Factors that hinder long anterior of the occiput include the followings except:

A. Epidural analgesia.
B. High assimilation pelvic.
C. Too rigid pelvic door.
D. Well flexed head.
A patient who has been treated for trophoblastic disease is best followed by the use of:
a. MRI.
B. Repeated gonadotrophin titres.
C. Dilatation and curettage.
D. Ultrasound.
Which of the following represents the most common cause for breech presentation at the onset
of labour?
A. Prematurely.
B. Placenta praevia.
C. Multiple pregnancies.
D. Breech presentation at term in a previous pregnancy.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding human chorine gonadotropin (HCG)?
a. Prolongs corpus luteum activity.
b. Its secretion reaches a maximum at 8-10 weeks of gestating .
c. Produced by cytotrophoblast .
d. Its level is abnormally high in trisomy21.
Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter
convergent side walls, prominent ischial spines and narrow pubic arch?
a. Android.
b. Gynecoid .
c. Platypelloid.
d. Mixed.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding face presentation?
a. Diagnosis is easy by abdominal palpation.
b. The engaging diameter is submento-bregmatic.
c. The mento vertical diameter will distend the Vulva during delivery:
d. Contracted pelvis is the main cause especially in multiparas.
Which of the following signs or symptoms are typically seen in the presentation of a partial
hydatidiform molar pregnancy?
a. Theca lutein cysts.
b. Higher than expected human chorionic gonadotropin (B-HCG) levels
c. Uterine enlargement in excess of gestational age.
d. None of the above.
Possible effect of occipito posterior position includes the followings except:
a. Short latent phase.
b. Prolonged active phase.
c. Prolonged second stage.

d. Higher incidence of instrumental deliveries.

Internal podalic version is usually reserved for which clinical settings?
a. Frank breech deliveries.
b. Complete breech deliveries.
c. Delivery of an aftercoming twin.
d. Preterm breech deliveries regardless of presentation.
The principle supports of the uterus include:
a) The iliosacral ligaments.
b) The pyriformis muscle.
c) The transverse cervical ligaments.
d) The infundibulo pelvic ligaments.
e) The anterior longitudinal ligament.
Which the following statements are not true?
a) The ovary is attached to the broad ligaments.
b) The ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.
c) The mucosa of the fallopian tube is lined by ciliated cells.
d) The pouch of Douglas lies between the bladder & the uterus.
e) The polar body of the oocyte contains 23 chromosomes.
One of the following is correct regarding the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle :
a) The granulosa cells produce androstenedione & testosterone.
b) The endometrial glands become straight.
c) Oestradiol inhibits the production of LH at the end of the follicular phase.
d) The theca cells produce oestradiol & secrete follicular fluid.
e) The nucleus of the oocyte contains 23 chromosomes.
Second degree uterine prolapse:
a) Is diagnosed when two fingers could be approximated at the base of the prolapsed mass at
the introitus.
b) Is diagnosed when the cervix lies below the level of ischial spines.
c) Always associated with supravaginal elongation of the cervix.
d) Occurs in multiparous & nulliparous females.
e) Corresponds to 2nd degree retroversion.
Endometriosis is characterised by one of the following:
a) 65 percent of patients have ovarian involvement.
b) Fixed retroversion of the uterus is a variant of normal.
c) Disease severity is an indicator of the amount of pain experienced by the patient.
d) The incidence is highest in those investigated for chronic abdominal pain.
e) Commonly presents with superficial dyspareunia.
An enterocele is best characterized by one of the following statements?
a) It is not a true hernia.
b) It is a herniation of the bladder floor into the vagina.
c) It is the prolapse of the uterus & vaginal wall outside the body.
d) It is the protrusion of the pelvic peritoneal sac & vaginal wall into vagina.
e) It is a herniation of the rectal & vaginal wall into the vagina.

Non-neoplastic cysts of the ovary include the following except on:

a) Follicular cyts.
b) Cystoma simplex.
c) Endometriotic cysts.
d) Corpus luteum cysts.
e) Theca lutein cysts.
Absolute contraindications of combined oral contraceptive pills include the following except
one:
a) Thrombo-embolic disease.
b) History of thrombo-embolic disease.
c) Coronary heart disease.
d) Age above 35 years.
e) Pregnancy.
A 40 year old woman is hospitalized for hemorrhagic shock her kidney function is normal
what is the most sensitive and reliable clinical criterion for determining severity of volume
loss?
a. Tachycardia.
b. Tachypnea.
c. Oliguria.
d. Hypotension.
Which of the following is first line treatment in the management of hyperemesis gravidarum?
a. Glucocorticoids.
b. Enteral nutrition.
c. Medical termination of pregnancy.
d. IV hydration & antiemetic.
After birth the following changes occur in the fetus except:
a. Permanent closure of foramen oval.
b. The ductus venous closes.
c. Haemoglobin F is replaced by haemoglobin A.
d. The umbilical vein and artery close.
The total iron needed for expansion of red cell mass during pregnancy is about:
a. 300mg.
b. 100mg.
c. 30mg .
d. None of the above.
Acute putrid endometritis is characterized by the following except:
a. Mild type of puerperal sepsis.
b. Caused by hemolytic streptococci.
c. Uterine cavity is filled with necrotic tissue.
d. Presence of leucocytic barrier under the endometrium.

A patient sustained laceration of the perineum during delivery it involved the muscles of perineal body
and the anal sphincter .such laceration would be classified as:
a. First degree.
b. Second degree.
c. Third degree.
d. Forth degree.
Methods for ante partum foetal assessment include the followings except:
a. APGAR score.
b. Ante partum fetal heart testing.
c. Modified biophysical profile .
d. Doppler velocimetry.
Partogram:
a. Is used by the patient to record the uterine contractions.
b. Is done before diagnosis of labor.
c. Measures progression of labor.
d. Is of utmost importance in the latent phase.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding caput succedaneum?
a. Edges are well defined.
b. Overlap sutures and cover more than one bone.
c. Disappears within 1-2 days after delivery.
d. Skin may be ecchymotic.
The majority of paediatric cases of vulvo-vaginitis are due to:
a) Candidiasis.
b) Chlamydia.
c) Allergic reactions.
d) Gonorrhea.
e) Nonspecific.
Endometrial carcinoma is characterized by:
a) Is usually a clear cell carcinoma.
b) Usually occurs before menopause.
c) Is less common in obese postmenopausal females.
d) Is accurately diagnosed by biopsy.
e) Is related to use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
The single most important prognostic factor in endometrial carcinoma is:
a) Grade of the disease.
b) Age of the patient.
c) Size of the uterus.
d) Abnormal pap smear.
e) Abnormal hysterography.

Risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia include the following except:

a) Use of sequential oral contraceptive pills.
b) High parity.
c) Anovulation.
d) Estrogen secreting ovarian tumours.
e) Obesity.
A patient complains of post coital bleeding & no growth is seen on the cervix per speculum
examination.The best next step should be:
a) Colposcopy.
b) Conization.
c) Pap smear.
d) Culdoscopy.
e) Biopsy.
In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes.Which hormone
should be preferred?
a) Medroxy progesterone acetate.
b) Desogestrel.
c) Danazol.
d) Cyproterone acetate.
e) None of the above.
In an amenorrheic patient who has had pituitary ablation for craniopharyngioma, which of
the following regimens is most likely to result in an ovulatory cycle?
a) Clomiphene citrate.
b) Pulsatile infusion of GnRH.
c) Continuous infusion of GnRH.
d) Human menopausal or recombinant gonadotropin.
e) Human menopausal or recombinant gonadotropin followed by hCG.
An intrauterine pregnancy of approximately 10 weeks gestation is confirmed in a 30-year-old
G3P2 woman with an IUD in place. On examination, the string of IUD is noted to be protruding
from the cervical os .Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
a) Leave the IUD in place without any other treatment.
b) Leave the IUD & continue prophylactic antibiotics throughout pregnancy.
c) Remove IUD immediately.
d) Terminate the pregnancy because of the high risk of infection.
e) Perform a laparoscopy to rule out a heterotopic ectopic pregnancy.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding pathological retraction ring?
a. Lies always between the upper and lower uterine segment.
b. Felt and seen abdominally.
c. Rises up with time.
d. Characteristically it relaxes by using antispasmodics.

Which of the followings is not correct regarding true labour pains?

a. Rhythmic.
b. Relived by sedatives.
c. Gradually increase in frequency by time.
d. Associated with bulging bag of forewaters.
When the uterus has its cervix presenting at the level of ischial spine it is spoken of as:
a. First degree lumen prolepses.
b. Second degree uterine prolepses.
c. Third degree uterine prolapse.
d. none of above .
A primary goal of therapy for central precocious puberty includes prevention of which of the following
consequences?
a. Short stature.
b. Excessive breast size.
c. Learning disabilities.
d. None of above.
Regarding Turner's syndrome (45.x):
a. There is only one nuclear chromatin (barr body)
b. There is an increased risk of spontaneous abortion in affected embryos.
c. There is increased incidence with increased maternal age.
d. No germ cells are present during intrauterine development.
What is the first line of treatment for a pituitary macroadenoma?
a. Radiation therapy.
b. Dopamine-agonist therapy
c. Trans-spheroidal resection.
d. Somatostatin agonist therapy.
Meiosis I of the oocytes is completed at which of the following times?
a. Birth.
b. Puberty.
c. Ovulation.
d. Fertilization.
Polycystic ovarian disease is characterized by the followings except:
a. Positive progesterone withdrawal bleeding.
b. Anovulation.
d. Elevated sex hormone binding globulin.
c. Sub fertiltiy.
Endometrial polyps are:
a. Usually due to retained placental tissue.
b. Always seen to reflect the cyclic changes of endometrium.
c. Often associated with malignancy to postmenopausal patient.
d. Seen mostly in parents using birth control pills.

Which of the followings is not correct regarding calcification that occurs in myomas?
a. Due to deposition of calcium salts along the blood vessel .
b. Occurs in recently developed myomas.
c. May be diffuse giving a womb stone appearance on plan x-ray.
d. Is common after menopause .
Your patient is 43 years old & is concerned that she may be too close to menopause to get
pregnant. You recommend that her gonadotropin levels be tested. Which is the best day of
menstrual cycle to check?
a) Day 3.
b) Day 8.
c) Day 14.
d) Day 21.
e) Day 26.
During the evaluation of a 30-year-old female complaining of infertility, a
hysteronsalpingogram showed evidence of Asherman syndrome. Which one of the following
symptoms would expect this patient to have?
a) Oligmenorrhea.
b) Menorrhagia.
c) Metrorrhagia.
d) Hypomenorrhea.
e) Dysmenorrhea.
In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months secondary amenorrhea, serm
prolactin & -hCG assays were requested. The -hCG test is positive, & the prolactin level is
100 ng/ml. This patient requires which of the following?
a) Routine obstetric care.
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan of her sella turcica.
c) Repeat measurements of serum prolactin.
d) Bromocriptine to suppress prolactin.
e) Evaluation for possible hypoyhyroidism.
A 50-year-oldwoman is diagnosed with cervical cancer, which lymph node group would be
the 1st involved in metastatic spread of the disease beyond the cervix & uterus?
a) Common iliac nodes.
b) Parametrial nodes.
c) External iliac nodes.
d) Para cervical or uretral nodes.
e) Para aortic nodes.
The following potential treatments culd be used in the initial care of secondary postpartum
haemorrhage except:
a) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergin).
b) Oxytocin injection (Pitocin).
c) Ergonovine maleate (Ergotrate).
d) Prostaglandins.
e) Dilatation & curettage.

Which of the followings manifestations is most likely encountered during the physical examination of a
patient with endometriosis?
a. Tenderness to lower abdominal palpation.
b. Endocervical polyp during speculum examination.
c. Powder burn lesions on the cervix during speculum examination.
d. Uterosacral ligament nodularity during bimanual examination.
Which of the followings factors decreases the risk for development of leiomyoma?
a. Early menarche.
B. Cigarette smoking.
c. Elevated body mass index (BMI).
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).
A midline cystic mass best represents which of the following vulvar disorders?
a. Gartner duct cyst.
b. Bartholin,s gland cyst .
c. Urethral diverticulum's.
d. Nabothian cyst (follicles)
Which of the followings is generally the treatment of choice for recurrent bartholin gland duct cysts?
a. Systemic antibiotics.
b. 5-percent lidocaine ointment .
c. Bartholin gland duct marsuplalization .
d. Warm compresses and frequent site Baths
The last step in estrogen syntheses requires which of the following enzymes?
a. aromatyase .
b. 5- reduciase .
c. 21-hydroxylase.
d. 11 hydroxylase.
The hymen is the partition that remains between which structures?
a. Cloacae membrane and genital tubercle.
b. Sinovaginal bulb and urogenital sinus.
c. unfused cephalad portions of the two mullein ducts .
d. None of the above.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome?
a. Can be diagnosed clinically & by U/S.
b. The ovaries will be very small in size and having unilateral cyst.
c. The patient may need admission to intensive care unit.
d. Patients with PCO have increased risk.
Commonest primary cystic ovarian carcinoma is:
a. Malignant change in dermoid cyst.
b. Papillary serous cyst Aden carcinoma.
c. Pseudo mutinous cyst adenocarcinoma.
d. Endometrial carcinoma.

Which of the followings is not correct regarding pelvic organ prolapse?

a. Prolapse of the pouch of Douglas is called an enterocele.
b. Vaginal hysterectomy and repair represent the treatment of choice for procedentia in a
patient fit for theatre.
c. Ring pessaries rest within the posterior fornix and over the symphsis pubis.
d. An enterocele contains large bowel.
A 25-year old patient presents for contraceptive counseling she requests that an IUD be inserted
.which of the following is a recognized contraindication to the insertion of an IUD?
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
b. Previous pregnancy with an IUD.
c. Cervical conization .
d. Chorio-amnionitis in previous pregnancy.
The characteristic symptoms of early ovarian carcinoma include which of the followings?
a. Pain.
b. Nausea.
c. Uterine bleeding.
d. None of the above.
Cystometric parameters of normal bladder filling include the followings except:
a. Residual urine after voiding < 50 ml.
b. Detrusor pressure fling <15 cm H.O
c. Absence of systolic detector contractions.
d. First desir to void at 400 ml.
Asynclitism is best defined as:
a) Inability of the fetal head to pass through the pelvic inlet.
b) Failure of the descent because of inadequate uterine contractions.
c) Inability of internal rotation of the fetal head has reached the ischial spines.
d) Failure of the sagittal suture to lie exactly midway between the symphysis & sacral
promontory.
e) Flexion of the descending fetal head from pelvic floor resistance.
Factors that hinder long anterior rotation of the occiput (in occipito-posterior) include the
following except:
a) Weak uterine contractions.
b) Strong uterine contractions.
c) Shape of the pelvis (contracted pelvis).
d) Rigid pelvic floor.
e) Rupture of membrane & drained amniotic fluid.
Earliest sign of pre-eclampsia is:
a) Hypertension.
b) Albuminuria.
c) Pedal edema.
d) Excessive weight gain.
e) Scanty liquor.

In pre-eclampsia, body fluid changes are characterized by:

a) An increase in the intravascular fluid compartment.
b) An increase in the extracellular compartment.
c) A balanced decrease in both intravascular & extracellular fluid compartments.
d) A decrease in the intravascular fluid compartment.
e) A decrease in the extracellular fluid compartment.
The most important measurement in clinical pelvimetry of the inlet is:
a) Diagonal conjugate.
b) External conjugate.
c) Interspinous diameter.
d) Intertuberous diameter.
e) Subpubic arch.
Which of the following exibitis the strongest association with pre-eclampsia ?
a) Race.
b) Socioeconomic status.
c) Parity.
d) Body habitus.
e) Age.
Regarding engagement of the presenting part , all the following is true except:
a) It is the passage of widest transverse diameter of the presenting part through the plane of
inlet.
b) Can be diagnosed by 2nd pelvic grip.
c) Is commonly delayed with malpresentations.
d) Commonly occurs early with frank breech.
e) Can be assessed by vaginal examination when the occiput is felt at or below the level of
pelvic inlet.
Indications of Cesarean section with placenta previa include all of the following except:
a) Placenta previa centralis.
b) Placenta previa marginalis anterior.
c) Failure of amniotomy to control bleeding &/or induce contractions.
d) Contracted pelvis.
e) Placenta previa incomplete centralis associated with intra uterine fetal death.
The most common reason for postdate pregnancy is:
A. Inaccurate gestational age.
B. Fetal anencephaly.
C. Oligohydramnios.
D. IUGR.
E Advanced maternal age
All the following conditions result in polyhydramnios except:
A. Oesophageal atresia
B. Spina bifida
C. Renal agenesis
D. Anencephaly.
E. Placental chorioangiomas.

The patient is 7 weeks pregnant which one of the followings u/s measurements is most useful.
A. Biparietal diameter.
B. Femur length.
C. Placental site
D. Gestational sac size.
E. Abdominal circumference.
The gentic makeup of incomplete hydatidiform mole typically is:
A. 46. xx paternal only.
B. 46. xx maternal only.
C .46 .xx paternal only.
D. 46xx maternal and paternal.
E. Triploidy.
The followings are normal changes in pregnancy except:
A. Reduced plasma volume.
B. Increase RBC'S mass.
C. Increase stroke volume.
D. Increase cardiac output.
E. Increase in heart rate.
Regarding early deceleration which of the followings is correct?
A. Are associated with unengaged head.
B. Are associated usually with brain hypoxia.
C. They represent decrease in fetal heart betas that peaks after uterine contraction.
D. An indication of cesarean section.
E. Results from head compassion.
Physiological changes in reproductive system during pregnancy include the followings except:
A. Acidic vagina PH.
B. The uterus enlarges by hyperplasia and hypertrophy.
C. The cervix becomes soft.
D. Dry vagina.
E. Lower segment of the uterus starts to be formed in the second trimester.
The foetus contributes in the production of which of the followings during pregnancy:
A. HCG.
B. hPL
C. Prolactin.
D. Progesterone.
E. Estriol
Which of the followings is not correct regarding missed abortion?
A. Patient may present with loss of the symptoms of pregnancy.
B. Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptoms.
C. Immediate evacuation should be done after the diagnosis is made.
D. Disseminated intra-vascular coagulation may occur as a sequel.
E. Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis.

Which of the followings is correct regarding secondary postpartum hemorrhage:

A. Is diagnosed only when bleeding occurs 72 hours after delivery.
B. Contra indicates breast feeding.
C. The commonest cause is cervical tears.
D. Very common when the patient delivers a congenitally malformed baby.
E. Retained placental tissue could be a cause.
The term "parity"describes:
a) Total number of pregnancies.
b) Total number of foetuses delivered.
c) Number of live foetuses delivered.
d) Number of vaginal deliveries.
e) Number of full term deliveries.
An abnormal attitude is illustrated by:
a) Breech presentation.
b) Face presentation.
c) Transverse lie.
d) Occiput posterior.
e) Occiput anterior.
All of the following would be indications that the patient is receiving too much MgSO4 &
needs her infusion dose lowered except:
a) Hyper-reflexia.
b) Disappearnce of patellar reflexes.
c) Respiratory depression.
d) Somnlence.
e) Slurred speech.
A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration, lower abdominal pain, facial
pallor, fainting & shock, & -hCG is positive.The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Ruptured ovarian cyst.
b) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
c) Threatened abortion.
d) Septic abortion.
e) Missed abortion.
One of the following statements is correct regarding -hCG:
a) -hCG begins to rise 2 weeks after fertilization.
b) -hCG is measured using antibody radioimmunoassay.
c) The -subunit is the same as TSH & FSH.
d) -hCG level continues to rise till the end of pregnancy.
e) -hCG is a polypeptide protein produced by hypothalamus.
Regarding obstructed labour which of the followings is true?
A- Diagnosed only when the cervix is fully dilated.
B. Usually predicted before onset of labor.
C. More common in developed countries.
D. Neglected shoulder could be a cause.
E. X-ray pelvimetry is essential to predict the diagnosis in primigravidas.

The followings are factors affecting the choice of methotrexate as a choice of treatment for ectopic
pregnancy except:
A. Size of the ectopic.
B .Presence of absence of cardiac activity.
C. Level of B-hCG
D. Parity of the patient.
E. Integrity of the tube.
Diabetes in pregnancy may be associated with the following congenital anomalies except:
A. Sacral agenesis.
B- Central nervous system abnormalities.
C. Yellow teeth discoloration.
D. Lower limb hyperplasia.
E. Congenital heart disease.
Which of the followings is an indication of emergency lower segment CS?
A. Previous lower transverse cesarean-section.
B. Impacted brow.
C. Patient with prolapsed cord and a dead fetus.
D. Cardiac disease of the mother.
E. Multiple gestations.
A professor of obstetrics is explaining the cardinal movements of labour:
First __ the greatest transverse diameter of the fetal head passes through the pelvic inlet;
Second __ the fetal head descends; third __ the fetal chin is brought into close contact with the fetal
thorax; fourth __ turning of the occiput toward the 12 o'clock position; fifth __ the uterine contractions
extend the fetal vertex anteriorly ;What is the next step?
A. Delivery of the head.
B. Rotation of occiput to transverse position.
C. Rotation of occiput to posterior position.
D. Delivery of anterior shoulder.
E. Expulsion.
The following statements regarding face presentation are correct except:
A. Diagnosis is difficult by abdominal palpation.
B. The denominator is the chin.
C. The engaging diameter is mentovertical diameter.
D. Submento vertical diameter will distend the vulva during delivery.
E. Contracted pelvis is the main cause in primigravidas.
The total iron needed for expansion of red call mass during pregnancy is about:
A. 750mg.
B. 300ng
C. 100mg
D. 30 mg
E. 15mg

The placenta acts as barrier against:

A. Thyroid stimulating hormone.
B. Growth hormone.
C. Low molecular weight heparin.
D. Nucleic acid.
E. Immunoglobulin.
The following substances pass through placenta by active transport:
A. Immunoglobulin.
B. Amino acids.
C. Glucose.
D. Fat-soluble vitamin.
E. Carbon dioxide.
A patient sustained a laceration of the perineum during delivery it involved the muscles of perineal
body and the anal mucosa. Such a laceration would be classified as:
A. First degree.
B. Second degree.
C. Third degree.
D. Fourth degree.
E. Fifth degree.
A cystocele:
a) Is always associated with constipation.
b) Contains bladder.
c) Contains rectum.
d) Is best treated by antibiotics.
What percentage of term labours present with a longitudinal lie?
a) 20.
b) 50
c) 70.
d) 99.5.
Most common cause of 1st trimesteric abortion is:
a) Chromosomal abnormalities.
b) Syphilis.
c) Rhesus isoimmunisation.
d) Cervical stenosis.
The baseline heart rate of normal fetus at term is:
A. 80-100 bpm
B. 100-120 bpm
C. 120-160 bpm
D. 160-180 pbm
E- There is no baseline heart rate.

All of the following infections cause fetal malformation except:

A .Rubella.
B. Syphilis.
C. Toxoplasma.
D. HIV.
E. CMV

A syndrome seen in pre-eclampsia called HELLP syndrome is characterized by all of the followings excep
A. Elevation of liver enzymes.
B. Hemolysis.
C. Low platelet count.
D. Prolongation of prothrombin time.
E. Increase fibrinogen level.
Which of the followings is not a presumptive symptom/sign of pregnancy?
A. Cessation of menstruation.
B. Quickening
C. Nausea & vomiting.
D. Breast changes.
E. Darkening of the skin on the palms of the hands.
Apgar's score includes all the followings except:
A. Skin color.
B. Muscle tone.
C. Foetal scalp PH.
D. Heart rate.
E. Respirations.
The Bishop score is used to predict:
A. The state of the foetus at the time of delivery.
B. The success rate of the induction of the labour.
C. The foetal condition in the uterus.
D. The maternal well-being in labour.
E .The maternal well-being postpartum.
Components of biophysical profile include the followings except:
A. Fetal movement.
B. Placental volume.
C. Fetal tone.
D. Fetal breathing movement.
E. Amniotic fluid volume assessment.
The second stage of labour.
A. Separation of placenta.
B. Separation of after birth.
C. Expulsion of placenta.
D. Dilatation of cervix.
E. Ends with expulsion of the fetus.

After birth the following changes occur in the foetus except:

A. The foramen ovule closes.
B. Lung fluid is forced out of the fetal alveoli with the first few breaths.
C. The ductus atreriosus opens.
D. Hemoglobin F is replaced by hemoglobin A.
E. The umbilical vein and artery close.
In managing patients with heart disease during delivery which of the followings is correct?
A. No pain relief to avoid giving medications during labour.
B. Lithotomy position is prefaced all the time.
C. Low forceps may be used if necessary.
D. Digitalis should be avoided until the foetus is delivered.
E. Caesarean section is the best management option.
Induction of abortion in the first trimester:
A. Commonly achieved using high dose of oxytocin infusion.
B. Commonly achieved by suction evacuation.
C. Better achieved by abdominal hysterectomy.
D. Better achieved by abdominal hysterotomy.
E. Cannot be achieved except by surgical means.
Primary treatment of molar pregnancy is which of the following?
a) Hysterotomy.
b) Suction curettage.
c) Cesarean section.
d) Misoprostol induction.
What is the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother called?
a) Presentation.
b) Lie.
c) Attitude.
d) Posture.
Vaginal candidiasis is predisposed to by:
a) Diabetes mellitus.
b) Pregnancy.
c) Oral contraceptives.
d) All of the above.
The pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia is characterised by:
a) Vasodilatation.
b) Vasospasm.
c) Hemodilution.
d) Hypervolemia.

Sonographic evidence of an ectopic pregnancy includes which of the following?

a) Adnexal mass.
b) Fluid in the cul de sac.
c) Lack of intra-uterine gestational sac.
d) All of the above.
Pelvic thrombophlebitis in the puerperium commonly:
A. Occurs in the first week post-delivery.
B. Occurs in the second week post-delivery.
C. Occurs in the third week post-delivery.
D. Occurs in the fourth week post-delivery.
E. Occurs only after operative delivery.
Patients with epidural analgesia during labour are more liable to have an
increased incidence of?
A. Cesarean delivery.
B. Neonatal depression.
C. Prolonged labor.
D. Cerebral palsy.
E. Episiotomy.
Which of the followings is not correct retarding oxytocin?
A. Is a nona peptide.
B. Is synthesized in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
C. Receptor concentration in the uterus increases towards the end of pregnancy.
D. Secretion is stimulated by suckling.
E. Has some antidiuretic action.
The pain of the second stage of labour is conveyed by which nerve?
A. Para cervical
B. Ilio-inguinal.
C. Pudendal.
D. Genito-femoral.
E. Iliohypogastric
Acute putrid endometritis is characterized by the followings except:
A. Mild type of puerperal sepsis.
B. Caused by low virulent organism.
C. Uterine cavity is rather empty and is only lined by a pyogenic membrane.
D. Leucocytic barrier is found under the endometrial.
E. Limited spread of infection.
Complications of amniotomy include the followings except:
A. Placental abruption.
B. Anesthetic complications.
C. Prolapse of the cord.
D. Intra- amniotic infection.
e. Soft tissue injury of the foetus.

Foetal response to placental insufficiency includes the followings except:

A. Redistribution of blood flow preferentially to the brain and foetal heart.
B. Asymmetric IUGR.
C. Polyhydramnios.
D. Decreased foetal movement.
E. Disturbance .of foetal heart rate.
Obstetric causes of neurogenic shock include the followings except :
A. Disturbed extra uterine pregnancy.
B. Difficult internal version.
C Unavoidable ante partum hemorrhage.
D. Repeat rough attempts at Crede's method.
E. Acute inversion of the uterus.
Human placental lactogen (hPL) is characterized by the followings except.
A. A large protein hormone .
B. Induces maternal hyperglycemia.
C. Stimulates lipogensis.
D. Inhibits gluconeogenesis.
E. Secreted from syncytiotrophoblast.
An 18-year old woman .gravid a 2. Para 0 presents for her first prenatal visit .she reports
regular 23days cycles and her L.M.P was September 9. What is her EDC calculated by
Nangele's rule.
A. June16.
B. June11.
C. June 9.
D. June 23
E. June 30.
The most common cause of breech presentation is:
A. Prematurely.
B. Advanced maternal age.
C. Fibroid.
D. Uterine anomalies.
E. Polyhydramnios.
In coordinate uterine contractions include the followings except:
A. Contraction ring.
B. Cervical incompetence.
C. Cervical dystocia.
D. Colicky uterus.
E. Retraction ring.
Precipitate labour & delivery may lead to the following complications except:
A. Uterine rupture.
B. Amniotic fluid embolism.
C. Vagina & perianal tears.
D. Constriction ring in the uterus.
E. Uterine atony.

Icterus gravis neonatorum is characterized by the followings except.

A. Being the commonest form of erythroblast foetalis
B. Hepatosplenomegaly is usually present.
C. Jaundice develops within 48 hours after birth.
D. The baby is delivered jaundiced at birth.
E. The baby is delivered anemic at birth.
Regarding ectopic pregnancy which of the followings is not correct:
A. The incidence has increased in the last decade.
B. Exposure to diethylstilbestrol is a risk factor.
C. Most pregnancies occur in the fimbrial end of the tube.
D. Elevated temperature is not a usual sing at presentation.
E. Methotrexate is used as treatment option because it interferes with DNA synthesis.
Cephalopelvic disproportion in the absences of gross pelvic abnormality can be diagnosed by:
A. Ultrasound.
B. A maternal stature of <155 cm.
C. Trial of labour.
D. X-ray pelvimetry.
E. pelvic examination.
A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal death .she returns 5 week
later and has not aborted yet although she has had some occasional spotting. This patient is at
increased risk for:
A. Septic abortion.
B. Recumbent abortion.
C Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy.
D. Future infertility.
E. Ectopic pregnancies.
Which of the followings is not an indication for prenatal diagnosis?
A. Elevated MSAFP.
B. Previous child with cystic fibrosis.
C. Maternal ventricular sepal defect (VSD).
D. Omphalocele detected on second trimester ultrasound.
E. Paternal age 50 years.
Factors that hinder long anterior rotation of the occiput include the followings except:
A. Epidural anesthesia.
B. High assimilation pelvis.
C. Too lax or too rigid pelvic floor.
D. Corrected deflexion of the head.
E. Early rupture of membranes.
What is the mean doubling time for serum hCG levels in early pregnancy?
a) 24 hours.
b) 48 hours.
c) 72 hours.
d) 96 hours.

During the 3rd stage of labour:

a) The baby born.
b) Maximal cervical dilataion occurs.
c) The beginning of cervical dialtaion occurs.
d) The regular onset of contractions occurs.
e) The placenta is delivered.
During labour in left occiput anterior position, the occiput has to rotate to the symphysis
pubis how many degrees (internal rotation)?
a) 45 (1/8th of a circle).
b) 90 (2/8th of a circle).
c) 135 (3/8th of a circle).
d) 180 (4/8th of a circle).
Complete molar pregnancy most commonl;y have which of the following genetic
compositions?
a) 45,XO.
b) 47,XXX.
c) 46,XX.
d) 47,XXXY.
Fertilization of the ovum by a sperm normally occurs in the :
a) Fimbria of the fallopian tube.
b) Isthmus of the fallopian tube.
c) Ampullary region of the fallopian tube.
d) Uterine cornua.
e) Uterine trigone.
Pregnant patient with HELLP syndrome, all are found except:
a) Hemolysis.
b) Decreased platelets.
c) Raised liver enzymes.
d) Hepato-splenomegaly.
Habitual spontaneous abortion is defined as:
a) Four or more abortions.
b) Three or more consecutive abortions.
c) Five or more abortions.
d) Total of ten abortions.
e) None of the above.
What is the mean duration of pregnancy from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP)?
a) 240 days.
b) 260 days.
c) 280 days.
d) 300 days.

Enterocele:
a) Is a prolapse of the rectum.
b) Gives an impulse on cough on PV.
c) May resolve spontaneously.
d) Diagnosed by barium enema.
Ectopic pregnancy:
a) Is treated surgically only.
b) Pain is always before vaginal bleeding.
c) Incidence is 1:100 of spontaneous conception.
d) Gives an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum.
The most common cause for 2ry amenorrhea is:
a) Pregnancy.
b) Menopause.
c) Lactation.
d) Severe exercise.
Maternal complications of placenta previa include all except:
a) Postpartum haemorrhage.
b) Polyhydramnios.
c) Placenta accreta.
d) Cesarean delivery.
Diagnosis of placenta previa:
a) Bleeding is always painless, causeless & recurrent.
b) Most common presentation is state of shock.
c) Vaginal ultrasonography is preferable than abdominal ultrasonography.
d) PV examination is allowed in some, not all, cases undergoing active management.
Uterine prolapse in a surgically fit old aged patient is best treated by:
a) Classical repair with shortening of Machenrodt's ligaments.
b) Vaginal hysterectomy with repair of pelvic floor.
c) Fothergill operation.
d) Le Fort's operation: Partial colpocleisis.
Commonest site for fibroids:
a) Subserous.
b) Cervical.
c) Interstitial.
d) Submucous.
In occipito-posterior, long anterior rotation is favoured by:
a) Rupture membranes.
b) Strong uterine contraction.
c) Weak pelvic floor.
d) Contracted pelvic outlet.

Endometriosis:
a) Is associated with development of endometrial cancer later in life.
b) A well known cause for postmenopausal bleeding.
c) Is associated with subfertility.
d) Benign neoplastic lesion rare to turn malignant.
Maternal risks of pre-eclampsia include:
a) Oligohydrmnios.
b) Premature rupture of membranes(PROM).
c) Uteroplacental insuffiency & IUGR.
d) Dissimenated intra-vascular coagulopathy & its complications.
Which of the followings is characteristic of the hymen?
A. Richly innervated.
B. Contains sebaceous glands.
C. Contains muscular elements.
D. Covered by stratified squamous epithelial.
E. It is always elastic.
Concerning ovulation:
A. LH induces theca cell estrogen production.
B. FSH induces a rise in LH receptors.
C. Ovulation occurs 14 hours after LH surge.
D. Sperms are needed to lyse the follicular membrane for ovulation to occur.
E. Ovulation can be confirmed by measurement of LH on day14.
Testicular feminization (androgen insensitivity) syndrome is associated with:
A. Existence of ovarian and testicular tissue.
B. Ambiguous genitalia.
C. 47.xx karyotype.
D. Hypo plastic breast
E. Late onset of gonadal tumours.
Which of the followings is not true about theca lutein cysts?
A. Such cysts arise more frequently in patients with complete moles.
B. Cysts may require surgical intervention.
C. Cysts are usually unilateral.
D. These cysts are more likely seen in patients with very high B-hCG levels.
E. Cysts may contain serosanguinous fluid.
Which of the followings is not true regarding vaginal Candida infection?
A. Is the commonest of all infection during pregnancy?
B. Inadequate therapy is the most likely cause of chronic infections.
C. Is more common in women using the progesterone only pill.
D. Oestrogen- containing oral contraceptives predispose to candida infection.
E. The growth of Candida is increased at the end of the luteal phase.

Menstrual bleeding is secondary to constriction and leakage from branch of which

endometrial arteries?
A. Uterine.
B. Straight.
C. Radial.
D. Coiled.
The term cervical ectopy. May be referred to all except:
A. Anaplastic area of epithelium.
B. Stromal cells.
C. Eversion of endocervical canal
D. Denuded inflamed mucosa.
E. Metaphase of epithelium.
Exposure of female foetus to androgens may arrest differentiation of:
A. Mulleian ducts.
B. Ovary.
C. Urogenital sinus.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
The preferred treatment of ruptured tubo-ovarian abscess is:
A. Cul-de-sac drainage.
B Removal of uterus, tubes and involved ovary.
C. Removal of uterus, tube and ovary.
D. Removal of ruptured tube and ovary.
E. Removal of adenexae and drainage.
Anorexia nervosa is disorder of adolescence which most commonly mimics:
A. Grave's disease.
B. Chiari-frommel syndrome.
C. Cushing's disease.
D. Simmonds disease.
E. Addison's disease.
Inter-menstrual spotting is most commonly associated with:
A. Ovarian carcinoma.
B. Myoma.
C. Tubal malignancy.
D. Cervical ectopy.
E. Vaginitis.
Progesterone diminishes uterine bleeding chiefly by which mechanism?
A. Inducing endometrial hyperplasia.
B. Medical curettage.
C. Vascular haemostasis.
D. Decidual change.
E. Platelet production.

Bicornuate uterus might predispose to the followings except:

A. Recurrent preterm labour.
B. Primary amenorrhea.
C. Recurrent oblique lie.
D. Retention of the placenta.
E. Menorrhagia
The followings are true about GNRH analogues except:
A. It is synthetic compound.
B. It has an androgenic property.
C. It has anti-estrogenic effects.
D. It has anti-gonadotrophic effect.
E. Could be used in the treatment of infertility.
Visible structures at the vulva include the followings except:
A. The labia majora.
B. The labia minora.
C. The external urethral meatus.
D. Bartholin's glands.
E. Clitoris.
Para ovarian cysts:
A. Arise from the surface epithelium of the ovary.
B. Arise form remnants of the wollfian duct.
C. Are usually bilateral.
D. Are usually multilocular.
E. Have a thin translucent wall.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding anorexia nervosa?
A. Patients may have bulimia.
B. There is excessive weight loss.
C. Primary amenorrhea is usually present.
D. It may affect 1% of young women.
E. Needs reassurance and psychological support.
The follicular phase of ovarian cycle is characterized by:
A. Increasing amounts of E1.
B. Progesterone dominance.
C. Fixed length of 8 days.
D. Proliferative endometrium.
E. Reduction in aromatase activity.
Which of the following actions combined oral contraceptive pills have:
A. Increase risk of endometrial cancer.
B. Decrease risk of ovarian cancer.
C. Reduce risk of breast cancer.
D. Reduce risk of cervical cancer.
E. Worsen endometriosis.

Regarding fertilization and implantation:

A. Fertilization occurs in the inner third of the fallopian tube.
B. The sperm as a whole penetrates through the corona radiate and zona pellucida.
C. The second meiotic division is completed before fertilization.
D. Implantation occurs in blastocyst stage.
E. The trophoblast invades the endometrium and differentiates into outer
cytotrophoblasts and inner syncytiotrophoblast.
All the followings are possible causes of hemorrhage except:
A. Sub mucous uterine myomas.
B. Adenomyosis uteri
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. Endometrial hyperplasia.
E. Cervical myomas.
Endometrial cancer:
a) Occurs in postmenopausal females at the age of approximately 60 years.
b) Never occurs before the age of 40years.
c) More common in smokers.
d) Not related to obesity, diabetes & hypertension.
Most important & common presenting symptom with ectopic pregnancy is:
a) Abdominal pains.
b) Vaginal bleeding.
c) Fever.
d) Nausea & vomiting.
Most important, serious & common cause for accidental haemorrhage is:
a) Sudden premature rupture of membranes.
b) Short umbilical cord.
c) External trauma.
d) Maternal pre-eclampsia,
Cervical cancer:
a) May lead to ureteric obstruction.
b) Unusual to spread to the iliac nodes.
c) Arises from the transformation zone in most cases.
d) More common in virgins.
Hysterosalpingogram: HSG is unable to diagnose:
a) Intra-uterine adhesions.
b) Pelvic endometriosis.
c) Tubal obstruction.
d) Bicornuate uterus.

Which of the following causes of infertility is generally the most successfully diagnosed &
treated:
a) Ovulation disorders.
b) Tubal obstruction.
c) Endometriosis.
d) Intra-uterine adhesions.
Delivery of the fetal head occurs in extension in:
a) Face to pubis.
b) After coming head in breech delivery.
c) Right occipto-anterior position.
d) Right mento-anterior presentation.
Risk factors for endometrial cancer includes all except:
a) Obesity.
b) Polycystic ovarian syndrome.
c) Unopposed estrogen therapy.
d) Progestegens therapy.
A drug not used in the management of atonic post-partum haemorrhage:
a) Methergine.
b) Atropine.
c) Oxytocin.
d) PG F2 alpha.
Internal os is closed in:
a) Incomplete abortion.
b) Threatened abortion.
c) Inevitable abortion.
d) All of the above.
The most common clinical presentation of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is:
a) Hirsutism.
b) Amenorrhea.
c) Infertility.
d) Obesity.
The following ligament support the uterus:
a) Round ligament & broad ligament.
b) Broad ligament & ovarian ligament.
c) Round ligament & ovarian ligament.
d) Cardinal ligament & uterosacral ligament.
Absolute contra-indications to intra-uterine device(IUD) insertion:
a) Confirmed or suspected pregnancy.
b) Acute or chronic infections.
c) Known or suspected pelvic malignancies.
d) All of the above.

The combined oral contraceprive pills are:

a) Taken continuously for 28 days.
b) Can be used as a form of post-coital contraception.
c) Can be used to reduce menorrhagia & dysmenorrhea.
d) If a pill is forgotten (e.g. 12hours late), other contraception must be used for 7 days.
Which of the following regarding progesterone only pills is incorrect:
a) Must be taken at the same time (within 3 hrs) each day.
b) This pill is preferred to the combined oral contraceptive pill for use in smokers.
c) Can be used as a form of post-coital contraception.
d) Main contraceptive mode of action is inhibition of ovulation.
Part of the uterus that forms the lower uterine segment in pregnancy:
a) Cervix.
b) Corpus.
c) Cornua.
d) Isthmus.
Cystocele in a 34 years old patient is best managed by:
a) Anterior colpoperinioraphy.
b) Classical repair.
c) Fothergils operation.
d) Posterior colpoperinioraphy.
Which of the following is used to investigate an infertile couple?
a) Hysterosalpingogram.
b) Rhesus blood group status of both partners.
c) Day 25 progesterone level in the female with 28 day cycles.
d) Chlamydia investigation of the male partner.
What is the mean number of oocytes in a woman over age 36?
a) 3400.
b) 34000.
c) 340000.
d) 3400000.
What is the average biparietal diameter of a full term fetus?
a) 9.5 cms.
b) 9 cms.
c) 10.5 cms.
d) 10 cms.
Placenta accreta is associated with all except:
a) Uterine scar.
b) Placental insufficiency.
c) Postpartum haemorrhage.
d) Retained placenta.

Which of the following is the most potent of the naturally occurring estrogens
a) Estriol.
b) Estrone.
c) Estradiol.
d) Ethinyl estradiol.
Gondola dysgenesis is treated with.
A. Thyroid extract.
B. Cortisone.
C. Estrogens.
D. Progesterone.
E. Dexamethasone.
During the evaluation of infertility in a 25-year-old female a hystrosalpingogram showed
evidence of Asherman syndrome which one of the followings symptoms would you
expect this patient to give?
A. Dyspareunia.
B. Secondary amenorrhea.
C. Menorrhagia.
D. Metrorrhagia.
E. Dysmenorrhea.
The main sensory supply to the uterus is derived from.
A. Presacral nerve.
B. Splanchnic nerve.
C. Pampiniform plexus.
D. Pudendal never.
E. Hypogastric nerve.
Which of the following tumors is the least likely to the he hormonally active?
A. Sertoli- lyeding call tumor.
B. Granulose cell tumor.
C. Hilus cell tumor.
D. Fibroma.
E. Ovarian mucinous cystadenoma.
Factors needed for normal sexual differentiations include the followings except:
A. Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the female.
B. Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the male.
C. Normal testicular function for male development.
D. Normal ovarian function sexual differentiation.
E. Responsive male end organs for testicular testosterone.
Luteal phase vaginal cytology includes the followings except:
A. Intermediate cells with rolled edges.
B. Eosinophilic cytoplasm.
C. Vesicular nucleus.
D. Many lymphocytes.
E. Maturation index 0-70-30.

True isosexual precocious puberty may associate the followings except.

A. Glioma.
B. Meningitis.
C. Empty sella syndrome.
D. Head trauma.
E. Primary hypothyroidism.
Risk factors for osteoporosis include the followings except:
A. delayed menopause.
B. Heavy smoking.
C. Increased caffeine consumption.
D. Lack of exercise.
E. Low body weight.
Hyperinsulinaemia leads to the followings except:
A. Increased sensitivity of ovarian theca cells to LH.
B. Increased LH induced androgen production by the ovaries.
C. Increased aromatizes enzyme activity.
D. Decreased production of SHGB.
E. Increased free androgen substrate.
Backache caused by gynecological lesions is characterized by the followings except:
A. It is diffuse.
B. Situated in the mid line.
C it is bilateral.
D. Its level is sacral or lumbosacral.
E. Associated with localized tenderness.
The single most reliable predictor of bacterial vaginosis is.
A. Homogeneous thin grayish white discharge that smoothly coats vaginal walls.
B. Vaginal PH greater than 4.5.
C. Positive whiff amine test.
D. The presence of clue cells on saline wet mount.
E. Vaginal culture.
Factors associated with increased risk for PID include the followings except:
A. Young sexually active women.
B. Women with multiple sexual partners.
C. Use of intrauterine contraceptive device.
D. Use of contraceptive gel-foams.
E. Drug addicts.
Urodynamic parameters of normal bladder function include the followings except:
A. Residual urine after voiding >50 ml.
B. Detrusor pressure filling <15 cm H2O.
C. Absence of systolic detrusor contractions.
D. First desire to void at 150-200ml.
E. Strong desire to void at 400-600 ml.

Which of the followings is correct regarding inhibin?

A. A peptide produced by granulose cells.
B. It enhances FSH production.
C. Attenuates LH induced androgen synthesis.
D. Promotes follicular development.
E. Induces LH surge.
Uterine myomas are characterized by which of the followings:
A. Whorled appearance on cutsection .
B. Surrounding myometrium is paler than the tumour tissues.
C. Pseudo- capsule is a part of the tumour.
D. Van Geison stain colours the muscle cells pink and fibrous tissue cells yellow .
E. Abundant mitotic figures.
The initial evaluation in an infertile couple should include.
A. Ovarian biopsy.
B. Semen analysis.
C. D & C.
D. Laparoscopy.
E. sperm penetration assay.
The terminology of pelvic inflammatory diseases indicates.
A. Infection of the vagina.
B. Infection of Bartholin's glands.
C. Endometritis and salpingo-oophoritis.
D. Infection of skene's glands.
E. Infection of the urinary bladder.
A previously healthy 21-year old woman has profuse malodorous vaginal discharge.
Examination shows a greenlsh gray frothy discharge with a fishy odor and petechial
Lesions on the cervix there is no cervical motion tenderness. Her temperature is 37.5.c blood .
Pressure is 120/80mmHg, pulse is 60/ min and respirations are 16/ min .microscopic evaluation
Of the discharge is most likely to show which of the followings?
A. Clue cells.
B. Gram negative diplococci.
C. Gram positive. diplococci.
D. Motile flaglated organisms.
E. Pseudo hyphae or hyphae.
Drugs having antiestrogenic effects include the followings except:
A. Tamoxifen.
B. GnRH analogues.
C. Clomiphene citrate.
D. Mifepristone.
E. Bromocriptine.

Post-coital contraception induces all of the following except:

A. Insertion of an IUD within 48 hours.
B. Use of vaginal douching within 12 hours.
C. Mifepristone (RU486)
D. Progestin-only dose pills.
E. Combined oral contraceptive pills.
Which of the followings is not a consequence of androgen in prepubertal girls?
A. Clitoromegaly.
B. Heterosexual precocious puberty.
C. Increased height velocity.
D. Somatic development.
E. Delayed epiphyseal fusion .
Which nerve is most subject to injury as a result of a sacrospinous ligament fixation procedure?
A. Femoral.
B. Common personal.
C. Pudendal.
D. Sciatic.
E. Obturator.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding Turner's syndrome?
A. May have one chromosome as an isochromosome.
B Is usually associated with severe mental retardation.
C. Patients usually present with primary amenorrhea.
D. Can be detected at birth.
E. May be associated with cardiac abnormalities.
One is correct concerning imperforate hymen:
A. The commonest cause of cryptomenorrhea.
B. Classic presentation by pelvi-abdominal swelling & cyclic abdominal pain.
C Treatment is mainly medical.
D. Associated with absence of 2ry sexual character.
E. A& B only.
Which of the following is correct regarding Bartholin's cysts?
A. Usually are painful swellings.
B. Should be excised.
C. May become infected by gonococci.
D. Are situated in the inferior 1/3 of the labia minora.
E. Are usually bilateral.
Which of the following pubertal events in girls is not estrogen dependent?
A. Menses.
B. Vaginal cornification
C. Hair growth.
D. Reaching adult height.
E. Production of cervical mucus.

After the menopause the followings may occur except:

A. Reduction in vaginal acidity.
B. Increased osteoblastic activity
C. Loss of libido.
D. Memory loss.
E. Gonadotrophin secretion increases.
Compilations of fibroids the following except:
A. Infection.
B. Red degeneration.
C. Endometrial carcinoma.
D. Recusant abortion.
E. Chronic inversion of the uterus.
The most common urinary tract injury during laparoscopy is:
A. Bladder perforation.
B. Fistula.
C. Ureter ligation.
D. Ureter transaction.
E. Urethral injury
The hCG receptor is also the receptor for:
a) LH.
b) FSH.
c) Estriol.
d) Progesterone.
Gender of the fetus is first evident by the gestational age (weeks) of:
a) 6.
b) 8.
c) 12.
d) 16.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is not characterised by:
a) Female phenotype.
b) Short blind-ending vagina.
c) Ovarian remnants on one side.
d) No uterus or faollpian tubes.
Which of the following is thought to be mediator of dysmenorrhea?
a) Interleukin-8.
b) Enkephlinase.
c) Prostaglandin F2alpha.
d) Monocyte chemotactic factor-1.
Vesicular mole:
a) Is not diagnosed by ultrasound.
b) First trimester bleeding is not the presenting symptom.
c) May be complete mole or partial mole with a fetus.
d) Very low B-HCG levels.

Spontaneous fetal movements begin at the gestyational age (weeks) of:

a) 6.
b) 12.
c) 16.
d) 20.
Progesterone action can be blocked by:
a) Steriods.
b) RU-486.
c) Aspirin.
d) B-blokers(Propranolol).
Oxytocin is synthesized in:
a) Adrenal gland.
b) Posterior pituitary.
c) Placenta.
d) Ovary.
Causes of 2ry post partum haemorrhage:
a) Uterine atony.
b) Choriocarcinoma.
c) Hypofibrinogemia.
d) Acute puerperal inversion.
A woman has had 2 pregnancies, both ending in abortion.Her obstetrical designation is:
a) Multipara.
b) Nullipara.
c) Nulligravida
d) None of the above.
A primi parous woman:
a) Pregnant once, regardless of outcome.
b) Delivered once of a fetus at least 20 weeks gestation.
c) Delivered once of a fetus weighing at least 550 grams.
d) Has had one pregnancy lasting at least 12 weeks.
Obstetric code 3-1-0-2 indicates a history of:
a) 2 abortions.
b) 3 living children.
c) 3 term deliveries.
d) 0 preterm deliveries.
A nutrient during pregnancy not adequately provided diet alone:
a) Calcium.
b) Magnesium.
c) Iron.
d) Folate.

Influenza vaccine during pregnancy:

a) Given IM one dose.
b) Given after 1st trimester during flu season in average risk women.
c) Given any trimester in women at a high risk of pulmonary complications.
d) All of the above.
Post partum haemorrhage is characterised by all except:
a) Atony is the main cause.
b) Excessive blood loss during or after the third stage of labour.
c) Classified as primary & secondary.
d) Loss of 500 cc during a Cesarean section.
Incidence of hyterotropic pregnancies increased due to:
a) Obesity.
b) Assisted reproduction.
c) Progesterone only pills.
d) Dietary factors.
Sonographic evidence of ectopic pregnancy:
a) Intra-uterine sac & an adnexal luteal cyst.
b) Lack of intra-uterine sac & an adnexal mass.
c) Snow storm appearance & theca lutin cyst.
d) None of the above.
Clinically molar pregnancy is associated with all except:
a) Absent fetal heart sounds.
b) Iron deficiency anemia.
c) Uterine size larger than gestational age.
d) Harsh maternal systolic cardiac murmur.
Methods for detection of fetal congenital anomalies include all except:
a) Chorion villus sampling.
b) Triple marker.
c) Fetal biophysical profile.
d) Amniocentesis.
The genetic composition of partial mole is:
a) 45,XO.
b) 46,XY.
c) 47,XXY.
d) 69,XXY.
Most common fetal malpresentation (malposition) during labour is:
a) Right occipitoposterior.
b) Shoulder presentation.
c) Frank breech.
d) Face presentation.

Complications of accidental haemorrhage include all except:

a) Intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR).
b) Acute renal failure.
c) Surgical shock.
d) Consumptive coagulopathy.
In pre-eclampsia blood volume:
a) Increase.
b) Decrease.
c) Unchanged.
d) Decreased than increased.
Complications of pre-eclmpsia:
a) Heart failure.
b) Renal failure.
c) Recurrent eclampsia.
d) Polyhydramnios.
Asynclitism:
a) Means increased fetal head flexion.
b) Means 2 parietal bones are on same level.
c) Facilitates engagement.
d) Is more marked with preterm labour.
In normal labour of a primigravida:
a) Cervical dilatation & effacement occur simultaneously.
b) Head always engage in 1st stage.
c) Duration of 3rd stage is equal to that in multipara.
d) Rate of cervical dilatation is constant.
Management of the 1st stage of labour include:
a) Heavy sedation to minimize pain.
b) Frequent pelvic examination.
c) Plenty of sugary drinks all through 1st stage.
d) Evacuation of bladder & rectum.
Progress of labour is measured by:
a) Frequency of uterine contractions.
b) Strength of uterine contractions.
c) Descent of the presenting part & cervical dilatation.
d) State of membranes whether intact or ruptured.
Causes of mal-presentations include all EXCEPT:
a) Abnormal shape of the pelvis.
b) Cord prolapse &/or presentation.
c) Laxity of abdominal wall.
d) Intra-uterine fetal death.

Etiological factors of occipito-posterior include:

a) Hydrocephalus.
b) Flat pelvis.
c) Rachitic pelvis.
d) Android pelvis.
Earliest clinical manifestation of Sheehan's syndrome is :
a) Adrenal insufficiency.
b) Asthenia.
c) Loss of libido.
d) Failure of lactation.
Metropathia hemorrhagica:
a) Present with minimal vaginal bleeding.
b) Is rare cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
c) Associated with anovulation.
d) Surgery is the main line of treatment.
Gonadotropins used for ovulation induction:
a) Given by intra-venous route.
b) Low risk of multiple pregnancies.
c) Effective in cases of Sheehan's syndrome.
d) Taken from blood of menopausal females.
Intra-uterine insemination:
a) Indicated in cases of azospermia.
b) May be used in cases of unexplained infertility.
c) Ineffective in cases of hostile cervical muscous.
d) Done in early proliferative phase.
As regarding in vitro fertilization:
a) Success rate is more than 50%.
b) Doesn't require ovulation induction.
c) Used in cases of tubal obstruction.
d) Not increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Bacterial vaginosis:
a) The organism is a protozoa.
b) Rare form of vaginitis.
c) The vaginal PH < 4.5.
d) Foul odour discharge & increase with intercourse.
Candidial infection: all are true EXCEPT:
a) The organism is fungus yeast like.
b) Vaginal PH is alkaline.
c) Affects 1/3 of pregnant women.
d) Leads to itching ,soreness & dyspareunia.

Acute pelvic inflammatory disease is:

a) Postpartum infection is the commonest.
b) Associated with Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome.
c) Unilateral in most cases.
d) IUD is not a known risk factor.
Chronic cervicitis:
a) Usually caused by anaerobic organism.
b) May cause subfertility
c) May cause spasmodic dysmenorrhea.
d) Antibiotics are the main line of treatment.
Retroversion of the uterus:
a) Occurs in 15% of normal women.
b) Common cause of infertility.
c) Mobile type is a common cause of abortion.
d) Corrected by Fothergill operation.
All are complications of fibroids EXCEPT:
a) Anaemia.
b) Polycythemia.
c) Obstructed labour.
d) Endometrial carcinoma.
Fetal complications of triplets pregnancy may include the following EXCEPT:
a) Congenital anomalies.
b) Prematurity.
c) Intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR).
d) Postmaturity.
The following is essential for diagnosis of endometriosis:
a) Hysterosalpingogram.
b) Laparoscopy.
c) CA-125.
d) Ultrasonography.
Comparing endometrial carcinoma to cancer cervix:
a) Endometrial cancer incidence is less.
b) Average age of endometrial cancer is 10 years less.
c) Main line of treatment of endometrial cancer radiotherapy.
d) Prognosis of endometrial cancer is better.
Most common pathological type of cancer cervix is:
a) Adenocarcinoma.
b) Melanoma.
c) Squamous cell carcinoma.
d) Lymphoma.

In contrast to a malignant ovarian tumour, a benign tumour grossly show:

a) Free mobility.
b) Ruptured capsule.
c) Peritoneal implants.
d) Tumour implants on the surface.
All are complications of D&C EXCEPT:
a) Cervical incompetence.
b) Perforation of the uterus.
c) Asherman syndrome.
d) Ectopic pregnancy.
Laproscopy:
a) Is indicated in case of unexplained infertility.
b) Is done only in the immediate post menstrual period.
c) Can accurately diagnose adenomyosis.
d) Not accurate in diagnosis of endometriosis.
Midline incisions compared to lower incisions, all are true EXCEPT:
a) Exposure is less adequate.
b) Cosmotic result is worse.
c) Incisional hernia is more common.
d) Dehiscence of the scar is more likely.
Large asymptomatic fibroid of the supra-vaginal portion of the cervix is best treated by:
a) No treatment.
b) Abdominal hysterectomy.
c) Abdominal myomectomy.
d) Vaginal myomectomy.
Fibroids are:
a) The commonest pelvic tumours in females.
b) Accounting for 80% of all hysterectomies.
c) More common in white race.
d) Most common between women age 20-30 years.
Cystocele:
a) Contains bladder & urethra.
b) Leads to polyuria.
c) Inability to complete micturition is common.
d) Always associated with stress incontinence.
Body of the uterus is formed emberiogically from:
a) Upper 1/3 of the Mullerian ducts.
b) Sinovaginal bulb.
c) Middle fused parts of the Mullerian ducts.
d) Wollfian system.

In the early detection of cancer ovary, which the followings is of no value:

a) Vaginal ultrasonography.
b) Fractional curettage.
c) Tumour markers.
d) Oncogenes & oncoproteins.
In normal vaginal delivery the followings are correct except.
a) The head is delivered by a movement of extension.
b) The head rotates after expulsion 90 degrees.
c) Delivery of the posterior shoulder precedes the anterior one.
d) Episiotomy is not mandatory.
e) The first movement after delivery of the head is called external rotation.
A fundal level higher than calculated gestational age is possibly caused by.
a) Generalized edema.
b) Obesity.
c) Intrauterine growth retardation.
d) Breech presentation.
e) Associated ovarian cyst.
The following statements regarding complete hydatidiform moles are correct except:
a) Usually have female karyotype (90%).
b) Clinically evident hyperthyroidism may develop in 7% of cases.
c) In about 25 to 60% of cases the ovaries contain multiple theca-lutein cysts.
d) -feto-protein is a good marker of disease post-evacuation.
e) Due to absence of fetus, uterine size is always less than the expected period of gestation.
Treatment of hydatidiform mole by hysterectomy:
a) Is only indicated if patient is less than 40 years old.
b) Should include removal of the cystic ovaries.
c) Does not prevent metastasis.
d) Should be associated with prophylactic chemotherapy in all cases.
e) Is better than evacuation as no follow up is needed afterwards.
After treatment of hydatidiform mole:
a) Incidence of malignancy (persistent trophoblastic tumor) is 20%.
b) The average to achieve the first normal hCG is about 9 months.
c) Intrauterine device is the prime method suggested for contraception.
d) Pregnancy should be avoided for 5 years.
e) The prime follow up tool is repeat pelvic ultrasound in every visit.
Diagnosis of engagement of the head is achieved by:
a) Palpating the occiput at the level of pelvic inlet.
b) Palpating the occiput at the level of ischial spine.
c) Palpating the occiput at the level of pelvic outlet.
d) Only vaginal examination.
e) Best by vaginal ultrasound.

Complications of multiple pregnancy commonly include the followings except:

a) Abnormal presentation.
b) Hyper emesis gravidarum.
c) Preterm labor.
d) Feto-pelvic disproportion.
e) Postpartum hemorrhage.
Locked twins:
a) Is a common complication of twin pregnancy.
b) Usually occurs when the 1st twin is cephalic & the 2nd twin is breech.
c) Can only occur when both twins are in transverse lie.
d) Can only occur when the 1st twin is breech & the 2nd twin is cephalic.
e) Disimpaction under anesthesia is always successful.
In Occipito-posterior the followings are true, EXCEPT:
a) It is more common in android pelvis.
b) It is a mal-position rather than a mal-presentation.
c) Incidence is 25% early in labour.
d) Left position (LOP) is more common than right position (ROP).
e) The head after long rotation is delvered by extension as in normal labour.
Factors interfering with long anterior rotation in OP include one of the followings:
a) Good uterine contractions.
b) Early correction of deflexion.
c) Contracted pelvis.
d) Very wide pelvis.
e) Intact membranes.
Cervical dystocia may follow all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Fothergill's operation.
b) Repaeted shirodkar's or McDonald's cerclage.
c) Conization of the cervix.
d) Over cauterisation.
e) Previous IUD insertion.
As regards Vasa Previa:
a) It is common condition.
b) It occurs with circumvallate placenta.
c) It is the only cause of ante partum hemorrahge of fetal origin.
d) The fetal mortality is only 10%.
e) It can be treated in a conservative way.
Causes of acute abdomen with pregnancy include the followings EXCEPT:
a) Placenta abruption.
b) Complicated fibroid.
c) Ruptured tubal pregnancy.
d) Acute pyelonephritis.
e) Vasa previa.

The risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy include the followings EXCEPT:
a) History of pelvic inflammatory disease.
b) Previous ectopic pregnancy.
c) Use of combined oral contraceptives.
d) Assisted reproductive techniques.
e) Use of IUD as the method of contraception.
Ultrasound criteria of diagnosis of isthmic incompetence during pregnancy:
a) Should be looked for between 18 to 20 weeks of gestations.
b) Includes shortening of the cervical canal length to less than 3.5 cm.
c) Includes widening of the cervix & /or bulging of membranes through the dilated cervical
canal.
d) Is better achieved by trans-abdominal ultrasound probe.
e) None of the above.\
Indications of trial vaginal delivery following previous C.S. include one of the followings:
a) No tenderness over the C.S. scar.
b) When only previous C.S. were less than 3 times.
c) If previous C.S. was classical upper segment.
d) Previous myomectomy.
e) Previous puerperium with moderate complications.
Neurogenic shock in obstetrics may occur secondary to:
a) Concealed accidental hemorrahge.
b) Acute inversion of the uterus.
c) Early undisturbed tubal pregnancy.
d) Difficult internal version.
e) Repeat rough attempts at Crede's method.
Retained placenta:
a) Is a condition in which placenta fails to be expelled within 2 hours after delivery.
b) Is a condition in which the placenta fails to be separated from the uterus.
c) Its incidence is about 5% of all pregnancies.
d) Is a condition in which the placenta fails to be expelled within 30 minutes after delivery.
e) More common to happen when placenta is fundal posterior.
The followings are predisposing factors for rupture uterus at the site of previous scar EXCEPT:
a) Improper hemostasis during previous surgery.
b) Post operative infection.
c) Preterm start of labour.
d) Implantation of placenta over the scar.
e) Use of stimulants in a scarred uterus.
Induction of abortion in the 1st trimester:
a) Commonly achieved by using high dose of oxytocin infusion.
b) Commonly achieved by vacuum aspiration to evacuate the uterus.
c) Better achieved by abdominal hysterectomy.
d) Better achieved by abdominal hyterotomy.
e) Cannot be achieved except by surgical means.

The Bishop score:

a) Is an accepted method of recording dilatation of the cervix.
b) Is an accepted method of recording dilatation of the cervix & cervical length.
c) Is an accepted method of recording dilatation of the cervix & level of fetal head.
d) Is an accepted method of recording consistency of the cervix & cervical length.
e) Is an accepted method of recording cervical length, cervical dilatation, consistency of the
cervix & the level of fetal head.
Pelvic thrombophlebitis in the puerpurium commonly:
a) Occurs in the 1st week post delivery.
b) Occurs in the 2nd week post delivery.
c) Occurs in the 3rd week post delivery.
d) Occurs in the 4th week post delivery.
e) Occurs onlt after operative delivery.
The most common cause of pregnancy related hypofibrinogenaemia include one of the
followings:
a) Amniotic fluid embolism.
b) Acute fatty liver.
c) Retained dead fetus.
d) Sepsis.
e) Placental bruption.
In haemorrhagic shock:
a) Pulse is slow.
b) Patient is apathic & quiet.
c) Superficial veins are collapsed.
d) Respiration is slow & shallow.
e) There is always hemoconcentration.
The elderly primigravidas:
a) Applied to the primigravidas whose age is above 30 years.
b) Applied to pregnant woman with less than 2 pregnancies & above of 30 years.
c) Applied to primigravidas whose age above 35 years.
d) Applied to any pregnant women above the age of 40 years.
e) Applied to primigravidas whose age is above 45 years.
Complications of multifetal pregnancy include the followings EXCEPT:
a) Hyperemesis gravidarum.
b) Pressure symptoms.
c) Post partum haemorrhage.
d) Prolonged labour.
e) Abnormal presentations.
Indications of expectant management in placenta praevia include one of the followings:
a) Pregnancy more than 37 weeks.
b) Mild bleeding.
c) Fetus is distressed.
d) Presence of major gross fetal anomlies.
e) Placenta previa centralis.

Septic abortion could be attributed to the following organisms EXCEPT:

a) Hemolytic streptococci.
b) Staphylococci.
c) E-coli.
d) Clostridium welchii.
e) Herpes virus type one.
Etiology of post abortive bleeding could be attributed to the followings EXCEPT:
a) Uterine atony.
b) Cervical lacerations.
c) Retroversion of the uterus.
d) Retained products of conception.
e) Choriocarcinoma.
The commonest site for extra-uterine pregnancy is:
a) The cervix.
b) The ovary.
c) The corneal part of the tube.
d) The ampulla of the tube.
e) The omentum.
Advantages of vaginal hysterectomy include the followings EXCEPT:
a) Absence of abdominal scar.
b) Lower incidence of intestinal complications.
c) An associated genital prolapse can be treated at the same time.
d) Lower incidence of peritonitis.
e) It is safe & easier in the presence of pelvic adhesions.
Regarding the progesterone only pills, one of the followings is not correct:
a) A large proportion of women using it will ovulate.
b) Ideally it should be taken at a fixed time per day.
c) Contra-indicated in lactating women.
d) It affects mainly the cervical mucous.
e) Should be used continuously irrespective of the menstrual cycle.
Hyper prolactinaemia may clinically present by one or more of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Breast pain & tenderness.
b) Dysmenorrhea.
c) Menstrual disorders.
d) Infertility due to anovulation.
e) Galactorrhea.
In red degeneration of a myoma, all of the followings are correct EXCEPT:
a) It is due to thrombosis of blood vessels of the capsule.
b) Commonly occurs during pregnancy.
c) Is a state of incomplete necrosis from which the tumour is capable of recovery.
d) Management is essentially surgical.
e) Clinically the tumour becomes enlarged, tender with acute abdominal pain.

Alpha fetoprotein is used as a tumour marker for the detection of:

a) Cancer cervix.
b) Cancer vulva.
c) Serous cystadenocarcinoma.
d) Endodermal sinus tumour.
e) Endometrial carcinoma.
Causes of symmetrical enlargement of the uterus include all of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Localized adenomyosis.
b) Metropathia hemorrhagica.
c) Pyometra.
d) Submucous myoma.
e) Ectopic pregnancy in a rudimentary horn.
One of the following is not correct regarding endometrial hyperplasia:
a) Best diagnostic tool is endometrial biopsy.
b) Human papilloma virus has been discovered to be a possible etiology.
c) First line of treatment when no atypia is detected is synthetic gestagen.
d) May present clinically with abnormal uterine bleeding.
e) Is realted to unopposed hyperestrogenism.
Tumour markers are reliable for the diagnosis & follow up of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Choriocarcinoma.
b) Epithelial cancers of the ovary.
c) Dysgerminoma.
d) Endodermal sinus tumours.
e) Metastatic tumours of the ovary.
Luteal phase defect is associated with all of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Short cycles.
b) Hypo prolactinaemia.
c) Biphasic body temperature chart with short luteal phase.
d) Endometrial biopsy.
e) Low midluteal progesterone levels.
Gynecological causes of acute abdominal pain include all of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Disturbed ectopic pregnancy.
b) Acute salpingitis.
c) Rupture corpus luteum.
d) Metropathia hemorrhagica.
e) Red degeneration in a fibroid.
Regarding Asherman syndrome one of the following is not correct:
a) May follow delivery or abortion.
b) Galactorrhea is a characteristic symptom & sign.
c) Can lead to infertility.
d) Can lead to recurrent abortion.
e) Is diagnosed & treated by hysteroscopy.

Regarding uterine perforation during D&C one of the followings is not correct:
a) May occur with the use of sound, dilator or curette.
b) Is more liable to occur during evacuation of pregnant uterus.
c) Is more liable to occur in the presence of uterine malignancy.
d) May result in severe bleeding.
e) Always treated conservatively.
Complications of fibroid include the followings EXCEPT:
a) Infection.
b) Red degeneration.
c) Malignant transformation into carcinoma.
d) Rarely intra-peritoneal haemorrhage.
e) Recurrent abortions.
Regarding endometriosis one of the followings is not correct:
a) It is the presence of functioning glands without stroma outside the endometrial cavity.
b) Dysmenorrhea & dyspareunia are common presentations.
c) Some lesions may be visible by naked eye.
d) Pelvic examination may reveal no abnormality.
e) The definitive diagnosis is at laparoscopy.
Hysteroscopy is important for diagnosis of the following:
a) Intra-uterine adhesions.
b) Subserous fibroid.
c) Peri-tubal adhesions.
d) Polycystic ovarian disease.
e) Pelvic endometriosis.
Follicular cysts of the ovary characterized by the followings EXCEPT:
a) The commonest functional cysts of the ovary.
b) Spontaneous regression is the fate of such cysts.
c) Cysts are usually bilateral, multiple & multilocular.
d) Are commonly encountered with metropathia haemorrhagica.
e) Are usually asymptomatic.
The following surgical treatment of amenorrhea is correct EXCEPT:
a) Cruciate incision for imperforate hymen.
b) Excision of transverse septum in cases of cryptomenorrhea.
c) Reconstruction of a functional neo vagina in cases vaginal agenesis.
d) Reconstruction of a functional neo vagina in cases with testicular feminization syndrome
before marriage.
e) Gonadectomy in patients with Y containing gonads.
Pituitary insufficiency causing 2ry amenorrhea can be managed by:
a) Intra-muscular gonadotropin therapy (HMG/hCG) for induction of ovulation as a primary
treatment to regain normal menstrual cycle.
b) Cyclic combined replacement therapy (HRT) to establish regular menstrual cycle.
c) IM gonadotropin therapy (HMG/hCG) only in cases proved to be fertile.
d) Corticosteriods therapy in an interrupted pattern.
e) Only progesterone therapy for 2 weeks every month.

The most common cause of 2ry amenorrhea is:

a) Menopause.
b) Pregnancy.
c) Prolonged lactation.
d) Ovarian failure.
e) Sheehan's syndrome.
2ry amenorrhea is cessation of menstruation:
a) More than 3 months.
b) More than 6 months.
c) More than 9 months.
d) More than one year.
e) More than 2 years.
Anterior pituitary disorders causing amenorrhea include the followings EXCEPT:
a) Pituitary micro-adenoma.
b) Pituitary insufficiency.
c) Empty sella syndrome.
d) Emotional stress & psychological disturbances.
e) Prolactinomas.
In luteal phase vaginal cytology, the followings are detected EXCEPT:
a) Intermediate cells with rolled edges.
b) Many lymphocytes.
c) Maturation index 0-70-30.
d) Matuartion index 0-30-70.
e) Basophilic cytoplasm.
Normal pubertal changes start by the age of:
a) 7-8 years.
b) 8-9 years.
c) 10-11 years.
d) 11-12 years.
e) 6-7 years.
Menopause is:
a) A partial cessation of menses between the age of 48-52 years.
b) Retrospectively defined when cessation of menses continues for one year after last
menstrual period.
c) The few years that precedes cessation of menstruation.
d) Due to decreased levels of FSH to levels that cannot stimulate further ovulation.
e) Due to block of the feedback between ovarian hormones & pituitary hormones.
A mass protruding from the cervix can be any of the followings EXCEPT:
a) A cervical polyp.
b) An inverted fallopian tube.
c) Endometrial polyp.
d) Products of conception.
e) An inverted uterus.

Indications of hysteroscopy include all of the followings EXCEPT:

a) Removal of missed IUD.
b) Habitual abortions.
c) Resection of submucous myoma.
d) Diagnosis of para-ovarian cyst.
e) Irregular uterine bleeding.
The 1st step to locate a missing string IUD is:
a) To sound the uterus.
b) Abdominal/pelvic X-ray.
c) MRI.
d) Hysteroscopy.
e) Laparoscopy.
Which disorder is an example of hypothalamic amenorrhea?
a) Sheehan's syndrome
b) Cushing's syndrome.
c) Resistant ovary syndrome.
d) Asherman's syndrome.
e) Kallmann's syndrome.
The most common benign condition causing postmenopausal bleeding is:
a) Atrophic vaginitis.
b) Cervical polyps.
c) Myomas.
d) Endometrial hyperplasia.
e) Cervical erosion.
In anorexia nervosa the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
a) Patients may have bulimia (induced vomiting).
b) Is an excessive weight gain with primary amenorrhea.
c) Is an excessive weight loss with secondary amenorrhea.
d) It may affects 1% of young women.
e) Needs reassurance & psychological support.
Obesity may be associated with:
a) Polycystic ovarian disease.
b) Use of hormone releasing IUD.
c) Spasmodic dysmenorrhea.
d) An increased risk of cervical cancer.
e) Uterine fibromyoma.
Anovulatory menstrual cycles are characterised by the followings EXCEPT:
a) Being irregular with periods of oligomenorrhea.
b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
c) Association with menstrual pain.
d) Monophasic BBT.
e) May be association with hirsutism.

Classical repair is composed of:

a) Anterior colporrhaphy.
b) Anterior colporrhaphy & shortening of Machenrodts ligaments.
c) Anterior colporrhaphy & posterior colpoperineorrhaphy.
d) Anterior colporrhaphy & amputation of the cervix.
e) Anterior colporrhaphy & posterior colpoperineorrhaphy with amputation of cervix.
The primary management of postmenopausal bleeding is:
a) Hysterectomy.
b) Cervical cone biopsy.
c) Endometrial biopsy.
d) Laparoscopy.
e) Hysteroscopy.
Predisposing factors for vaginal infections are the followings EXCEPT:
a) Acidic vagina.
b) Routine vaginal douching.
c) Treatment with broad spectrum antibiotics.
d) Decreased estrogen as in menopause.
e) Suppression of immune system.
Causes of recurrent abortion in early pregnancy include all the following EXCEPT:
a) Progesterone insufficiency.
b) Rh incompatibility.
c) Chromosomal anomalies of the fertilized ovum.
d) Submucous fibroid.
e) Anti-phospholipid antibodies.
Diagnosis of concealed accidental haemorrhage:
a) The main presenting symptom is vaginal bleeding.
b) Blood pressure is always low due to haemorrhage.
c) The fundal level is lower than the corresponding gestational age.
d) Oliguria or anuria are commonly met.
e) The uterus is hypotonic.
Manchester repair for genital prolapse includes the followings except:
a. Anterior colporrhaphy.
b. Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy.
c. Kelley's suture.
d. Shortening of the transverse cervical ligaments.
e. D & C.
Which of the following is not correct about theca lutein cysts?
a. They arise more frequently in patients with complete moles.
b. They should be removed surgically if hysterotomy is indicated for evacuating mole.
c. These cysts may result in acute abdomen.
d. Cysts are filled with serious fluid.
e. Cysts are filled with serosanguinous fluid.

Interstitial uterine myomas most often cause menorrhagia due to:

a. Secondary degeneration.
b. Rupture into endometrial cavity.
c. Pressure necrosis.
d. Inhibition of uterine contractility.
e. Prolapse.
The most common symptom associated with adenomyosis is:
a. Infertility
b. Menorrhagia.
c. Haematometra
d. Dyspareunia.
e. Metrorrhagia.
Clinical findings of PCOD include the followings except:
a. Obesity
b. Oligomenorrhoea.
c. Amenorrhoea.
d. Infertility
e. Tall stature.
Chronic vulvovaginitis frequently caused by:
a. Trichomonas
b. Gonococcus.
c. Herpes simplex virus.
d. Candida albicans.
e. H. vaginalis.
Clomiphene therapy is most specific for the induction of the ovulation in patients with:
a. Sheehan's syndrome.
b. Turner's syndrome.
c. Kallmann's syndrome.
d. Hypothalamic hypogonadorophism.
e. Simmond's disease.
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is most often caused by:
a. Tumours.
b. Endocrine disorders.
c. Inflammation.
d. Pregnancy.
e. Adrenal cortex.
Vaginal bleeding at the time of ovulation is thought to be due to:
a. Increase in progesterone.
b. Decrease in oestrogen.
c. Follicular haemorrahge.
d. Implantation.
e. Passage of ovum.

Failure of withdrawal bleeding following oestrogen to an amenorrheic woman indicates:

a. Uterine factor.
b. Ovarian factor.
c. Pituitary factor.
d. Hypothalamic lesion.
e. Ovarian tumour.
The commonest cause of death in cancer cervix is:
a. Infection.
b. Uraemia.
c. Haemorrhage.
d. Cachexia.
e. Distant metastases.
Risk factors of endometrial hyperplasia include the followings except:
a. Nulliparity.
b. Obesity.
c. Anovulation.
d. Estrogen secreting ovarian tumors.
e. Use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
Subnuclear vacuoles in the endometrial mucosa are evidence of activity of:
a. Cholesterol.
b. Progesterone.
c. Pregnendiol.
d. Androstenedione.
e. Oestrogen.
Turner's syndrome (Karyotype 45-X0) is associated with the followings except:
a. Abnormal breast development.
b. Infantile lymphedaema.
c. Increased incidence of bone fractures.
d. Coarctation of the aorta.
e. Secondary amenorrhoea.
A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with infrequent periods. A
hormone profile is done and all of the followings are consistent with polycystic ovarian
syndrome, apart from:
a. Increased androgen levels.
b. Normal FSH.
c. Elevated oestrone.
d. Decreased LH.
e. Low progesterone levels.
Regarding the menstrual cycle, which is true statement?
a. Menstruation occurs with vasodilatation of the spiral arteries.
b. The LH surge triggers menstruation.
c. The Graafian follicle develops during the luteal phase.
d. Both the follicle and the corpus luteum secrete oestradiol.
e. Progesterone levels fall after the onset of menstruation.

Disadvantages of myomectomy include the followings except:

a. Intra operative bleeding.
b. Persistent menorrhagia.
c. Early menopause.
d. Pelvic adhesions.
e. Rupture of the scar in subsequent pregnancy.
All of the following factors in this patient's history are risk factors for cervical dysplasia except:
a. Young age at initiation of sexual activity.
b. Multiple sexual partners.
c. Previous history of Chlamydia.
d. Use of Depo-Provera.
e. Smoking.
Which of the followings is not an absolute contraindication for combined pills?
a. Thrombophlebitis.
b. History of DVT.
c. Coronary heart disease.
d. Strokes.
e. History of liver disease.
Non contraceptive benefits of combined COCs include the followings except:
a. Treatment of DUB.
b. Postponing next menstruation.
c. Less risk for PID.
d. Less risk for functional cysts of the ovary.
e. Less risk for cervical carcinoma.
Normal labor includes the following:
a. Delivery of a 39 weeks baby.
b. Delivery by mid forceps.
c. Breech delivery.
d. Twin pregnancy delivered vaginally.
e. Delivery of a stillborn foetus.
One of the following is not correct regarding Occipito-posterior position:
a. is common in high assimilation pelvis.
b. Occipito-frontal is the presenting diameter.
c. Accounts for 10-20% of vertex presentations in late pregnancy and early labour.
d. A certain degree of deflexion is present.
e. About 30% rotate to direct occipito- position as labour progresses.
During antenatal care the use of which vaccine is absolutely contraindicated?
a. Hepatitis B.
b. Cholera.
c. Yellow fever.
d. Rabies.
e. Influenza.

Secondary sites of infection in puerperal sepsis include the followings except:

a. Peritonitis.
b. Infected lacerations.
c. Pelvic cellulites.
d. Salpingo- Oophoritis.
e. Pelvic thrombophlebitis.
Foetal death is defined as the death of:
a. A foetus in utero weighing 1000 grams or less.
b. A non viable foetus before and after death.
c. An infant weighing 2500 grams or less
d. Any conceptus before birth.
e. A foetus in utero weighing 500 gram or more.
Separation of the placenta occurs in:
a. Spongiosa layer of decidua vera.
b. Compacta layer of decidua basalis.
c. Spongiosa layer of decidua basalis.
d. Compacta layer of decidua capsularis.
e. Muscularis layer of placental site.
Which of the followings is not a symptom or sign of impending eclampsia?
a. Headaches.
b. Epigastric pain.
c. Blurring of vision.
d. Hyper reflexia.
e. Marked oedema of the lower limbs.
Which of the followings is a complication of pre-eclampsia?
a. Foetal macrosomia.
b. Pulmonary oedema.
c. Prelabour preterm rupture of membranes.
d. Polyhydramnios.
e. Foetal malposition.
In the fetal skull:
a. The biparietal diameter is approximately 10.5 cm at the term.
b. The lambdoidal suture runs between the frontal and parietal bones.
c. The bregma is the area lying between the parietal and occipital bones.
d. The sub-occipito frontal is the engaging diameter when the head is fully flexed in a
vertex presentation.
e. The occiput is the denominator in a vertex presentation.
A 16 yr old primigravida at term, not in labour, has a sudden onset of continuous lower
abdominal pain, rapid pulse, no fetal heart tones, low BP and a tender uterus. The most
likely diagnosis is?
a. Abruptio placentae.
b. Placenta praevia.
c. Amniotic fluid embolism.
d. Perforation of the uterus by hydatidiform mole.
e. Supine hypotensive syndrome.

One of the followings is not an indication of cesarean section in multifoetal pregnancy:

a. Non vertex presentation of the first twin.
b. Vertex presentation of the first twin.
c. Triplets or more fetuses.
d. Monoamniotic twins.
e. Elderly primigravida.
Regarding hydatidiform moles.
a. In complete moles, all nuclear genes are inherited from the mother.
b. The incidence in Asia is the highest in the world.
c. Most partial moles are haploid.
d. In 20% of cases hydatidiform moles develop into choriocarcinoma.
e. Pregnancy should be avoided for at least 24 months.
Which of the followings is not a cause of recurrent miscarriage?
a. Parental chromosomal abnormality.
b. Activated protein C-resistance.
c. Uncontrolled hypothyroidism.
d. Chlamydia infection.
e. Submucosal fibroids.
Risk factors for placenta accreta include the followings except:
a. Prior cesarean section.
b. Placenta praevia.
c. Circumvallated placenta.
d. Asherman's syndrome.
e. Submucous leiomyomata.
Locked twins.
a. Is a common complication of twins pregnancy?
b. Usually occurs when the first twin is cephalic and the second twin is breech.
c. Usually occurs when both twins are in transverse lie.
d. Can only occur when the first twin is breech and the second twin is cephalic.
e. Dis-Impaction under anesthesia is always successful.
As regards vasa praevia.
a. It is a common condition.
b. It occurs with circumvallate placenta.
d. It is the only causes of ante partum hemorrhage of fetal origin.
c. The fetal mortality is only 10%.
e. It can be treated in a conservative way.
Warning symptoms that are given to a pregnant lady include the followings except:
a. Bleeding per vagina.
b. Excessive salivation (ptyalism).
c. Sudden loss of fluid per vagina.
d. Abdominal pain.
e. Leg cramps.

During follow up after evacuating molar pregnancy the best contraceptive is:
a. Combined oral contraceptive pills.
b. Progesterone only pills.
c. Progestin I.M.
d. Subdermal implants.
e. Intraauterine contraceptive device.
Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is characterized by the followings except:
a. Being a glycoprotein hormone.
b. Maintains early pregnancy.
c. Produced by the syncytio-trophoblasts.
d. The a-subunit is specific.
e. Intrauterine contraceptive device.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding magnesium sulfate used for cases of
pregnancy induced hypertension?
a. It is given to cases of imminent eclampsia
b. The aim is reduction of blood pressure.
c. Acts as CNS depressant.
d. Toxicity should be checked before giving the next does.
e. Should be continued for about 24 hours after delivery.
In diagnosis of pregnancy, all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
a) Frequency of micturition starts early in pregnancy.
b) Breast changes are all reversible by the end of pregnancy.
c) Nausea and vomiting start 4-6 weeks after the missed period.
d) Beta hCG can be detected in the blood 1 week before the missed period.
e) Beta hCG can be detected in urine few days after the missed period.
Pigmentation of the skin of cheeks and a part of the nose during pregnancy is called:
a) Striae gravidarum.
b) Linea nigra.
c) Chloasma.
d) Melasma.
e) None of the above.
During the return visits of antenatal care, all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
a) The patient is asked about any complaints.
b) The patient is asked about warning symptoms.
c) The fundal level should be measured and recorded at each visit after 12 weeks.
d) Blood pressure should be measured and recorded every visit.
e) Ultrasonography should be done every other visit.
During pregnancy, diet alone does NOT provide the requirements of:
a) Iron.
b) Calcium.
c) Magnesium.
d) Vitamin c.
e) Folic acid.

The recommended daily dose of folic acid during the preconceptional period and early
pregnancy is:
a) 10 g
b) 40 g
c) 100 g
d) 400 g
e) 1000 g
The major cause of first trimester abortion is:
a) Maternal trauma.
b) Progesterone insufficiency.
c) Maternal infection by toxoplasmosis.
d) Exposure to teratogens.
e) Chromosomal anomalies of the fertilized ovum.
Differential diagnosis of tubal ectopic pregnancy includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Abortion.
b) Acute salpingitis.
c) Hemorrhage in a corpus luteum cyst.
d) Cystitis.
e) Other causes of ante partum hemorrhage.
Regarding management of placenta previa, all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
a) Cases presenting with severe bleeding require immediate CS.
b) Active management is indicated after 37 weeks.
c) Cases presenting with persistent moderate bleeding require active management.
d) Oxytocin may be given before amniotomy to avoid inertia.
e) Amniotomy helps to control bleeding.
Criteria of severity of preeclampsia include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Systolic blood pressure more than 160 mmHg.
b) Diastolic blood pressure more than 110 mmHg.
c) Heavy proteinuria of more than 5 mg %.
d) Thrombocytopenia.
e) Visual symptoms.
In preeclampsia, the blood volume:
a) Increases.
b) Remains the same.
c) Decreases.
d) Varies markedly.
e) Initially decreases then increases.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to increased perinatal morbidity and
mortality in pregnancies complicated by diabetes.
a) Birth injuries.
b) Neonatal hyperglycemia.
c) Respiratory distress syndrome.
d) Neonatal hypocalcaemia.
e) Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia.

A woman is classified as a nulligravida if she has:

a) Never been pregnant.
b) Had one abortion.
c) Had one pregnancy.
d) Never delivered a full term baby.
e) Never delivered a live-born baby.
Regarding engagement of the presenting part, all the following is true EXCEPT:
a) Is passage of widest transverse diameter of the presenting part through the plane of the inlet.
b) Always takes place during the second stage of labor.
c) Is commonly delayed with malpresentations.
d) Commonly occurs early with frank breech.
e) Can be assessed by PV.
The station at which the lowermost part of presenting part lies at the level of the ischial
spines is defined as:
a) -2.
b) -1 .
c) 0 .
d) +1 .
e) +2 .
Factors favoring long anterior rotation in case of occipito posterior include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Well flexed head.
b) Wide pelvic cavity.
c) Strong uterine contractions.
d) Rotation by forceps.
e) Elastic pelvic floor muscles.
With multifetal pregnancy, there is a higher incidence of all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Precipitate labor.
b) Preeclampsia.
c) Malpresentations.
d) Postpartum hemorrhage.
e) Polyhydramnios
A 23 years old patient, 4th G, p2, presents with mild vaginal bleeding and suprapubic
colics following a period of 2 months amenorrhea. She has no fever. PV examination
reveals a closed cervix. Pregnancy test is positive. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Threatened abortion.
b) Inevitable abortion.
c) Missed abortion.
d) Septic abortion.
e) Isthmic incompetence.
Polycystic ovarian disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Elevated LH level.
b) Elevated testosterone levels.
c) Oligohypomenorrhea or amenorrhea.
d) Dyspareunia.
e) Insulin resistance & hyperinsulinemia.

Clomiphene citrate:
a) Is a non steroidal agent.
b) Regarding benefits versus risks, its empirical use is justified.
c) Increases prolactin level.
d) Serious side effects are commonly encountered.
e) May be used to treat ovarian cysts.
Human menopausal gonadotropins (HMG):
a) Are extracted from blood of menopausal females.
b) Is the drug of choice for induction of ovulation in patients with PCO.
c) Unlike purified FSH, its administration does not require monitoring by serial
ultrasonography.
d) May result in ovarian hyperstimulation.
e) Human chorionic gonadotropin is usually given before HMG to induce follicular rupture.
Endometrial hyperplasia is associated with:
a) Dermoid cyst.
b) Dysgerminoma.
c) Polycystic ovarian disease.
d) Sertoli cell tumor.
e) Corpus luteum cyst.
Which of the following is a functional ovarian cyst:
a) Follicular cyst.
b) Endometriotic cyst.
c) Dermoid cyst.
d) Bartholin, s cyst.
e) Struma ovarii.

Primary dysmenorrhea is characterized by:

a) Symptoms are related to release of prostaglandins.
b) Is more common in multiparous women.
c) Symptoms start 2 days before the onset of menses.
d) Onset occurs with menarche.
e) Bilateral lower abdominal colicky pain.
Contact bleeding is not characterized by one of the following:
a) May occur with fibroid polyp extruding through the cervix.
b) May occur with cervical erosion.
c) May occur with cervical carcinoma.
d) is usually associated with pelvic pain.
e) Usually requires a cervical smear.
Causes of primary amenorrhea include:
a) Pregnancy.
b) Menopause.
c) Asherman syndrome.
d) Transverse vaginal septum.
e) Premature ovarian failure.

One is NOT correct regarding calcification in a fibroid:

a) Is more common after menopause.
b) Starts at the periphery of the tumor.
c) Is premalignant.
d) Appears in X-ray as well as ultrasonography.
e) Due to deposition of calcium phosphate and carbonate
Regarding dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)
a) It is a diagnosis of exclusion.
b) Menorrhagia is only is the cause in only 10% of cases.
c) May be diagnosed at early pregnancy.
d) Always caused by hidden pathology.
e) Treated best by hysterectomy.
The commonest secondary change in uterine fibroids is:
a) Sarcomatous change.
b) Myxomatous degeneration.
c) Necrobiosis.
d) Hyaline degeneration.
e) Calcification.
In Human papillomavirus infection of the cervix (HPV) chose the most appropriate
statement:
a) Mostly asymptomatic.
b) Subtypes 6 and 11 are associated with CIN and cervical neoplasia.
c) Subtypes 16 and 18 are associated with genital warts (condylomata acuminate).
d) Is an RNA virus.
e) Routine vaccination against it is not yet recommended.
The functions of mid-cycle LH surge include the following EXCEPT:
a) Enhances thecal cell androgen production.
b) Luteinizes granulose cells.
c) Produces luteolysis.
d) Initiates resumption of meiosis.
e) Facilitates oocyte expulsion.
Regarding cervical polyps all the following are correct EXCEPT one:
a) May cause post coital bleeding.
b) The most common type is mucous polyps.
c) Usually they arise from the cervical canal.
d) They are usually pre cancerous.
e) Cervical polyps should be subjected to histopathological examination.
A classical C.S.
a) Should be considered in cases of breech fetus
b) Is performed when large fibroids occupying the upper segments of the uterus
c) Is performed through a transverse incision in the upper segment of the uterus
d) Is performed in most cases of placenta pravia
e) Scar is liable to rupture after 30 weeks gestation

All the following are causes of bilateral LL edema during prenancy except:
a-Twins
b-Renal failure
c-Preeclampsia
d-Deep venous thrombosis
e-Allergic reaction
Regarding Emergency Contraception the following is correct except:
a) It means protecting women from unwanted pregnancy following unprotected sexual
intercourse or contraceptive failure.
b) Can be achieved by oral intake of any contraceptive pills in high does for five days after
intercourse.
c) Can be achieved by oral intake of a single does of 1.5 mg Levonorgetrel pill.
d) Can be achieved by inserting copper intra uterine device within 120 hours following
intercourse.
e) Oral intake of a contraceptive method, as an emergency, does not provide contraceptive
cover for the remainder of the cycle.
One of the following pelvis is characterized by absence of single alum of the sacrum:
a- Roberts pelvis
b-Naegles pelvis
c-Rachitic pelvis
d-Osteomalatic pelvis
e-Flat pelvis
The last menstrual period was June 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately:
a- March 23.
b- April 7.
c- March 28.
d- April 23.
e- March 7.
The greatest diameter of the fetal head is:

a- Occipitofrontal.
b- Occipitomental.
c- Suboccipit bregmatic.
d- Bitemporal.
e. Biparietal.
Moulding of the fetal head:
a- Usually causes brain damage.
b- Becomes progressively easier as gestational age increases.
c- Increases the difficulty of delivery.
d- Does not have time to occur in breech delivery.
e- Does not happen when maternal pelvis is inadequate.

Regarding fetal head , choose the correct answer :

a- Can be delivered vaginally in persistent mentoposterior.
b- Will show spalding's sign within 12 hours of intrauterine death.
c- Can be delivered vaginally in persistent brow presentation.
d- Is likely to be a vertex presentation when the head is deflexed.
e- Considered to be engaged when the biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet.
Hyperextention of the fetal head is found in :
a- Vertex presentation.

b- Face presentation.
c- Shoulder presentation.
d-Breach presentation.
e- Hydrocephalic baby.
In the fetus :
a- The coronal suture lies between the two parietal bones.
b- The umbilcal artery normally contains one artery and two veins.
c- Fetal lie describes the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother.
d- Entanglement of the umbilical cord is common in diamniotic twins.
e- The anterior fontanelle is usualy closed by the time of labor.
Which of the following terms best describes the pelivc type of small posterior sagittal
diameter convergent side walls, prominent ischial spines and narrow pubic arch?
a- Android.
b- Gynaecoid .
c- Anthropoid .
d- Platypelloid.
e- Mixed.
Which of the following is not an indication for peripartum hysterectonry?
a- Uterine rupture.

b- Laceration of major uterine vessele.

c- Irreducible uterine inversion.
d- All cases with placental abruption
e- Sevre cervical dysplasia.
A head of level (one fifth) as felt abdominally:
a- Indicates that one fifth of the head is below the pelvic brim.
b- Indicates that the head is engaged.
c- Indicates that forceps may not be used.
d- Indicates that head is at the level of the ischial spines.
e- Always occurs in a term brow prescentation.

Methods of determining fetal presentation &postion include:

a- Cullen's sign.
b- Leopold's maneuver.
c- Mauriceau Smelile-Veit'maneuver.
d- Carful history taking.
e- None of the above.

A transverse lie of the fetus is least likely in the presence of :

a- Placenta previa.
b- Pelvic contraction.
c- Grand multiparty.
d- Normal term fetus.

A primpara is in labor and an episiotomy will be cut, compared with a midline

episiotomy, an advantage of medio-lateral episiotomy is :
a- Ease of repair.
b- Fewer break downs.
c- Less extension of the incision.
d- Lower blood of the incision.
e- Less dyspareunia.

A patient sustained laceration of the perineum during delivery, it involved the muscles of
perincal body but not the anal sphineter. Such a laceration would be classified as:
a- First degree.
b- Second degree.
c- Third degree.
d- Forth degree.
e- Fifth degree.

Repetitive late decelerations most commonly indicate:

a- Fetal academia.
b- Fetal hypoxia.
c- Fetal sleep state.
d- Fetal efforts of maternal sedation.
e- Rapid cervical dilatation.

The Bishop score is used to predict:

a- The state of the fetus at the time of delivery.
b- The success rate of the induction of the labor.
c- The fetal condition in the uterus.
d- The maternal well being in labor.
e- The maternal well being postpartum.

Which of the followings is not a presumptive symptom/sign of pregnancy?

a- Cessation of menstruation.
b- Nausea & vomiting.
c- Breast changes.
d- Quickening.
e- Darking of the skin on the palms of the hands.

Components of biophysical profile include all of the followings except:

a- Fetal movement.
b- Placenta thickness.
c- Fetal tone.
d- Fetal breathing movement.
e- Amniotic fluid volume assessment.

APGAR's score includes all the followings except :

a- Skin color.
b- Muscle tone.
c- Blood PH.
d- Heart rate.
e- Respirations.

Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include :
a- Corticosteroid.
b- Antibiotics.
c- Sodium bicarbonate.
d- Clearing of the airway.
e- Giving O2 under positive pressure.

The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is :

a- Cord entrapment.
b- Cord prolapse.
c- Twin transfusion syndrome.
d- Lethal congenital anomalies.
e- Placenta abruption.

In Turner's syndrome:
a- A chromosomal structure of 45 XY is characteristic.
b- Secondary amenorrhea is usual.
c- Ovaries are streak.
d- The ovaries are multicystic.
e- Phenotypically are male.

Which type of myoma should be removed in infertile women to increase their pregnancy
rates?
a- Intramural.
b- Subserosal.
c- Submucosal.
d- Broad ligamental.
e- Parasitic.

Ovarian dysgenesis is associated with the elevation of which of the following hormones ?
a- Pituilary Gonadtropins.
b- Estradiol.
c- Estriol.
d- Pregnandiol.
e- Progesterone.

Anomalies of the uterus can be associated with the followings except :

a- Urinary tract abnormalities.
b- Recurrent pregnancies loss.
c- Preterm labor.
d- Malpresentations.
e- Polycystic ovary.

A sample of cervical mucus is taken on day 12 of the menstrual cycle. The mucus is thin,
clear, & stretchy . It is placed on a slide and allowed to air dry . when placed under
microscopic, What would you expect:
a- Calcium citrate.
b- Clear fields, devoid of bacteria
c- Thick mucus with background bacteria.
d- A fern pattern characteristic of estrogen.
e- Clearly defined para- basal cells.

Which of the followings is the best method to predict the occurrence of ovulation?
a- Thermogenic shift in basal body temperature.
b- LH surge.
c- Endometrial decidulaization.
d- Profuse, thin, acellular cervical mucous.
e- Mittelschmerz.

Luteal phase deficiency:

a- Has inadequate luteal progesterone production.
b- Has inadequate follicular estrogen production.
c- Can be corrected by estrogen.
d- Associated with delayed menstruation.
e- Can lead to hypoprolactinaemia.

On examination of endonretrial obrained from a biopsy reveals simple colummar

epithelium with no sub nuclear vacuoles. the stroma is edematous & tortuous glands
contain secretions,these findings are consistent which stage of menstrual cycle?
a- Mid-proliferative.
b- Late proliferative.
c- Early secretory.
d- Mid- secretory.
e- Non- ovulatory cycle.

Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions except:
a- Postmenopausal women.
b- Turner's syndrome.
c- Women on Combined Oral Contraceptive pills.
d- Gonadal dysgenesis.
e- Peri-menopausal women who had hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo- oophorectomy.

Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect:

a- Vaginal dryness.
b- Early abortion.
c- Tubal occlusion.
d- Breast tenderness.
e- Ovarian enlargement.

The most frequent cause of acute pelvic inflammatory disease is :

a- Staphylococcus.
b- Tubercular bacilli.
c- Gonococcus.
d- Streptococcus.
e- Diphtheroid.

Presence of pyometra in post menopausal females strongly suggests:

a- Diabetes mellitus.
b- Degenerating myoma.
c- Senile endometritis.
d- Malignancy.
e- Sexual promiscuity.

The primary drainage of the lower vagina is to :

a- External iliac nodes.
b- Sacral nodes.
c- Femoral nodes.
d- Superficial inguinal nodes.
e- Internal iliac nodes.

Which of the following pubertal change appears first ?

a- Filling out of breasts.
b- Menstruation.
c- Axillary hair.
d- Public hair.
e- Decreasing rate of growth.

The main cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding is :

a- Uterine myornas.
b- Cervical polyps.
c- Endometritis.
d- Persistent corpus luteum.
e- Endometrial hyperplasia.

The Wollfian duct in the female:

a- Develops into the fallopion tubes.
b- Forms the ovary.
c-- Forms the round ligament.
d-Retrogresses and becomes vestigial.
e- Non of the above.

The test which involves postcoital study of cervical mucus near the time of ovulation is ?
a- Rubin test.
b- Novak test.
c- Bonney test.
d- Sims-Huhner test.
e- Marshall- Marchetti test.

WHO parameters of a normal semen analysis include the followings except :

a- Volume: >2 ml .
b- Count : > 20 million / ml.
c- Motility: > 30 % with forward progression.
d- Morphology: > 30 % normal form.
e. WBC: < 1 million / mL.

The first step to locate a missing-string IUD is :

a- To sound the uterus.
b- Abdominal/ pelvic X-ray.
c- Hysteroscopy.
d- Request B-hCG assay.
e- Laparoscopy.
The most common benign condition causing postmenopausal bleeding is:
a- Atrophic vaginitis.
b- Cervical polyps.
c- Myomas.
d- Endometrial hyperplasia.
e- Cervical ectopy.
The followings are causes off antepartum hemorrhage except:
a. Abruptio placenta.
b. Placenta praevia.
c. Cervical polyp.
d. Vasa praevia.
e. Rh isoimmunization.
The most definitive treatment for preeclampsia is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

IV magnesium sulphate.
Diazepam.
Delivery.
IV hydralazine.
IV labetalol.

Complete breech means:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Flexion at hip joint and extension in knee joint.

Flexion at hip joint and flexion at knee joint.
Extension at the hip joint.
Flexion at knee joint and extension at the hip joint.
Flexion of one leg at hip joint and extension of the other leg at the hip joint.

Which of the followings is not correct regarding true labour pains?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Involuntary.
Rhythmic.
Relieved by sedatives.
They gradually increase in frequency by time.
Associated with progressive dilatation of the cervix.

Gestational diabetes is associated with an increased risk of all the following, except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Cesarean section.
Shoulder dystocia.
Foetal macrosomia.
Intrauterine foetal death.
Intrauterine growth restriction.

The most common reason for postdate pregnancy is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Inaccurate gestational age.

Foetal anencephaly.
Oligohydramnios.
IUGR.
Advanced maternal age.

All the following conditions result in polyhydroamnios except:

a. Duodenal atresia.
b. Spina bifida.
c. Renal agenesis.
d. Anencephaly.
e. Fetal hydrops.
The patient is 8 weeks pregnant, which one off the following U/S measurements as most useful:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Biparietal diameter.
Femur length.
Placental site.
Crown Rump length.
Abdominal circumference.

The genetic makeup of complete hydatidiform mole typically is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

46, XX paternal only.

46, XX maternal only.
46, XY paternal only.
46 XX, maternal and paternal.
Triploidy.

Which of the followings is correct regarding tine first stage of lalour:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Ends with full dilatation of cervix.

Results in separation of placenta.
Is more than 24 hours in primigravidas?
Ergotamine could be used to accelerate labour.
Rate of cervical dilatation exceeds 4 cm/hour in a primigravida.

The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy Except;

a. Backache due to increased lumbar lordosis.

b. Lower abdominal pain due to stretch of round ligaments
c. Visual disturbances,
d. Calf pain .due to muscle spasm.
e. Increased vaginal discharge.
The followings are normal change in pregnancy Except:

a. Increase plasma volume.

b. Decrease RBC'S mass.
c. Increase stroke volume.
d. Increase cardiac output.
e. Increase in heart rate.
Regarding early deceleration which of the followings is correct?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Are associated with unengaged head.

Are associated usually with brain hypoxia.
They represent decrease in the foetal heart beats that peaks after uterine contraction.
An indication of cesarean-section.
Results from head compression.

Physiological changes in reproductive system during pregnancy include the following:

a. Alkaline vagina PH.

b. The uterus first enlarges by hyperplasia and then hypertrophy.
c. The cervix becomes firm.
d. Dry vagina.
e. Lower segment of the uterus starts to be formed in the third trimester.
Contraindications for induction of labour include:

a. Classical cesarean-section
b. Chorioamnionitis.
c. Post date.
d. Severe PET at 36 weeks.
e. GDM.
All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, Except:

a. HCG.
b. HPL.
c. Prolactin.
d. Progesterone.
e. Estriol.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding missed abortion?

a Patient may present with loss of the symptoms of pregnancy.

b. Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptoms.
c. Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made.
d. Disseminated intra-vascular coagulation may occur as sequelae.
e. Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis.

Which of the followings is not an indication of CS in breech presentation?

a. Foetal weight >3.5 kg.

b. Foetal weight < 2.5 kg.
c. Footling presentation.
d. Twins where the second foetus is breech.
e. Hyperextension of the foetal head.

Which of the followings is correct regarding secondary postpartum hemorrhage?

a. Is diagnosed only when bleeding occurs 72 hours after delivery.

b. Contra indicates breast feeding.
c. The commonest cause is the cervical tears.
d. Very common when the patient delivers a congenitally abnormal baby.
e. Retained placental tissue could be a cause.
Regarding obstructed labour; which of the followings is true?

a. Diagnosed only when cervix is fully dilated.

b. Usually predicted before onset of labor.
c. More common in developed countries.
d. Mento -posterior position could be a cause.
e. X-ray pelvimetry is essential to predict cephalo-pelvic disproportion in primigravidas.
The followings are factors affecting the choice of methotrexate as an option of treatment
for ectopic pregnancy, Except:

a. Size of the ectopic.

b. Presence or absence of cardiac activity.
c. Level of B-HCG.
d. Parity of the patient.
e. Integrity of the tube.
For patients with three consecutive spontaneous in the second trimester the most useful
investigation is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Chromosomal analysis.
Hysterosalpingogram
Endometrial biopsy.
Post coital test.
Prolactin level.

Diabetes in pregnancy may be associated with the following congenital anomalies

Except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Sacral agenesis.
Central nervous system abnormalities.
Lower limb hypoplasia.
Congenital heart disease.
Yellow teeth discoloration.

Complication of preeclampsia include the following except :

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Premature delivery.
Placenta abruption,
Renal failure.
Polycythemia.
DIC.

Compared with a midline episiotomy, an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Ease of repair.
Fewer break downs.
Lower blood loss.
Less dyspareunia.
Less extension of the incision.

Which of the followings is an indication of emergency lower transverse cesarean-section?

a. Previous lower transverse cesarean-section.

b. Patient with prolapsed cord and a dead fetus.
c. Cardiac diseased of the mother.
d. Multiple gestations.
e. Prolonged labour due to brow presentation.
All of the followings are risk factors of preterm labour Except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

UTI.
Vaginal candidiasis.
Multiple pregnancies.
Polyhydroamnios.
Placenta praevia.

The second stage of labour:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Separation of placenta.
Separation of after birth.
Expulsion of placenta.
Dilatation of cervix.
Ends with expulsion of the foetus.

After birth the following changes occur in the foetus except:

a. The foramen ovale closes.
b. Lung fluid is forced out of the fetal alveoli with the first few breaths.
c. The ductus arteriosus opens.
d. Haemoglobin F is replaced by haemoglobin A.
e. The umbilical vein and artery close.
Which of the following is correct regarding ultrasound diagnosis of isthmic
incompetence during pregnancy?
.a. Should be looked for between .16 to 20 weeks of gestations.
b. Includes shortening of the cervical canal length to 3.5 cm or less.
c. Includes bulging of membranes through the dilated cervical canal.
d. Is better achieved by transabdominal ultrasound probe.
e. None of the above.

In managing patients with heart disease during delivery, which of the following is
correct?
a. No pain relief to avoid giving medications during labour.
b. Lithotomy position is preferred all the time.
c. Low forceps may be used if necessary.
d. Digitalis should be avoided until the foetus is delivered.
e. Caesarean section is the best management option.
Induction of abortion in the first trimester:
a. Commonly achieved using high dose of oxytocin infusion.
b. Commonly achieved by suction evacuation.
c. Better achieved by abdominal hysterectomy.
d. Better achieved by abdominal hysterotomy.
e. Cannot be achieved except by surgical means.
Pelvic thrombophlebitis in the puerperium" commonly:

a. Occurs in the first week post delivery.

b. Occurs in the second week post delivery.
C. Occurs in the third week post delivery
c. Occurs in the fourth week post delivery. .
e. Occurs only after operative delivery.
In shoulder presentation which of the followings is correct?
a. Contracted outlet of the pelvis is the main cause in multiparas.
b. Dorso-posterior is more common than Dorso-anterior.
c. Pendulous abdomen is the main cause in primigravidas.
d. Uterine anomalies can be a cause in recurrent shoulder presentation.
e. Commonly detected in singleton pregnancy more than twins.
A 24-year-old primigravida at 35 Weeks' gestation complains of mild headache and
Facial edema. Her blood pressure is 160/100 and her reflexes are brisk. You suspect that
she has preeclampsia. Her urine analysis is likely to show which of the followings?
a. Proteinuria
b. Haematuria
c. Glycosuria
d. Ketonuria.
e. Leukocytes.
A 21-year-old partient is considering epidural analgesia. She would like to know which
of the followings is increased in patients with epidural analgesia:
a. Cesarean delivery.
b. Neonatal depression.
e. Prolonged labour.
d. Cerebral palsy.
e. Episiotomy.

The infant of a diabetic mother has an increased risk off the followings except;
a. Neonatal jaundice.
b. Macrocytic anaemia.
c. Hypocalcaemia.
d. Cardiomegaly.
e. Erb's palsy.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding oxytocin?
a. Is a nonapeptide.
b. Is synthesized in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
c. Receptor concentration in the uterus increases towards the end of pregnancy.
d. Secretion is stimulated by suckling.
e. Has some antidiuretic action.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding external cephalic version (ECV) of
breech:
a. Usually is carried out before 37 weeks gestation.
b. Is associated with an increased risk of placental abruption.
c. Is associated with about a 1% risk of fetal mortality.
d. Can significantly reduce the incidence of caesarean section.
e. Should ideally be performed under general anaesthesia.
In cases of transverse lie which of the followings is not correct?
a. There is associated placenta praevia in about 10% of cases,
b. ECV could be performed till the onset of labour,
c. The fetal back is usually anterior.
d. The foetal head is commonly to the mother's left.
e. Of the second twin, caesarean section is the treatment of choice.
Bacteriuria in pregnancy:
a. Is associated with lower socioeconomic status.
b. Affects 15% of women.
c. If left untreated, will progress to symptomatic infection in about 75% of women.
d. Should be treated with tetracycline.
e. Is associated with increased risk of anaemia.
The pain of the second stage of labor is conveyed by which nerve?
a. Paracervical.
b. Ilioinguinal.
c. Pudendal.
d. Genitofemoral.
e. Iliohypogastric.
A-24-year-old parturient is at 24 weeks' gestation. Her past medical history is notable for mitral
stenosis secondary to rheumatic heart disease as a child. What physiologic change of pregnancy
places her at risk for the development of heart failure?
a. Decreased functional residual capacity.
b. Increased red cell mass.
c. Increased uterine blood flow.
d. Decreased creatinirie concentration.
e. Increase in stroke volume.

Acute putrid endometritis is characterised by the followings except:

a. Mild type of puerperal sepsis.
b. Caused by low virulent organism.
c. Uterine cavity is lined by a pyogenic membrane.
d. Leucocytic barrier is found under the endometrium.
e. Limited spread of infection.
The grand multipara is characterized by the followings except:
a. Higher perinatal mortality.
b. Pendulous abdomen with malpresentations.
c. A woman who had 4 or more previous deliveries.
d. Higher incidence of obstructed labor and rupture uterus.
e. Higher incidence of post partum hemorrhage.
Indications of vertical LUS incision (Kronig's incision) include the followings except:
a. Constriction ring.
b. Varicose veins in the broad ligaments.
c. Head deeply engaged in the pelvis.
d. Microcephalus.
e. Some cases of PTL.
Complications of amniotomy include the following except:
a. Placental abruption.
b. Prolapse of the cord.
.
c. Intra-amniotic infection.
d. Soft tissue injury of the foetus.
e. Complication of anesthesia.
Foetal response to palcenttal insufficiency include the following Except:
a. Redistribution of blood flow preferentially to the brain and foetal heart.
b. Symmetric IUGR.
c. Oligohydramnios.
d. Decreased foetal movement.
e. Disturbance of foetal heart rate.
Obstetric causes of neurogenic shock include the followings Except:
a. Disturbed extrauterine pregnancy.
b. Difficult internal version.
c. Unavoidable antepartum haeorrhage.
d. Repeat rough attempts at Crede's method.
e. Acute inversion of the uterus.
Human placental lactogen (hPL) is characterised by the followings except:

a. A large protein hormone.

b. Induces maternal hyperglycemia.
c. Stimulates lipolysis.
d. Inhibits gluconeogenesis.
e. Secreted from cytotrophoblasts.

The principal supports of the uterus include:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

The sacrospinous ligaments.

The obturator muscle.
The transverse cervical ligaments.
The infundibulo pelvic ligaments.
The sacrotuberous ligaments.

Patient complains of post coital bleeding and no growth is seen on the cervix per
speculum examination. The best next step should be:

a. Colposcopy
b. Conization.
c. Vaginal U/S.
d. Culdoseopy.
e. Iodine test.
Tumor markers are reliable for the diagnosis and follow up of the following Except:

a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Embryonal carcinoma.
c. Dysgerminoma.
d. Endodermal sinus tumours.
e. Metastatic tumours to the ovary.

Regarding uterine perforation during D & C which of the followings is not correct?

a. May occur with the use of sound, dilator or curette.

b. Is more liable to occur during evacuation of a pregnant uterus.
c. Is more liable to occur in the presence of uterine malignancy.
d. May result in intestinal injury.
e. Always treated conservatively if suction cannula was used.
Indications of hysteroscopy include all of the followings except:

A. Habitual abortions.
b. Resection of Submucous myoma.
c. Removal of extrauterine IUD.
d. Diagnosis of intrauterine synaechiae.
e. Irregular uterine bleeding.
The first step to locate a missing-string IUD is;

a. To sound the uterus.

b. Abdominal/pelvic X-ray.
c. Vaginal U/S.
d. Hysteroscopy.
e. Laparoscopy.

Which of the followings is not correct regarding anorexia nervosa?

a. Patients may have bulimia.

b. There is excessive weight loss.
c. Primary amenorrhea is usually present.
d. It may affect 1% of young women.
e. Needs reassurance and psychological support.
Which off the followings is the most certain method to determine that ovulation has
occurred?

a. Basal body temperature.

b. Pregnancy.
c. Increase in LH.
d. Thick cervical mucus.
e. Endometrial biopsy.
The follicular phase of ovarian cycle is characterized by:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Increasing amounts of El.

Progesterone dominance
Associated proliferative endometrium.
Fixed length of 8 days.
Reduction in aromatase activity.

Which of the following actions combined oral contraceptive pills has?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Reduce risk of endometrial cancer.

Increase risk of ovarian cancer.
Reduce risk of breast cancer.
Reduce risk of cervical cancer.
Worsen endometriosis.

Which of the followings is not a common site for endometriosis:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Bone.
Ovaries.
Uterosacral ligaments.
Peritoneum.
Oviduct.

Regarding fertilization and implantation:

a. Fertilization occurs in the inner third of the fallopian tube.

b. The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata and zona pellucida while the tail
remains outside.
c. The second meiotic division is completed before fertilization.
d. Implantation occurs in morula stage.
e. The trophoblast invades the endometrium and differentiates into outer cytotrophoblast and
inner syncytiotrophoblast.

SYMPTOMS of uterine myomas include the followings except:

a. Irregular cycles with hypomenorrhoea.

b. Easy fatigue resulting from anaemia.
c. Heavy bleed with normal cycle length.
d. Dysmenorrhea.
e. Pelvic congestion symptoms.
All the followings are possible causes of menorrhagia, except:

a.
b.
C.
d.
e.

Submucous uterine myomas.

Adenomyosis uteri.
Pelvic inflammatory disease,
Endometrial hyperplasia.
Levonorgestrel medicated IUD.

All the followings are Mullerian in origin except:

a. Ovaries.
b. Corpus uteri.
c. Oviducts.
d. Upper vagina.
e. Cervix.
Nabothian cysts are:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Embryonic rests.
Masonephric remnants,
Retention cysts.
Endometrial implants.
Keratinous cysts.

Carcinoma in situ of the cervix indicates:

a. Extensive glandular involvement of cancer cells.

b. Full thickness epithelium replacement by undifferentiated cancer cells.
c. Partial epithelial replacement of stratified basal cells.
d. Reserve cell hyperplasia.
e. Nests of malignant basal cells throughout epithelium.
Gonadal Dysgenesis is treated with:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Thyroid extract.
Cortisone.
Oestrogens.
Progesterone.
Dexamethason

The most common complain of patient having vulval herpes is:

a. Bleeding.
b. Pain.
c. Discharge.
d. Fever.
e. Oedema.

Turner's syndrome does mot include:

a. Growth retardation.
b. Cubitus valgus.
c. Webbed neck.
d. Mature secondary sex organs.
e. Ovarian dysgenesis.
During the evaluation of infertility in a 25-year-old female a hysterosalpingogram showed
evidence of Asherman syndrome. Which one of the following symptoms would you expects
this patient to have?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Hypomenorrhea.
Oligomenorrhea.
Menorrhagia.
Metrorrhagia
Dysmenorrhea.

The main sensory supply to the uterus is derived from:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Presacral nerve.
Splanchnic nerve.
Pampiniform plexus.
Pudendal nerve.
Hypogastric nerve.

The followings are complications of fibroids in pregnancy except;

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Malpresentations.
Placenta accreta.
Vasa praevia
Necrobiosis.
Dysfunctional labour.

Absolute contraindications of combined oral contraceptive pills include the followings

except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Thrombo-embolic disease
Carcinoma of the breast.
Coronary heart disease.
Smoking.
Pregnancy.

Which of the following tumors is the least likely to be hormonally active?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Sertoli-lyeding cell tumor.

Granulosa cell tumor.
Hilus cell tumor.
Fibroma.
Ovarian mucinous cystadenoma.

Serum alpha-fetoprotein concentrations a clinically useful tumour marker for :

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Brenner tumours of the ovary.

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary.
Endodermal sinus tumours of the ovary.
Granulosa cell tumours.
Arrhenoblastoma.

Which of the followings is not correct regarding choriocarcinoma?

a. Histological examination often shows pleomorphic cytotrophoblast but absence of

chorionic villi.
b. A third of cases present with features of distant metastatic spread.
c. The antecedent pregnancy is usually a term delivery or miscarriage
d. Lymph node metastases are common.
e. A characteristic snow-storm pattern is not seen on uterine ultrasonography.
The symptoms of epithelial ovarian cancer include the followings Except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Abdominal distension.
Vague gastrointestinal symptoms.
Vaginal discharge.
Postmenopausal bleeding.
Abdominal pain.

The followings are recognized symptoms of cervical carcinoma Except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Postcoital bleeding.
Offensive vaginal discharge
Pruritus vulvae.
Postmenopausal bleeding.
Pain.

Contents of the broad ligament include the followings Except

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

The ovaries.
The ureter.
Parametrial lymphatics and lymph nodes.
Parametrial pelvic cellular tissue and fascia.
Epoophoron.

Factors needed for normal sexual differentiation include the followings except :

a.
b.
e.
d.
e.

Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the female.

Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the male.
Normal testicular function for male development.
Normal ovarian function for female sexual differentiation.
Responsive male end organs for testicular testosterone.

Luteal phase cervical mucus changes include the followings except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Scanty.
Thick-viscid.
Absent leucocytes.
Negative Ferning test.
Negative Spinnbarkeit test.

Luteal phase vaginal cytology includes the following Except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Intermediate cells with rolled edges.

Esinophilic cytoplasm.
Vesicular nucleus.
Many lymphocytes.
Maturation index 0-70-30.

True isosexual precocious puberty may associate the followings Except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Glioma.
Meningitis.
Empty sella syndrome.
Head trauma.
Primary hypothyroidisin.

Risk factors for osteoporosis include the following Except:

a. Delayed menopause.
b. Heavy smoking.
c. Increased caffeine consumption.
d. Lack of exercise.
e. Low body weight.
Contraindication of hormone replacement therapy includes the followings Except:
a. Suspected breast cancer.
b. Known breast cancer.
c. History of DVT.
d. Active liver disease.
e. Obesity.
Hyperinsulineaemia leads to the followings Except:
a. Increased sensitivity of ovarian theca cells to LH.
b. Increased LH induced androgen production by the ovaries.
C. Increased aromatase enzyme activity.
d.
Decreased production of SHBG.
e. Increased free androgen substrate.

Laboratory findings in PCOS include the followings except:

a. Normal FSH.
b. LH/FSH ration of >2.
c. Elevated levels of plasma E2
d. Elevated levels of plasma androstenedione.
e. Elevated levels of plasma free Testosterone.

Advantages of total hysterectomy include:

a. Less risk of post operative pelvic haematoma.
b. It is easier and quicker.
c. There is less danger of injuring the ureter.
d. There is less danger of injuring bladder.
e. Less liability for subsequent development of vaginal vault prolapse.
Causes of symmetrical enlargement of the uterus include the followings except:
a. Pregnancy.
b. Metropathia haemorrhagica.
c. Single interstitial fundal fibroid.
d. Localized adenomyosis.
e. Pyometra.
Backache caused by gynaecological lesions is characterized by the followings Except:
a. It is diffuse.
b. Situated in the mid-line.
c. It is bilateral.
d. Its level is sacral or lumbosacral.
e. Associated with localized tenderness.
The single most reliable predictor of bacterial vaginosis is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Homogeneous, thin, grayish-white discharge that smoothly coats the vaginal walls.
Vaginal pH greater than 4.5.
Positive whiff-amine test.
The presence of Clue cells on saline wet mount,
Vaginal culture.

Factors associated with increased risk for PID include the followings except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Young, sexually active women.

Women with multiple sexual partners.
Use of intrauterine contraceptive device
Use of contraceptive gel-foams.
Drug addicts.

Which of the followings is not associated with vulvar ulcer?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Syphilis.
Tuberculosis.
Herpes simplex virus type 2.
HPV.
Behcet's disease.

Urodynamic parameters of normal bladder function include the followings except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Residual urine after voiding > 50 mL

Detrusor pressure filling < 15 cm H2O.
Absence of systolic detrusor contractions.
First desire to void at 150-200 ml.
Strong desire to void at 400-600 ml.

Regarding cervical myomas patients may present with the followings except:

a.
b.
d.
d.
e.

Symptomless.
Deep dyspareunia.
Retention of urine.
Loin pain.
Excessive menstrual blood loss.

Which of the followings is correct regarding Inhibin?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

A peptide produced by granulosa cells.

It enhances FSH production.
Attenuates LH-induced androgen synthesis.
Promotes follicular development.
Induces LH surge.

Which of the followings is not correct regarding Manchester (Fothergill's) operation?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Performed for cases having supravaginal elongation of the cervix.

It is a bloody operation.
Vaginal hysterectomy is an essential step.
May lead to infertility.
May lead to cervical dystocia.

Uterine myomas are characterized by which of the followings:

a. Whorled appearance on cut section.
b. Surrounding myometrium is paler than the tumour tissue.
c. Pseudo-capsule is a part of the tumour.
d. Van Geison stain colours the muscle cells pink and fibrous tissue cells yellow.
c. Abundant mitotic figures.
Which of the followings Is not correct regarding clomiphene citrate?
a. Has anti estrogenic properties.
B. May be started with, a 50-mg daily dose.
c. Is useful in hypergonadotropic amenorrhea.
d. May cause cervical mucus hostility.
e. May result in multiple pregnancies.
All the following statements, about genuine stress incontinence in the female, are correct
EXCEPT:
a) It occurs transiently during pregnancy.
b) It is more common in parous women.
c) It can be corrected surgically.
d) Urodynamic studies are usually normal.
The INCORRECT statement for genuine stress incontinence in the female:
a) It is a common transient condition during pregnancy.
b) It is more common in parous women than in nulliparous women.
c) It can be corrected surgically.
d) The amount of escaped urine in each event is always large.

The following are treatment modalities for overactive bladder EXCEPT:

a) Smooth muscle relaxants.
b) Para-sympathomimetics.
c) Tricyclic anti depressants.
d) Anticholinergics.
e) Behavioral therapy.
Overactive bladder gets benefit from the followings EXCEPT:
a) Suburethral sling operation
b) Smooth muscle relaxants.
c) Anticholenergic agents
d) Pelvic floor muscle exercises.
The INCORRECT statement in the treatment of urinary stress incontinence:
a) Non-surgical management is useless.
b) Reconstruction and elevation of the urethrovaginal angle cures the condition.
c) Co-existent detrusor overactivity should be treated before surgery for stress incontinence.
d) Burch operation (colposuspension) is carried out through an abdominal incision.
Stress incontinence is NOT common in:
a) Nulliparous.
b) Multiparous.
c) Pregnancy.
d) State of physical activity.
e) Chronic chest infection.
The commonest cystic swelling of the vulva:
a) Endometrioma.
b) Inclusion dermoid cyst.
c) Bartholin cyst.
d) Hydrocele of the canal of nuck.
e) Hidradenoma.
The shape of the hymenal opening in normal individuals include the following EXCEPT:
a) Annular
b) Crescentric
c) Septate
d) Cribriform
e) Segmoid
The vulval blood supply is via the:
a) Internal pudendal artery
b) Vaginal artery
c) Azygos artery
d) Superior vesical artery
e) Middle rectal artery

Lymphatic drainage of the vulva DO NOT include:

a) The femoral lymph nodes
b) The inguinal lymph nodes
c) The external iliac lymph nodes
d) The pre-sacral lymph nodes
e) The gland of Cloquet
Which DOES NOT increase the failure rate of external cephalic version in breech presentation?
a) Polyhydramnios.
b) Ritodrine infusion.
c) Short cord.
d) Hydrocephalus.
e) Frank breech.
The commonest outcome in OP position is:
a) Persistent OP.
b) Deep transverse Arrest.
c) Rotate to OA position.
d) Direct OP.
Detection of which of the following in cervicovaginal secretions is a powerful clinical
predictor of subsequent preterm birth?
a) Decidual relaxin
b) Fetal fibronectin
c) Interleukin-l
d) Tumor necrosis factor
Postterm pregnancy is defined as greater than or equal to which period of amenorrhea?
a) 280
b) 287
c) 294
d) 300
The first step in the assessment of the postterm gestation is:
a) Ultrasound examination
b) Determination of the true length of gestation
c) Measurement of fetal heart rate (FHR)
d) Determination of amniotic fluid volume
e) Contraction stress test
Side effect of oxytocin include the following except?
A) Foetal distress
B) Hypernatremia
C) Amniotic fluid embolism
D) Dysfunction labour

Backache caused by gynecological lesions is characterized by the following except:

A) Being localized
B) Being bilateral
C) Associated with local tenderness
D) Being situated in the midline
Which of the following is not correct regarding true labor pains?
a) Involuntary
b) Continuous
c) They gradually increase in frequency by time
d) Associated with bulging of fore-water
The total iron needed for expansion of red cell mass during pregnancy is about?
a) 300mg
b) 100mg
c) 30mg
d) None of the above
Clinical feature of pre-eclampsis include the following except
a) Severe headache
b) Nystagmus
c) Epigstric pain
d) Hepatic tenderness
What is the principal carbohydrate present in amniotic fluid?
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Mannose
d) Galactose
Which of these is not a symptom or sings of impending eclampsia?
a) Epigastric pain
b) Hyper reflexia
c) Marked oedema of the lower limbs and face
d) Blurring of vision
With regard to molar pregnancies, what does the term androgenesis refer to?
a. Development of theca-lutein cysts.
b. Absence of fetal tissue and amnion.
c. Absence of amnion.
d. Development of a zygote that contains only paternal chromosomes.

Which of the following is not correct regarding hyperemesis gravidarum?

a. Typically begins during the fourth week of pregnancy.

b. May recur in future pregnancies
c. Corticosteroids represent the main therapeutic option.
d. More common in multiparas.
Which of the following is the most common postpartum complication of precipitous labor?
a. Hemorrhage

b. Endometrtis
c. poor mother neonate bonding
d. Vulvar hematoma.
A proven effective therapy for therapy for threatened abortion includes which of the following
a. Bed rest.

b. Daily morning acetaminophen.

c. Increased oral fluid intake .
d. None of the above.
Possible effects of occippito posterior position include the following except :
a .Early rupture of membranes

b. prolonged second stage .

c. shoulder dystocia
d. Higher incidence of instrumental deliveries.
Erb's palsy in the neonate is:
a. A particular hazard in rotation forceps delivery

b. A result of trauma to the lower part of the brachial plexus.

c. Associated with possible contrateral diaphragmatic paralysis.
d. An indication for early surgical intervention.
Cervical changes in pregnancy include the following except?
a. Increased collagen.

b. Increased hyaluronic acid.

c. Increased glands.
d. Increased vascularity.
Decreased peripheral resistance in pregnancy has been attributed to an increase in synthesis
of which of the following?
a. Angiotensin.

b. Endothelin.
c. Nitric oxide.
d. Thromboxane.
The fetal congenital anomaly which is specifically related to diabetes mellitus is:
a. Atrial septal

b. Caudal regression syndrome.

c. Open neural tube defects.
d. None of the above.

Which of the following is not correct regarding missed abortion?

a) Patient may present with loss of symptoms of pregnancy
b) Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptoms
c) Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made
d) Disseminated intra-vascular coagulation may occur as squeal
Incoordinate uterine contractions include the following except:
a) Contraction ring
b) Cervical incompetence
c) Colicky uterus
d) Retraction ring
In managing Multifoetal pregnancies: which of the following is true?
a) Mono-amniotic twins are associated with less perinatal mortality than diamniotic twins
b) The smaller the fetal weight (<2kg)the more likely the vaginal route is chosen
c) The larger the fetal number, the more the chance of vaginal delivery
d) Extra antenatal care is needed for pregnant women
Chorio-amnionitis should be suspected in cases of premature rupture of the membranes if the
followings are present except:
a) Maternal white cell count rises
b) Liquor stops draining
c) Maternal pyrexia occurs
d)The fetus becomes tachycardia
Icterus gravis neonatorum is characterized by the following except:
a) The baby is delivered jaundiced at birth
b) Presence of hepatosplenomegaly
c) Being the commonest form of erythroblastosis foetalis
d) The baby is delivered anemic at birth
Which of the following is not correct regarding septic abortion?
a) E-coli are one of the commonest infective organism
b) Requires urgent evacuation of the uterus as first line
c) management
d) May lead to long term infertility
e) Rarely occurs before 12 weeks gestation
Which of the following is not correct regarding twin delivery?
a) The first twin is at greater risk than the second
b) Cephalic-cephalic presentation is the most common
c) Labor usually occur prior to term
d) There is a risk of post-partum haemorrhage
Which of the following is correct regarding secondary post-partum haemorrhage?
a) Is diagnosed only when bleeding occurs 72 hours after delivery
b) Contraindicated breast feeding
c) Very common when the patient delivers a congenitally abnormal baby
d) Retained placental tissue could be a cause

Transverse uterine incisions are generally preferred to vertical incisions for all except which of
the following?
a) Decreased risk of rupture in subsequent pregnancies
b) Lower rates of post-partum metritis
c) Ease of closure
d) Less likely to result in incisional adhesions to bowel
Which of the following is a gas antithetic adequate for general anesthesia?
a) Ketamine
b) Thiopental
c) Halothane
d) Succinylcholine
Fetal incidence for forceps delivery includes which of the following?
a) Fetal coagulopathy
b) Fetal congenital heart block
c) Non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern
d) Protection of fragile preterm infant head
Ideally forceps traction should be applied in which of the following manners?
a) Continuously
b) Intermittently and with contraction
c) Intermittently and between contraction
d) Intermittently with cycles of 10 seconds of traction followed by 1 min of rest
What is the single most important sonographic finding for exclusion of an ectopic
pregnancy?
a) Complex adnexal mass
b) Free fluid in the cul-de-sac
c) Identification of intrauterine pregnancy
d) None of the above
In the medical management of ectopic pregnancy a predictor of success for the use of single
dose methotrexate includes which of the following?
a) Fetal cardiac activity
b) Concomitant use of folic acid
c) An ectopic mass greater than 3.5cm
d) An initial serum B-hCG value < 5000IU/L

The following are all consistent with the diagnosis of ant-phospholipid syndrome except:
a) Hydatidiform mole
b) Sever early onset preeclampsia
c) Mid trimester fetal loss
d) Placental abruption
Commonest presentation of Choriocarcinoma
a) Vaginal bleeding
b) Abdominal pain
c) Breathlessness
d) Perforation of the uterus
What is the most common clinical setting for fetal or neonatal interventricular hemorrhage?
a) Eclampsia
b) Forceps delivery
c) Maternal alcohol use
d) Preterm delivery
Antepartum risk factor for shoulder dystocia include the following except?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Post term pregnancy
c) Gynaecoied pelvis
d) Advanced maternal age
Serum B-human chorionic gonadotropin (B-hCG) criteria for the diagnosis of gestational
trophoblastic neplasia (GTN) include which of the following?

a) Rise of B-hCG level

b) Plateau of B-hCG level
c) Persistent elevation of B-hCG level
d) All of the above
One of the criteria that should be met to diagnose an ovarian ectopic pregnancy includes
which of the following?

a) The ipsilateral tube is incorporated into the pregnancy mass

b) The ectopic pregnancy is connected by the mesoteres to uterus
c) Identification of ovarian tissue in gestational sac well
d) All of the above

All except which of the following signs or symptoms are typically seen in the presentation of
a complete hydatiform mole pregnancy?

a) Preeclampsia
b) Vaginal bleeding
c) Increased plasma thyroxin level
d) Greater than expected serum B-hCG level
Which of the following contributes to transient tachypnea of newborn?

a) Delay in removal of fluid from alveoli

b) Hypoxia
c) Hypercapnea
d) Hypothermia
Indication for endotracheal intubation typically include the following except:

a) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

b) Need for chest compression
c) Cyanotic fetal extremities
d) Prolonged bag-mask ventilation
Partogram:

a) Is used by the patient to record the uterine contraction

b) Is done before diagnosis of labor
c) Measures the progress of labor
d) Is of utmost importance in the latent phase
Which of the following chromosomal anomalies is most frequently identification with first
trimester abortion?

a) Triploidy
b) Autosomal trisomy
c) Monosomy X(45,X)
d) None of the above

Concerning acute pyelonephritis complicating pregnancy and puerperium all of the

following statement are true except:

a) When unilateral it is most often right sided

b) Symptoms include anorexia nausea and vomiting
c) Escherichia coli are predominant causative micro-organism
d) There is a concomitant deficiency of autoimmunity
The absence of uterine pregnancy by sonography and a serum B-hCG level above the
discriminatory value may signify which of the following?

a) An ectopic pregnancy
b) An incomplete abortion
c) A resolving complete abortion
d) All of the above
Frog eye appearance is seen in which of the following conditions?
a) Anencephaly
b) Acardia
c) down's syndrome
d) patau's syndrome
In woman presenting with positive urine pregnancy test result plus abdominal pain with or
without vaginal bleeding use of which of the following strategies helps diagnose a
pregnancy of unknown location?
a) Transvaginal sonography
b) Dilatation and curettage
c) Quantitive serum B-hCG measurement
d) All of the above
Your patient is a 32 year old whose previous pregnancy result in the birth of child with
anencephaly she is currently using oral contraceptive pills to prevent pregnancy she
intends to have another child in the future but is uncertain when what is your
recommendation for oral folic acid supplementation?
a) Folic acid 4gm orally daily beginning now
b) Folic acid 4gm orally daily as soon as a pregnancy test is positive
c) Folic acid 400g orally daily beginning 1 month prior to discontinuation of contraception
d) A diet with an increase percentage of foods high in folic acid is sufficient

Women who develop the following conditions during their first pregnancy are at higher risk
of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies except:
a) Preeclampsia
b) Preterm labor
c) Preterm abortion
d) Missed abortion
The advantage of the Ritgen's maneuver is which of the following?
a) It favors neck flexion
b) It allows controlled delivery of head
c) It decreased the likelihood of a third degree laceration
d) It prevent shoulder dystocia
Which of the following is associated with an increased incidence if heterotopic pregnancy?
a) Obesity
b) Multiparty
c) Prior cesarean delivery
d) Assisted reproductive technology
Contraindication to medical abortion includes which of the following?
a) Septate uterus
b) Severe anemia
c) Cervical dysplasia
d) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
In genera l, women with lower maternal weight gains during pregnancy are at increased risk
for which outcomes?
a) Small-for-gestational age infant
b) Gestational diabetes
c) Preeclampsia
d) Cesarean delivery
Which of the following is a sign of placental separation?

a) Umbilical cord appears to shorten

b) Uterus shrinks down as the placenta moves into the lower uterine segment
c) Sudden gash of blood
d) Uterus softens

Uses of sonography in the evaluation and treatment of infertility include which of the following?
a) Endometrial cavity evaluation
b) Monitoring of folliculogenesis in normal and stimulated cycles
c) Demonstration and characterization of congenital uterine anomalies
d) All of the above
Which of the following is not one of the three clinical diagnostic criteria for bacterial
vaginosis described by Amsel and associates?
a) Abnormally high vaginal PH
b) Presence of an abnormal discharge and erythema of vagina
c) Clue cells seen on vaginal saline preparation by light microscopy
d) Characteristic fishy odor release with addition of potassium hydroxide to vaginal secretions
A midline cystic mass best representa which of the following vulvar disorders?
a) Gardener duct cyst
b) Bartholin's gland cyst
c) Urethral diverticulum
d) Nabothian cyst
Which of the following is currently recommended for ovarian cancer screening in women at
average risk?
a) Pelvic examination
b) Pelvic sonsgraphy every 2to3 years
c) Annual cancer antigen(CA125)level measurement
d) Annual cancer antigen CA125)level measurement and pelvic ultrasonography
Your patient, who understands hysterectomy 3 months ago, complains of urine leakage from
her vagina. You suspect she has developed a vesicovaginal fistula. Which of the following
radiologic tests is the most appropriate to order in her evaluation?
a) Intravenous pyelography
b) Voiding cystourethrography
c) Computered tomography
d) Positive pressure urethrography

Your patient delivered healthy infant 2 weeks ago and wishes to initiate use of contraceptive
method during the next few weeks. She is breast feeding exclusively. For which of the
following is there is strong evidence that use decrease the quantity and quality of breast
milk?
a) Progestin-only pills
b) Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate
c) Combination hormonal contraceptive
d) None of the above
Which of the following explanation have been suggested as the etiology for abnormal uterine
bleeding with use of IUD?

a) Malposition of the device

b) Unbalanced ratio prostaglandin and thromboxane
c) Increased endometrial vascularity, congestion, and degeneration
d) All of the above
All except which of the following are appropriate medical treatments for adenomyosis?
a) Copper intrauterine device
b) Combination oral contraceptives (COCs)
c) Non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs(NSAIDS)
d) Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system(LNG-IUS)
Persistence of endometriosis is directly dependent on which of the following hormones?
a) Estrogen
b) Testosterone
c) Progesterone
d) Androstenedione
Of Mullerian defects, which has the lowest associated risk of recurrent miscarriage?
a) Septate uterus
b) Arcuate uterus
c) Uterus didelphys
d) Unicornuate uterus
All except which of the following are danazol side effects?
a) Hirsutism
b) Hot flashes
c) Voice deepening
d) Breast hypertrophy

Cervical motion tenderness is associated with peritoneal irritation and commonly found
with which of the following?
a) Appendicitis
b) Liver disease
c) Pyelonephritis
d) Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
Which of the following terms describes cyclic menstrual pain without identifiable
associated pathology?
a) Adenomyosis
b) Primary dysmenorrhea
c) Secondary dysmenorrhea
d) Menstrual out let obstruction
Which of the following contraceptive method is generally contraindicated in adolescents
(age less than 21 year)?
a) Vaginal ring
b) Intrauterine devices
c) Combined oral contraceptive pills
d) None of the above
Which of the following hormones can have a negative as well as a positive feedback at the
level of the pituitary?
a) Cortisol
b) Oxytocin
c) Estradiol
d) Progesterone
What is the expected testosterone level in a patient with Mlleran agenesis?
a) Male level
b) Female level
c) Not measurable
d) Significantly elevated ( >1000 ng/dl)
A 20-year old female is diagnosed with gonadal dysgenesis and her karyotype 45, x/46xy
mosaicism laparoscopy is performed for which of the following reasons?
a) Gonadectomy due to increased risk of malignant transformation in retained goads
b) Oophotopexy due to increase rate of torsion
c) Endometriosis is ablation due to increase rate of endometriosis
d) None of the above

In which of the following patient is a karyotype most likely needed?

a) 22 year old with amenorrhea and hirsutism
b) 25 year old with amenorrhea and an elevated prolactin level
c) 20 year old with amenorrhea and no Mullerian structure on sonography
d) 16 year old with amenorrhea and persistently elevated (FSH) level of 80mIu/ml
In PCOS increased testosterone production from the ovaries is secondary to stimulation

by which of the following hormones?

a) Inhibin
b) Estradiol
c) Luteinizing hormone
d) Follicle stimulating hormone
Which of the following hormones is the most effective in converting vellus hair to terminal
hair?
a) Testosterone
b) Androstenedione
c) Dihydrotestestosterone
d) DHEA
The pathogenesis of poor pregnancy outcomes with a unicornuate uterus is thought to be
related to which of the following factors?
a) Cervical incompetence
b) Reduced uterine capacity
c) Anomalous distribution of the uterine artery
d) All of the above
Reduction in secretion of which of the following hormones is most likely responsible for the
rising serum follicle stimulating hormone level seen as a woman ages?
a) Activin
b) Inhibin
c) Estradiol
d) Follistatin
Compared with clomiphene citrate therapy gonadotropin therapy has which of the following
characteristics?
a) Higher ovulation rate
b) Lower multiple pregnancy rate
c) Lower ovarian hyperstimulation rate
d) Greater negative effect on the endometrium

Which of the following is least likely required in treatment of ovarian hyperstimulation

syndrome?
a) Oophorectomy
b) Paracentesis
c) Fluid resuscitation
d) Thromboembolism prophylaxis
Which of the following is the symptom that is reliably associated with prolapse and usually
worsens as prolapse progresses?
a) Pelvic pain
b) Constipation
c) Anal incontinence
d) Sensation of pelvic pressure
Compared with reconstructive procedures for prolapse correction Le Fort's colpoeleisis
generally has which of the following characteristics?
a) Is technically more difficult
b) Requires greater operative time
c) Reserved for sexually active woman
d) None of the above
What is the primary mechanism by which obesity increase the risk of endometrial cancer?
a) Androstenedion is aromatized by adipose tissue to estrone
b) Androstenedion is aromatized by adipose tissue to estradiol
c) Higher level of insulin like growth factor which result in unopposed estrogen
d) None of the above
What is the most common method of ovarian cancer spread?
a) Lymphatic
b) Hematogenous
c) Direct extension
d) Tumor exfoliation
In developed countries urethrovaginal fistula are most commonly attributed to which of the
following?
a) Obstetric trauma
b) Pelvic infection
c) Prior hysterectomy
d) Prior urethral diverticulectomy

Which of the following potentiates the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland?

a) Dopamine
b) Thyrotropin releasing hormone
c) Gonadotropin releasing hormone
d) Corticotrophin releasing hormone
In the evaluation of ovarian function the following laboratory test are helpful except:

a) Cycle day 3 inhibin level

b) Cycle day 3 estradiol level
c) Random anti-Mullerian hormone level
d) Cycle day 3 follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) level
Which of the following medication can be added to improve clomiphene citrate response in
woman with PCOS?

a) Dehydrocepiandrosterone (DHEA)
b) Insulin
c) Metformin
d) Progesterone
A 35 year old woman comes requesting long term reversible contraception you advise that the
method that can provide the longest protection is:

a) Contraceptive implants
b) Copper intrauterine device
c) Depo-Provera injection
d) Intrauterine hormonal system
A 48 year old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding for two months and episodes of
bleeding occurring any time in the cycle there is no associated pain differential diagnosis for
intermenstrual bleeding does not include:

a) Cervical malignancy
b) Endometrial polyp
c) Ovarian teratoma
d) Atrophic vaginitis
Which of the following is the most commonly diagnosed ovarian malignancy during
pregnancy?

a) Dysgerminoma
b) Choriocarcinoma
c) Immature teratoma
d) Granulose cell tumor

Which of the following is appropriate treatment of a 35 year old woman with the diagnosis of
complex hyperplasia without atypia?

a) Medroxyprogesterone acetate
b) Combination oral contraceptive pills
c) Levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system (IUD)
d) All of the above
Which of the following is the gold standard technique for tubal evaluation?

a) Hysterosalpingography
b) Laparoscopic evaluation
c) Saline infusion sonography
d) Magnetic resonance imaging
A 28 year old nulligravida presents with primary amenorrhea she diagnosed with 46 XY
gonadal dysgenesis during pelvic laparoscopy what is the expected finding?

a) Streak gonads and male internal genitalia

b) Streak gonads and female internal genitalia
c) Empty pelvis (no gonads or internal genitalia)
d) Bilateral abdominal testes and male internal genitalia
Which of the following hormones rescues the corpus luteum from luteolysis?

a) LH
b) hPl
c) FSH
d) hCG
All except which of the following are anterior pituitary hormones?

a) prolacin
b) Growth hormone
c) Thyrotropin releasing hormones
d) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
A 5 year old girl suffers from precocious puberty gonadotropine level are low even following
gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) infusion stimulation testing however estrogen
levels are elevated which of the following could be a cause of disorder?

a) Primary hypothyroidism
b) Ovarian granulose cell tumor
c) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d) all of the above
Which of the following is not correct regarding genital warts?

a) Must be differentiated from neoplastic lesion

b) Should always be treated
c) Are sexually transmitted diseases in most cases
d) Are associated with Chlamydial infection

Which of the following is least likely true of basal body temperature testing in the adult
female?

a) It can be an insensitive test in many women

b) With ovulation the temperature rises roughly 0.5C
c) It is an inexpensive and easy test for ovulation monitoring
d) Once the temperature rise a patient should expect ovulation in next 12
hours
In treatment of PCOS with combination oral contraceptive which of the following is effect of
the progesterone component?

a) Reduces follicle stimulating hormone production

b) Increase lutenizing hormone production
c) Antagonizes androgen receptors
d) Reduces ovarian androgen production
A 20 year old nulligravid female presents with primary amenorrhea during examination
Tanner stage IV breast development and spares pubic and axillary hair are noted also a blind
ending vagina is identified what is likely diagnosis in this patient?

a) Mullerian agenesis
b) Premature ovarian failure
c) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
d) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
A 28 year old woman attends to colposcopy clinic after an abnormal smear test the smear is
reported as severe dyskyosis and she has an intra-uterine contraceptive device in situ all of
the following statements are likely to be true apart from?

a) The cervix is macroscopically normal

b) Acetic acid is applied and irregular white area is apparent to the left of
cervical os
c) lugol's iodine is applied and irregular white area is apparent to the left of
cervical stains pale
d) The IUCD can stay as it will not aggravate the cervical abnormality
When the uterine has its cervix presenting below the level of ischial spine and the vaginal
vault is at the level of ischial spine this condition is spoken of as:

a) Frist degree uterine prolapse

b) Second degree uterine prolapse
c) Third degree uterine prolapse
d) Congenital elongation of the cervix

Which of the following tests cannot be used in for staging cervical cancer per international
federation of gynecology and obstetrics (FIGO) criteria?

a) Cystoscopy
b) Chest radiography
c) Computed tomography
d) Intravenous pyelogram
Which germ cell tumor is most likely to be bilateral?

a) Dysgerminoma
b) Choriocarcinoma
c) Immature teratoma
d) Embryonal carcinoma