIR BLEED FAULT light illuminates when:
a. Air pressure inside the supply manifold < 14 PSI during more than 10 second
b. Air temperature upstream the pressure regulator S/O valve > 230 oC
c. Both of a & b are correct
208. The wing & horizontal stabilizer pneumatic de-icing system is controlled and
monitored by:
a. MFC 1
b. MFC 2
c. MFC 1 & MFC 2
209. The location of the horns anti icing controller:
a. Rack 80VU
b. Rack 90VU
c. Forward Avionics compartment
210. The engine air intake de-icing is used:
a. 115V ACW current
b. 28V DC current
c. Air bled from the engine
211. The engine air intake de-icing system is controlled and monitored by:
a. MFC 1
b. MFC 2
c. Both of MFC 1 and MFC 2
212. Propeller blade heating elements are supplied with:
a. 115V ACW
b. 115V AC CF
c. 28V DC
213. The static ports heating elements are supplied with:
a. 28V DC
b. 115V ACW
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c. 115V AC-CF
214. The AOA sensor heating elements are supplied with:
a. 28V DC
b. 115V AC CF
c. 115V ACW
215. The probes heating system is controlled & monitored by:
a. MFC 1
b. MFC 1 & MFC 2
Both of a & b are not correct
216. The ice detector operation can be checked through a test p.b. switch:
a. On ground only
b. In flight only
c. Either on ground or in flight.
ATA 31
217. The Capt. Clock is supplied by:
a. 28 VDC EMER Bus
b. 28 VDC Bus1
c. 28 VDC Bus2
218. The Engine Objective Torque on the Torque Indicator is computed by:
a. FDAU
b. DFDR
c. FDEP
219. The location of DFDR:
a. Electronic rack 90VU
b. Electronic rack 80VU
c. Zone 311 (under pressurized tail cone) frame 42
220. Where is located ULB (under water locating beacon)
a. On the front face of DFDR
b. On the front face of FDAU
c. On the front face of FDEP
221. The three axis accelerometer is locating
a. At the Aircraft center of gravity
b. In the electronic rack 90VU
c. In the cockpit behind the center pedestal
222. The Accelerometer is supplied power from
a. DC EMER Bus
b. MFCs
c. FDAU
223. FDEP is located in
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a. Elec. Center pedestal
b. Electronic rack 90 VU
c. Electronic rack 80 VU
224. The master warning light flashing red is associated with
a. Continuous repetitive chime (CRC) and an amber caution light on CAP
b. Continuous repetitive chime (CRC) and a red warning light on CAP
c. Single chime (SC) and an amber caution light on CAP
225. The alerts are classified in
a. 3 levels (from 2 to 0)
b. 4 levels (from 3 to 0)
c. 5 levels (from 4 to 0)
226. The CCAS is controlled by
a. MFC 1(module 1A & 1B)
b. MFC 2(module 2A & 2B)
c. MFC 1(module 1B) & MFC 2 (module 2B)
227. What is the purpose of an Emergency audio cancel switch
a. It enables the crew to cancel the spurious audio alert
b. It causes CAP amber caution lights (level 2) to go off
c. It enable the crew to cancel audio alert in flight only
228. The F/O Clock is power supplied by
a. 28 VDC Emer Bus
b. 28 VDC Bus 2 Sect 1
c. 28 VDC Stby Bus
229. The Recorder System collects, formats, records the various parameters and
stores:
a. The last 25Hr of recording
b. The last 25 flights recording
c. The last 30Hr of recording
230. The FDAU receives an Event marker signal from
a. FDEP
b. DFDR
c. CVR
231. The Accelerometer sends three axis acceleration information to
a. DFDR
b. FDAU
c. FDEP
232. On crew alerting panel (CAP), "MAINT PNL" caution light illuminates if
a. The rotary switch on MFC MAINT PNL is positioned on "MFC" position
b. The MFC power supply is lost
c. The rotary switch on MFC MAINT PNL is not in "NORM. FLT" position.
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233. The 2 MFCs are located in
a. The avionics rack 90 VU (MFC1 in 91VU shelf, MFC2 in 92 VU shelf)
b. The avionics rack 80 VU (MFC1 in 81VU shelf, MFC2 in 82 VU shelf)
c. MFC1 located in rack 90VU, MFC2 located in rack 80VU
234. Pressing TO/INHI push button switch located on CAP when AC on ground:
a. Enables to inhibit alerts which must not be processed during TO
b. Enables to extinguish an amber caution lights which are on the CAP
c. Both of a & b are correct
235. The TO/INHI function is cancelled:
a. Automatically as soon as the main LDG starts retracting
b. Manually by action on the RCL push button switch
c. Both of a & b are correct
236. During TO CONFIG test, we will have an amber ENG caution light on CAP if
a. PWR MGT selector switch is not in the TO position
b. One of the engine torques is not sufficient for TO
c. Both of a & b are correct
237. During the test of MFC crosstalk function, the rotary switch on MFC MAINT
PNL must be placed on
a. MFC position
b. ERS (erase) position
c. Any position
238. During TO config test, the amber FLT caution light will be illuminated on CAP if
a. Pitch trim out side green range
b. Flaps are not in TO configuration
c. Both of a & b are correct.
ATA 32
239. Forward nose landing gear doors open:
a. During nose landing gear motion.
b. When Nose landing gear is extended and down locked.
c. When Nose landing gear is retracted and up locked.
240. Landing gear selector valve is located:
a. At the rear area of the right main landing gear.
b. At wheel well area of the nose landing gear.
c. At the rear area of the left main landing gear.
241. Landing gear control system uses:
a. Hydraulic pressure from Blue system.
b. Hydraulic pressure from Green system.
c. Hydraulic pressure from accumulators.
242. Landing gear selector valve has:
a. 01 solenoid UP.
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b. 01 solenoid DWN.
c. 01 solenoid UP, 01 solenoid DWN.
243. Main landing gear free fall assister is:
a. A spring.
b. A pneumatic spring.
c. A hydraulic spring.
244. Antiskid control boxes located at:
a. Left electronic rack 80VU.
b. Right electronic rack 91VU.
c. Rear area of left main landing gear.
245. Total of Brake Speed transducers are:
a. 02.
b. 03.
c. 04.
246. Total of Brake Temperature transducers are:
a. 02.
b. 03.
c. 04.
247. When the blue system is switched off, the nose wheels can be towed of:
a. 91 per side.
b. 60 per side.
c. 90 per side.
248. Landing gears light indication system has:
a. 01 system.
b. 02 systems : primary and secondary light indicating system.
c. 03 systems.
249. Do the Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module control braking action during
emergency brake?
a. Emergency brake is not controlled by Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module.
b. Emergency brake is controlled by Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module.
c. Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module control braking sequence all the time.
250. At touchdown, the braking action is inhibited for:
a. 10 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt.
b. 15 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt.
c. 5 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt.
ATA-33
251. Which statement is corrected for the color of navigation lights?
a. Left: Green, right: red, tail: white.
b. Left: red, right: green, tail: white.
c. The same color in above three positions.
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252. The taxi and take off lights come on when:

a. The taxi and take off light switch turns on.
b. The lights automatically come on when the landing gear lever is in down position.
c. The lights come on when landing gear lever is in down position and the light switch is
turned on.
253. When the emergency light switch is in arm position and no power supply for
aircraft:
a. The out-side emergency lights come on.
b. The internal emergency light come on.
c. Both of above are correct.
254. When the emergency light switch in Attendance Panel is in on position:
a. The emergency lights only come on if the ON-ARM-DISARM switch in Cockpit is in
ON position.
b. The emergency lights only come on if the ON-ARM-DISARM switch in Cockpit is in
ARM position.
c. The emergency lights are on.
255. The light in the Refuel/ Defuel panel is come on:
a. When the light switch in the refuel/ defuel panel turns to on position.
b. When the light switch in the power receptacle turns in on position.
c. When refuel/defuel panel door opens.
256. If the aircraft power is only supplied by battery:
a. Only Captain side dome light illuminates.
b. Only First Officer dome light illuminates.
c. Both of above.
257. Which statement is NOT correct:
a. Action on entrance door push button enables AFT and FWD entrances and EXT signs
lighting illuminates during 2 minutes even if main battery switch is in OFF position.
b. There are two entrance door pushbuttons equipped in ATR aircraft.
c. The entrance door and exit sign lighting are supplied by 28VDC Bus 1.
258. The Landing lights are supplied by:
a. 28VDC.
b. 115V ACW.
c. 115 V 400Hz.
ATA-34
259. Heading comparison function of SGU is for:
a. Attitude, Heading.
b. Attitude, Heading, ILS.
c. Attitude, Heading, ILS, RA.
260. During flight, if A/C systems are only supplied by Battery:
a. Captain EFIS are operative.
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b. EADIs are operative.
c. Captain EADI is only operative.
261. Overheat condition of EADI and EHSI can be determined by:
a. BITE loaded magnetic indicator.
b. Turn rotary switch of MFC to NAV position.
c. All of above.
262. When SGU #1 failed, transfer to SGU#2 occurs :
a. automatically.
b. by pressing captain SGU switch.
c. by pressing F/O SGU switch.
263. Composite Mode of EFIS is operative:
a. One display unit failed (EADI or EHSI), the other display unit is automatically
transferred to composite mode.
b. One display unit failed; turn off the failed display unit. The other display unit is
transferred to composite mode.
c. All of above.
264. The flight environment data included:
a. Three pitot probes, three static probes.
b. Three pitot probes, six static probes.
c. One pitot probe, two static probes.
265. When dash appeared in TAS/TAT-SAT indicator:
a. The system failed.
b. Invalid data received from ADC.
c. All of above.
266. If ADC#1 failed:
a. AHRS #1 receives true air speed from ADC#2 via ASCB bus.
b. Press ATT/HDG switch in captain switching panel
c. The AHRS returnes to basic mode.
267. Heading signal from AHRS#1 is supplied for:
a. Captain RMI.
b. F/O RMI.
c. All of above.
268. The distance of DME station is display at:
a. RMI.
b. EADI.
c. EHSI.
269. The DME system consist of:
a. Two antennas.
b. Three antennas.
c. Four antennas.
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270. The frequency of ATC is:
a. 1030 MHz and 1090MHz.
b. 1030MHz for interrogation, and 1090 MHz for reply.)
c. 1030 MHz for reply and 1090 MHz for interrogation.
271. When transponder is replied the interrogation signal of ground station:
a. The ACT light in control panel comes on.
b. The ID light in control panel comes on.
c. The TX light in control panel comes on.
272. When doing the test mode of ATC, the message DIAG and code 02 appeared in
control panel:
a. ATC system OK.
b. ATC system showed failure.
c. All of above.
273. The bearing of ADF system is:
a. Magnetic Bearing.
b. Relative Bearing.
c. None of above.
274. The indication of ADF showed at:
a. RMI.
b. EHSI.
c. All of above.
275. The magnetic bearing of VOR send to RMI:
a. Via Symbol Generator Unit.
b. RMI received from VOR receiver directly.
c. Via EHSI.
276. The returned target of weather radar is indicated at:
a. EADI.
b. EHSI in full mode.
c. EHSI in arc mode.
277. During selection of test mode in weather radar:
a. The transceiver transmits, range is 100 nm and test display showed.
b. The transceiver is not transmitted, range is 100nm and test display showed.
c. All of above.
278. Reset of GPWS Mode 2a occurs:
a. The A/C altitude above terrain 300feet
b. The A/C altitude below terrain 300 feet.
c. The A/C altitude above terrain 500 feet.
279. Mode 6 of GPWS occurs:
a. RA between 1000 ft and 50 ft, Landing Gear down, A/C altitude equal DH.
b. RA between 1000 ft and 50 ft, A/C altitude equal DH.
c. RA below 1000 ft, A/C altitude equal DH.
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280. Which statement is NOT correct:

a. On ground or above 1000 ft with gear up, pressing the GPWS-GS switch will perform
the system test.
b. The most important in put signal for GPWS computer is RA.
c. There are three GPWS-GS switches.
281. The location of RA antennas:
a. In the top of fuselage.
b. In the bottom of fuselage..
c. In the tail section.
282. The indication of ILS system is shown on:
a. EADI.
b. EHSI.
c. All of above.
283. When test of ILS receiver, in the display of control panel showed four dashes
with code 00:
a. Fault detected during test.
b. No fault detected during test.
c. Invalid signal detected.
284. Location of Glide Slope antenna:
a. In the vertical stabilizer.
b. In the bottom of fuselage.
c. Inside radome.
285. GPWS receives altitude and airspeed input signal from:
a. ADC #1.
b. ADC #2.
c. Both ADCs.
286. The Glide Slope deviation signal sent to GPWS is from:
a. ILS receiver # 1.
b. ILS receiver # 2.
c. Both ILS receivers.
287. The function of Marker Beacon is integrated in:
a. VOR/ILS Receiver # 1.
b. VOR/ILS Receiver # 2.
c. Both VOR/ILS Receivers.
288. The frequency range of ADF system is:
a. 150KHz 1500 KHz.
b. 190 KHz 1750 KHz.
c. 300 KHz 3000 KHz.
ATA 35
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289. In order to test Crew Oxygen mask by blinker indication:
a. Press PAX SUPPLY pushbutton switch only.
b. Press MAIN SUPPLY pushbutton switch only.
c. Press both PAX SUPPLY and MAIN SUPPLY pushbutton switches.
290. LP (low pressure) pressure switch is located in:
a. Supply manifold.
b. Crew feed stop valve.
c. HP (high pressure) regulator transmitter.
291. The pressure of oxygen cylinder in cockpit is determined by:
a. Gauge attached on oxygen cylinder and indicator on overhead panel
b. Indicator on overhead panel.
c. Indicator on overhead panel and overboard discharge indicator.
292. The crew fixed oxygen system is used by the flight crew member in the following
conditions:
a. Brutal depressurization; smoke.
b. Brutal depressurization.
c. Brutal depressurization; smoke or noxious gas emission.
293. What is connected to a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the
aircraft?
a. HP overpressure safety system.
b. LP overpressure safety system.
c. Both (a) & (b).
294. When a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the aircraft has yellow
color, means:
a. Normal.
b. Pressure exceeding occurred.
c. Low pressure occurred.
295. How do you check the oxygen cylinder pressure when BAT switch is in OFF
position?
a. Look at a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the aircraft.
b. Look at a direct reading pressure gauge installed on cylinder.
c. Look at an indicator located on overhead panel.
296. The oxygen distributor manifold is connected with:
a. The supply system; the crew distribution system; one pneumatic test connector.
b. The supply system; the passenger distribution system; one LP pressure switch.
c. The supply system; the crew and passenger distribution system; one LP pressure
switch; one pneumatic test connector.
297. What is the purpose of test port assy installed on distributor manifold?
a. A strength and leakage test of the oxygen systems; cleaning of the oxygen systems.
b. A functional test of the oxygen systems and equipment.
c. Both (a) & (b).
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298. How do you supply oxygen to passenger distribution system?
a. Press PAX SUPPLY pushbutton switch only.
b. Press MAIN SUPPLY pushbutton switch only.
c. Press both PAX SUPPLY and MAIN SUPPLY pushbutton switches.
ATA 36
299. FAULT light on air bleed valve pushbutton switch comes on when:
a. Engine is not running and relevant air bleed valve push button is in ON position.
b. Air pressure at upstream of air bleed valve is greater than 80 PSI.
c. Both (a) and (b).
300. On control panel of pneumatic system, X VALVE OPEN light comes on when:
a. Crossfeed valve failed.
b. Crossfeed valve opens.
c. Both air bleed valve open.
301. The bleed air overtemperature switches give a signal to OVHT legend on the
caution light when air temperature reaches:
a. 254C.
b. 264C.
c. 274C.
ATA 52
302. The FWD cargo door is:
a.Hinged on upper side and opens outwards and upward with a nominal travel of 77 .
b.
Hinged on lower side and opens outwards and downward with a nominal travel of
87 .
c.Hinged on upper side and opens outwards and up ward with a nominal travel of 87 .
303. During opening FWD cargo door:
a. First, pull down Latchlock handle and then pull down Latch handle .Vent door is
opened by Latch handle.
b. First, pull down Latchlock handle and then pull down Latch handle .Vent door is open
by Latchlock handle.
c. First, pull down Latchlock handle and then pull down Latch handle .Vent door is
automatically opened by electrical power.
304. What is the purpose of the view ports located on lower side of FWD cargo door
outer skin?
a. To inspect from inside all three latchlock pins.
b. To inspect from outside all three hooks.
c. To inspect from outside all three latchlock pins.
305. During operating FWD cargo door, the locking action is performed by:
a. Two locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in closed position, thus
prevent the hooks unlatching rotation.
b. Three locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in closed position, thus
prevent the hooks unlatching rotation.
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c. Four locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in closed position , thus
prevent the hooks unlatching rotation
306. The Pax door is:
a. Hinged on upper side and opens outwards and upwards.
b. Hinged on lower side and opens outwards and downwards.
c. Hinged on lower side and opens inwards and downwards.
307. The Pax door can be:
a. Closed or opened by electrical power or manual from outside only.
b. Closed or opened by manual from aircraft inside or outside.
c. Only closed by manual from aircraft inside and only opened by manual from aircraft
outside.
308. How do you know the Pax door is completely closed when you close this door
from outside?
a. Look through the view port located on lower forward area of door skin to make sure
that the word LOCKED disappears.
b. Look through the view port located on lower forward area of door skin to make sure
that the word LOCKED appears.
c. Look through the view port located on stair step of the door to make sure that the word
LOCKED appears.
309. The service door can be:
a. Closed or opened by manual from inside or outside.
b. Opened from inside or out side and only closed from inside by manual.
c. Closed from inside or out side and only opened from inside by manual.
310. Emergency Hatch can be:
a. Opened from aircraft inside or outside and closed from aircraft inside only.
b. Opened and closed from aircraft inside or outside.
c. Opened and closed from aircraft inside.
311. The passenger compartment emergency exit doors can be:
a. Closed or opened by manual from inside or outside.
b. Opened from inside or out side and only closed from inside by manual.
c. Closed from inside or out side and only opened from inside by manual.
ATA 60
312. What is the position of the Np indicator pointer in case of power supply loss:
a. At 0
b. The pointer is stuck at 21%
c. Below 0 to a low stop
313. Np indicator is supplied by the:
a. 28V DC ESS BUS
b. 28V DC BUS 1 & BUS 2
c. 26V DC STBY BUS
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314. The hydraulic supply for prop. brake is provided by the:
a. Blue hydraulic system
b. Green hydraulic system
c. Both of a & b are not correct
315. Propeller Brake operation is controlled and monitored by:
a. MFC
b. PCU
c. AFU
316. The location of the ATPCS selector switch:
a. Electrical center pedestal ENG TEST panel
b. RH console (702VU)
c. Center instrument panel (9VU)
ATA 61
317. Propeller synchrophaser is only operating when:
a. SYNCH switch is pressed in when take off.
b. SYNCH switch is pressed in when landing.
c. SYNCH switch is pressed in when cruizing.
318. When synchrophasing is operating:
a. Torque motor on PCU number 2 acts on blade angle of propeller number 1.
b. Torque motor on PCU number 1 acts on blade angle of propeller number 2.
c. Torque motor on PCU number 2 acts on blade angle of propeller number 2.
319. The propeller synchrophaser is located in:
a. Electronic rack shelf 94VU.
b. Electronic rack shelf 90VU.
c. Electronic rack shelf 80VU.
320. "LO PITCH" light is on thanks to:
a. Microswitch in the pitch change mechanism.
b. Microswitch in the Overspeed governor.
c. Microswitch in the PCU.
321. When the propeller can be feathered automatically?
a. During take off.
b. During climb.
c. During cruize.
322. Automatic feathering system is operational if it is armed:
a. During climb.
b. Prior to take off.
c. During cruize.
323. The solenoid in the overspeed governor is for:
a. Controlling the governor.
b. Cut the oil to governor.
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c. The ground test.
324. If "LO PITCH" light is on during flight:
a. Nothing happens.
b. Feather solenoid in PCU is energized.
c. Feathering mechanical valve in PCU opens.
325. The green READY light must be on before engage or release the propeller brake.
Conditions for READY light to be on are:
a. Aircraft on ground, Gust lock ON, propeller in feather position, Blue pressure is
3000psi.
b. Aircraft on ground, Gust lock ON, CL at FTR position, Blue pressure is 3000psi.
c. Aircraft on ground, Gust lock OFF, propeller in feather position, Blue pressure is
3000psi.
326. Propeller brake is considered engaged if:
a. Only "PROP PRK" light on Memo panel is on.
b. Only "PROP PRK" light on Propeller brake panel is on.
c. Both a and b are correct.
ATA 71
327. Engine PW124B has maximum power of:
a. 2200 SHP.
b. 2300 SHP.
c. 2400 SHP.
328. At engine shut down the fuel from nozzle manifolds is drained towards:
a. Drain mast.
b. Drain manifold.
c. Ecological tank.
329. Oil leak through ACW carbon seal is drained towards:
a. Drain mast.
b. Drain manifold.
c. Ecological tank.
ATA 72
330. PW124B installed on ATR-72 is engine of:
a. Three shafts with free turbine driving the propeller through RGB.
b. Two shafts with HP shaft driving the propeller through RGB.
c. Three shafts with HP shaft driving the propeller.
331. PW124B is a engine having:
a. One centrigual compressor.
b. Two centrigual compressor.
c. Three centrigual compressor.
332. On AGB are:
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a. Starter-DC generator, ACW generator, oil pump.
b. Starter-DC generator , PCU, oil pump.
c. Starter-DC generator , HP fuel pump, oil pump.
333. Which turbine is not turning during Hotel mode?
a. Free turbine.
b. LP turbine.
c. HP turbine.
334. On RGB are:
a. ACW generator, PCU, Overspeed governor, feather pump.
b. Starter-DC generator , PCU, oil pump.
c. Starter-DC generator , HP fuel pump, oil pump.
ATA 73
335. Air for fuel regulation is taken from which engine station?
a. 2.5.
b. 3.
c. 6.
336. When FUEL CLOG light is on:
a. HP fuel pump filter is clogged.
b. Fuel heater filter is clogged.
c. Both HP fuel pump filter and Fuel heater filter are clogged.
337. During flight fuel regulation is controlled by:
a. PL controlling HMU.
b. CL controlling HMU.
c. EEC depending on flight conditions and PL positions.
338. During cruizing EEC is failed:
a. FAULT light in EEC pushbutton is on.
b. FAULT light in EEC pushbutton is off.
c. FAULT light in EEC pushbutton is flashing.
339. EEC controls HMU through:
a. Torque motor.
b. Stepper motor.
c. Control motor.
340. Transfer from EEC mode to manual mode happens when:
a. Automatically when EEC fails.
b. EEC swich is released.
c. Retard PL to green sector.
341. If one engine fails during take off:
a. This engine will be feathered while the remaining engine is operating normally.
b. This engine will be shut down by CL and the remaining engine will increase the power
to compensate the failed engien.
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c. This engine will be feathered while the remaining engine will increase the power to
100%.
ATA 74
342. Ignition exciters are located:
a. On the right hand side of engine.
b. On the left hand side of engine.
c. In the electronic rack in cockpit.
343. Ignition exciters control:
a. Spark plug A or spark plug B depending on the selector switch.
b. Two spark plugs separately through two high tension leads.
c. Two spark plugs alternately through one high tension leads.
344. In order to perform aural check on ignitor plug A:
a. Open circuit breaker spark plug A.
b. Open circuit breaker spark plug B.
c. Open circuit breaker spark plug A and B.
ATA 75
345. AC generator ventilation is provided by:
a. Zone 1.
b. Zone 2.
c. Zone 3.
346. DC startor/generator ventilation is provided by:
a. A scoop located in lateral right opening cowl.
b. A scoop located in lateral left opening cowl.
c. A scoop located in the top of opening cowl.
347. Handling Bleed Valve is controlled by:
a. EEC.
b. AFU.
c. FDAU.
ATA 76
348. White mark (notch) on the center pedestal indicates power lever position:
a. GI.
b. FI.
c. TO.
349. The microswiches located in central pedestal microswich unit are for:
a. Transmitting the power lever angular position only.
b. Transmitting the condition lever angular position only.
c. Transmitting the power lever and condition lever angular position.
350. In case of IDLE GATE system failure:
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a. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator on CAP is on.
b. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator on center pedestal is on.
c. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator Memo panel is on.
ATA 79
351. The oil system supplies oil to:
a. Turbomachinery.
b. Propeller reduction gear box and control system.
c. Both a and b.
352. How to know that oil filter is clogged?
a. By indication in the cockpit.
b. By oil low pressure warning.
c. By pop-out indication on filter body.
353. How many oil filters are threre on engine?
One pressure filter only.
Two: one pressure and one scavenge.
Three: One pressure and two scavenge.
354. Engine oil low pressure warning system is operating when:
a. After engine started up 30s but oil pressure is less than 40psi.
b. Engine is stopped, advance the CL to FTR position and let there for more than 30s.
c. Both a and b are correct.
355. When is proper time for engine oil level check?
a. After engine shut down, propeller stpped.
b. After engine shut down, wait for 15 to 20 min.
c. 1 hour before depart.
ATA 80
356. Starting of engine is provided by:
a. DC starter/generator.
b. AC starter/generator.
c. Air starter.
357. During starting when NH reaches 45%:
a. ON light in start pushbuton is on.
b. ON light in start pushbuton is off.
c. ON light in start pushbuton is flashing.
358. What is cross-start?
a. Second engine started with power produced by the running engine generator.
b. Second engine started with main and emergency batteries.
c. Second engine started with battery and power produced by the running engine
generator.
359. Cross-start can be used:
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a. On ground only.
b. On flight only.
c. On ground and on flight.
360. During flight:
a. Ignitor A is operating.
b. Ignitor B is operating.
c. No ignitor is operating.
361. What does mean engine crank?
a. Stater generator drive HP spool, ignition off.
b. Stater generator drive propeller, ignition off.
c. Stater generator drive HP spool, ignition is on only for 15s.
362. What is dry motoring?
a. Cranking with CL in FTR position.
b. Cranking with CL in FUEL SO position.
c. Cranking with PL in FI position.
363. What is wet motoring?
a. Cranking with CL in FTR position.
b. Cranking with CL in FUEL SO position.
c. Cranking with PL in FI position.
364. Dry motoring is used to:
a. Evaporate the remaining fuel in the combustion chamber.
b. Test HP fuel line.
c. Test LP fuel line.
365. Wet motoring is used to:
a. Evaporate the remaining fuel in the combustion chamber.
b. Test HP fuel line.
c. Test LP fuel line.

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