(1)

DATE : 04/05/2014
Test Booklet Code
Q
Answers & Solutions
for for for for for
AIPMT-2014
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(2)
1. Which of the following compounds will undergo
racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?
(i)
CHCl
2
(ii) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Cl
(iii) H C
3
CH CH Cl
2
CH
3
(iv)
H
C
CH
3
Cl
C H
2 5
(1) (ii) and (iv) (2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (ii)
Answer (No answer)
2. The reaction of aqueous KMnO
4
with H
2
O
2
in acidic
conditions gives :
(1) Mn
2+
and O
2
(2) Mn
2+
and O
3
(3) Mn
4+
and MnO
2
(4) Mn
4+
and O
2
Answer (1)
Sol. 2KMnO
4
+ 5H
2
O
2
+ 3H
2
SO
4
K
2
SO
4
+ 2MnSO
4
+
8H
2
O + 5O
2
3. Which one of the following is not a common
component of Photochemical Smog?
(1) Acrolein (2) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
(3) Chlorofluorocarbons (4) Ozone
Answer (3)
Sol. Fact.
4. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium
salt
+
2
RN X ?
(1)
+
6 5 2
C H N X
(2)
+
3 2 2
CH CH N X
(3)
+
6 5 2 2
C H CH N X (4)
+
3 2
CH N X
Answer (1)
Sol. Resonance stabilization
5. Which of the following hormones is produced under
the condition of stress which stimulates
glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?
(1) Insulin (2) Adrenaline
(3) Estradiol (4) Thyroxin
Answer (2)
Sol. Fact
6. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O
2
in a closed
vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how
much?
(At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
(1) O
2
, 0.16 g (2) Mg, 0.44 g
(3) O
2
, 0.28 g (4) Mg, 0.16 g
Answer (4)
Sol. 24 g Mg requires 16 g oxygen
0.56 g oxygen requires 0.84 g Mg
Mg left = 0.16 g
7. What products are formed when the following
compound is treated with Br
2
in the presence of
FeBr
3
?
CH
3
CH
3
(1)
CH
3
CH
3
Br
and
CH
3
CH
3
Br
(2)
CH
3
CH
3
Br
and
CH
3
CH
3
Br
(3)
CH
3
CH
3
Br
and
CH
3
CH
3
Br
(4)
CH
3
CH
3
Br
and
CH
3
CH
3
Br
Answer (2)
Sol. CH
3
group is o, p - directing.
(3)
8. Which of the following organic compounds
polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?
(1) Benzoic acid and ethanol
(2) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
(3) Benzoic acid and para HO (C
6
H
4
) OH
(4) Propylene and para HO (C
6
H
4
) OH
Answer (2)
Sol. Fact.
9. In acidic medium, H
2
O
2
changes
2
2 7
Cr O
to CrO
5
which has two (OO) bonds. Oxidation state of
Cr in CrO
5
is
(1) +3 (2) +6
(3) 10 (4) +5
Answer (2)
Sol.
O
O
Cr
O
+6
O
O
10. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is
correctly represented?
(1) Na
+
> F

> O
2
(2) F

> O
2
> Na
+
(3) Al
3+
> Mg
2+
> N
3
(4) H

> H
+
> H
Answer (No answer)
Sol. All answer are incorrect.
11. Which of the following salts will give highest pH in
water?
(1) NaCl (2) Na
2
CO
3
(3) CuSO
4
(4) KCl
Answer (2)
Sol. Salt of strong base and weak acid.
12. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium
hydrogen carbonate?
(1) Benzoic acid
(2) o-Nitrophenol
(3) Benzenesulphonic acid
(4) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol
Answer (2)
Sol. o-nitrophenol is weaker acid than HCO
3

.
13. For the reaction, X
2
O
4
(l) 2XO
2
(g)
U = 2.1 kcal, S = 20 cal K
1
at 300 K
Hence, G is
(1) 2.7 kcal (2) 9.3 kcal
(3) 9.3 kcal (4) 2.7 kcal
Answer (1)
Sol. H = U + ngRT = 3.300 kCal
G = H TS = 2.700 kCal
14. In the following reaction, the product (A)
N NCl

NH
2
+
+
(A)
Yellow dye
H
+
is
(1)
NH
2
N = N
(2)
NH
2
N = N
(3)
NH
2
N = N
(4)
N = N NH
Answer (3)
Sol. Major product is formed by para attack.
15. Using the Gibbs energy change, G = +63.3 kJ, for
the following reaction,
+
+

2
2 3 3
Ag CO (s) 2Ag (aq) CO (aq)
the K
sp
of Ag
2
CO
3
(s) in water at 25C is
(R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
)
(1) 8.0 10
12
(2) 2.9 10
3
(3) 7.9 10
2
(4) 3.2 10
26
Answer (1)
Sol. G = 2.303 RT log Ksp
63300 = 2.303 8.314 298 log Ksp
K
sp
= 8 10
12
16. Identity Z in the sequence of reactions,
CH
3
CH
2
CH = CH
2

2 2
HBr/H O
Y
2 5
C H ONa
Z
(1) (CH
3
)
2
CH
2
O CH
2
CH
3
(2) CH
3
(CH
2
)
4
O CH
3
(3) CH
3
CH
2
CH(CH
3
) O CH
2
CH
3
(4) CH
3
(CH
2
)
3
O CH
2
CH
3
(4)
Answer (3)
Sol.
CH CH CH CH
3 2 3
Br
(Y)
CH CH CH = CH + HBr
3 2 2
H O
2 2
C H O Na
2 5
+
CH CH CH O CH
3 2 3
CH
2
CH
3
(Z)
17. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen
present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from
0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H
2
SO
4
.
The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is
(1) 45.33 (2) 35.33
(3) 43.33 (4) 37.33
Answer (4)
Sol. %N=
1.4 N V
w
=
1.4 10 2
0.75
= 37.33%
18. Which property of colloids is not dependent on the
charge on colloidal particles?
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Electro-osmosis
(3) Tyndall effect (4) Coagulation
Answer (3)
Sol. Tyndall effect is an optical phenomenon.
19. For a given exothermic reaction, K
p
and K
p
are the
equilibrium constants at temperatures T
1
and T
2
,
respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is
constant in temperature range between T
1
and T
2
, it
is readily observed that
(1) <
p p
K K (2) =
p p
K K
(3) =

p
p
1
K
K
(4) >
p p
K K
Answer (4)
Sol. Assuming T
2
> T
1
.
20. When 22.4 litres of H
2
(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of
Cl
2
(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal
to
(1) 2 mol of HCl(g) (2) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 1.5 mol of HCl(g) (4) 1 mol of HCl(g)
Answer (4)
Sol. H
2
+ Cl
2
2HCl
Initial 22.4 L 11.2 L 0
Final 11.2 L 0 22.4 L = 1 mole
21. Which one of the following is an example of a
thermosetting polymer?
(1)
(CH CH)
2 n
Cl
(2)
(N (CH ) N C (CH ) C)
2 6 2 4 n
O O H H
(3)
OH OH
CH
2
CH
2
n
(4)
(CH C = CH CH )
2 n 2
Cl
Answer (3)
Sol. Novolac is thermosetting polymer.
22. Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic
addition reaction?
(1)
COCH
3
(2)
CHO
CH
3
(3)
CHO
NO
2
(4)
CHO
Answer (3)
Sol. Electron withdrawing group i.e., NO
2
favours
nucleophilic attack.
23. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light
of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h = 6.63
10
34
Js; speed of light c = 3 10
8
ms
1
)
(1) 6.67 10
11
(2) 4.42 10
15
(3) 4.42 10
18
(4) 6.67 10
15
Answer (3)
Sol.

= =

34 8
9
hc 6.63 10 3 10
E
45 10
= 4.42 10
10
J
(5)
24. Which of the following organic compounds has same
hybridization as its combustion product
(CO
2
)?
(1) Ethyne (2) Ethene
(3) Ethanol (4) Ethane
Answer (1)
Sol. Product Reactant
= = O C O
sp
H C C H
sp sp
25. Be
2+
is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
(1) Li
+
(2) Na
+
(3) Mg
2+
(4) H
+
Answer (1)
Sol. Both Be
2+
and Li
+1
have two electrons.
26. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the
following ions?
(At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
(1) Ni
2+
(2) Cr
3+
(3) Mn
2+
(4) Ti
3+
Answer (1)
Sol. = 2.83 BM, unpaired electrons = 2
28
Ni
+2
= 3d
8
=
27. The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a
quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O
2
at STP will be
(1) 10.8 g (2) 54.0 g
(3) 108.0 g (4) 5.4 g
Answer (3)
Sol. =
2
O
5600
W 32
22400
= 8 g = 1 equivalents
= 1 equivalent of Ag
= 108 g
28. For the reversible reaction,
+ +

2 2 3
N (g) 3H (g) 2NH (g) Heat
The equilibrium shifts in forward direction
(1) By decreasing the pressure
(2) By decreasing the concentrations of N
2
(g) and
H
2
(g)
(3) By increasing pressure and decreasing
temperature
(4) By increasing the concentration of NH
3
(g)
Answer (3)
Sol. Le chatelier's principle.
29. The pair of compounds that can exist together is
(1) HgCl
2
, SnCl
2
(2) FeCl
2
, SnCl
2
(3) FeCl
3
, KI (4) FeCl
3
, SnCl
2
Answer (2)
Sol. Sn
+2
can not reduce Fe
+2
.
30. Which of the following complexes is used to be as
an anticancer agent?
(1) cis-[PtCl
2
(NH
3
)
2
] (2) cis-K
2
[PtCl
2
Br
2
]
(3) Na
2
CoCl
4
(4) mer-[Co(NH
3
)
3
Cl
3
]
Answer (1)
Sol. Fact.
31. Among the following complexes the one which
shows Zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE)
is
(1) [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(2) [Co(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
(3) [Co(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(4) [Mn(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
Answer (1)
Sol. Fe
+3
= d
5
= t
3
2g
e
g
2
, CFSE = 0.
32. If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance
between the body centered atom and one corner atom
in the cube will be
(1)
4
a
3
(2)
3
a
4
(3)
3
a
2
(4)
2
a
3
Answer (3)
Sol. Half of body diagonal,
3a
2
.
33. Which one of the following species has plane
triangular shape?
(1)

3
NO (2)

2
NO
(3) CO
2
(4) N
3
Answer (1)
Sol.
O

N
O O
N is sp
2
hybrid and no lone pair.
(6)
34. Which of the following molecules has the maximum
dipole moment?
(1) CH
4
(2) NH
3
(3) NF
3
(4) CO
2
Answer (2)
Sol. Fact.
35. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions
increases in the order
(1) H
2
Se < H
2
S < H
2
Te (2) H
2
Te < H
2
S < H
2
Se
(3) H
2
Se < H
2
Te < H
2
S (4) H
2
S < H
2
Se < H
2
Te
Answer (4)
Sol. Bond length increases from H
2
S to H
2
Te.
36. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is
(1) Increasing nuclear charge
(2) Decreasing nuclear charge
(3) Decreasing screening effect
(4) Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals
Answer (4)
Sol. Fact.
37. Which of the following statements is correct for the
spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
(1) S is negative and therefore, H should be highly
negative
(2) S is positive and, therefore, H should be
negative
(3) S is positive and, therefore, H should also be
highly positive
(4) S is negative and, therefore, H should be
highly positive
Answer (1)
Sol. For adsorption S = ve, H = ve.
38. Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold
conditions only is
(1) Sucralose (2) Aspartame
(3) Alitame (4) Saccharine
Answer (2)
Sol. Aspartame decomposes at cooking temperature.
39. Equal masses of H
2
, O
2
and methane have been taken
in a container of volume V at temperature 27C in
identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of
gases H
2
: O
2
: methane would be
(1) 16 : 8 : 1 (2) 16 : 1 : 2
(3) 8 : 1 : 2 (4) 8 : 16 : 1
Answer (2)
Sol. Ratio or moles (volume)

W W W
: :
2 32 16
16 : 1 : 2
40. (a) H
2
O
2
+ O
3
H
2
O + 2O
2
(b) H
2
O
2
+ Ag
2
O 2Ag + H
2
O + O
2
Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is
respectively
(1) Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)
(2) Reducing in (a) and (b)
(3) Oxidizing in (a) and (b)
(4) Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)
Answer (4)
Sol. (a) H
2
O
2
is reduced.
(b) Ag
2
O is reduced.
41. Among the following sets of reactants which one
produces anisole?
(1) C
6
H
5
OH; NaOH; CH
3
I
(2) C
6
H
5
OH; neutral FeCl
3
(3) C
6
H
5
CH
3
; CH
3
COCl; AlCl
3
(4) CH
3
CHO; RMgX
Answer (1)
Sol.
OH ONa OCH
3
NaOH CH Br
3
42. When 0.1 mol
2
4
MnO is oxidised the quantity of
electricity required to completely oxidise
2
4
MnO to

4
MnO is
(1) 2 96500 C (2) 9650 C
(3) 96.50 C (4) 96500 C
Answer (2)
Sol.
+ +

7 6
1 F 2 2
4 4
1 mole
MnO MnO
For 0.1 mole 0.1 F is required.
(7)
43. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which
one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?
(1) C
6
H
12
O
6
(2) Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
(3) K
2
SO
4
(4) KCl
Answer (2)
Sol. Van't Hoff factor of Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
is maximum i.e., 5.
44. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be
identified with the following quantum numbers?
n = 3, l = l, m
l
= 0
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1
Answer (4)
Sol. Orbital is 3p
z
.
45. D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields
an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be
(1)
CH = NOH
HO C H
HO C H
H C OH
H C OH
CH OH
2
(2)
CH = NOH
HO C H
H C OH
H C OH
CH OH
2
HO C H
(3)
CH = NOH
HO C H
H C OH
H C OH
CH OH
2
H C OH
(4)
CH = NOH
HO C H
H C OH
CH OH
2
H C OH
HO C H
Answer (3)
Sol. Glucoxime is formed.
46. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by
R.H. Whittaker is not based on
(1) Mode of reproduction
(2) Mode of nutrition
(3) Complexity of body organisation
(4) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
Answer (4)
Sol. The main criteria of Whittaker's system are :- Cell
type, Thallus organisation, Nutrition, Reprodution
& phylogenetic relationship.
47. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is
to produce
(1) Progesterone
(2) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(3) Relaxin only
(4) Estrogen only
Answer (1)
Sol. Corpus luteum secretes steroid hormones
progesterone and estrogen.
48. In which one of the following processes CO
2
is not
released?
(1) Aerobic respiration in animals
(2) Alcoholic fermentation
(3) Lactate fermentation
(4) Aerobic respiration in plants
Answer (3)
Sol.
Glucose
2NAD
+
2NADH + H
+
2 Pyruvic acid
2NAD
+
2NADH + H
+
2 lactic acid
49. Choose the correctly matched pair:
(1) Moist surface of buccal cavity-Glandular
epithelium
(2) Tubular parts of nephrons-Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Inner surface of bronchioles-Squamous
epithelium
(4) Inner lining of salivary ducts - Ciliated
epithelium
Answer (2)
Sol. Moist surface of buccal cavity Stratified
non-keratinised squamous epithelium
Inner surface of bronchioles Ciliated epithelium
Inner lining of salivary ducts Cuboidal epithelium
50. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand
and capsomeres?
(1) Tobacco mosaic virus
(2) Measles virus
(3) Retrovirus
(4) Polio virus
Answer (1)
Sol. RNA is single stranded helically coiled with 6400
ribonucleotides.
(8)
51. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to
escape the heat for the duration of hot summer,
thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other
extremely cold northern regions move to
(1) Meghalaya
(2) Corbett National Park
(3) Keolado National Park
(4) Western Ghat
Answer (3)
Sol. Every winter the famous Keolado National Park
(Bharatpur) in Rajasthan host thousands of
migratory birds coming from Siberia and other
extremely cold northern region.
52. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a
dicot root. Which of the following anatomical
structures will you use to distinguish between the
two?
(1) Secondary phloem
(2) Protoxylem
(3) Cortical cells
(4) Secondary xylem
Answer (2)
Sol. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith)
and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the
organ. This type of primary xylem is called endarch.
In root, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and
metaxylem lies towards the centre, such arrangement
is called exarch.
53. In 'S' phase of the cell cycle
(1) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(2) Chromosome number is increased
(3) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
(4) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
Answer (4)
Sol. S or synthesis phase marks the period where DNA
synthesis takes place. During this time the amount
of DNA per cell doubles.
54. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in
the immediate future is called
(1) Endemic (2) Critically Endangered
(3) Extinct (4) Vulnerable
Answer (2)
Sol. A taxon facing extremely high risk of extinction in
the immediate future is called critically endangered.
55. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
(1) Dominant epistasis (2) Complementary genes
(3) Inhibitory genes (4) Recessive epistasis
Answer (1)
Sol. Dominant epistasis is the phenomenon of masking
or supressing the expression of a gene by a dominant
non-allelic gene.
eg, fruit colour in Cucurbita pepo (Summer squash)
56. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of
source and function
(1) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal
rhythm of sleepwake cycle
(2) Progesterone - corpus-luteum, stimulation of
growth and activities of female secondary sex
organs
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall
increases the blood pressure
(4) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and
maintenance of mammary glands
Answer (1)
Sol. Atrial Natriuretic factor is secreted by atrial wall of
heart. Oxytocin is synthesised by hypothalamous.
57. An example of edible underground stem is
(1) Groundnut (2) Sweet potato
(3) Potato (4) Carrot
Answer (3)
Sol. Sweet potato, Carrot Edible root.
Potato Edible underground stem.
58. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium
reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
(1) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(2) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(3) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
(4) Increase in aldosterone levels
Answer (4)
Sol. Aldosterone stimulates Na
+
and water reabsorption
in DCT.
59. Which structures perform the function of
mitochondria in bacteria?
(1) Ribosomes (2) Cell wall
(3) Mesosomes (4) Nucleoid
Answer (3)
Sol. Mesosomes help in respiration, secretion processes,
to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane
and enzymatic contact.
(9)
60. Select the option which is not correct 0with respect
to enzyme action
(1) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the
inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
malonate
(2) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at
a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
(3) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic
dehydrogenase
(4) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
Answer (1)
Sol. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is
an example of competitive inhibition. This is
reversible reaction. On increasing the substrate
(succinate) concentration the effect of inhibitor is
removed and V
max
remain same.
61. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained
from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown
below?
(1) Depressant (2) Stimulant
(3) Pain-killer (4) Hallucinogen
Answer (4)
Sol. The plant illustrated in diagram is Datura which has
hallucinogenic properties.
62. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa
cells of intestine by the process called
(1) Facilitated transport
(2) Simple diffusion
(3) Co-transport mechanism
(4) Active transport
Answer (1)
Sol. Fructose is absorbed with the help of the carrier ions
like Na
+
. This mechanism is called facilitated
transport.
63. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a
diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of
monomer are known as
(1) Microfilaments (2) Intermediate filaments
(3) Lamins (4) Microtubules
Answer (1)
Sol. Microfilaments are ultramicroscopic long, narrow
cylindrical solid rods or protein filaments
(actin protein) of approx 8 nm in dm.
64. Which one of the following living organisms
completely lacks a cell wall?
(1) Sea - fan (Gorgonia) (2) Saccharomyces
(3) Blue - green algae (4) Cyanobacteria
Answer (1)
Sol. Gorgonia (sea-fan) is an animal. All animal lack cell
wall.
65. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in :
(1) Being imperforate
(2) Lacking nucleus
(3) Being lignified
(4) Having casparian strips
Answer (1)
Sol. Vessel is a long cylindrical tube like structure made
of many cells, called vessel members, each with
lignified walls and a large central cavity. Vessel
members are interconnected through perforation in
their common walls
66. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with
the example in human skeletal system :
Type of joint Example
(1) Pivot joint - between third and
fourth cervical
vertebrae
(2) Hinge joint - between humerus
and pectoral girdle
(3) Gliding joint - between carpals
(4) Cartilaginous joint - between frontal and
pariental
Answer (3)
Sol. Joint between carpals is gliding joint
67. A man whose father was colour blind marries a
woman who had a colour blind mother and normal
father. What percentage of male children of this
couple will be colour blind?
(1) 0% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 25%
Answer (2)
(10)
Sol. X Y
+
X
+
X
Y
X
+
X
c
X
+
X
c
X
+
X
c
X
+
X
c
X
+
Y X
c
Y
Colourblind male = 50%
68. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark
room. After a few days they were found to have
become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the
following terms will you use to describe them?
(1) Embolised (2) Etiolated
(3) Defoliated (4) Mutated
Answer (2)
Sol. Etiolation is depigmentation is leaf when plant is
placed in dark for more than 36 hrs.
69. Function of filiform apparatus is to :
(1) Stimulate division of generative cell
(2) Produce nectar
(3) Guide the entry of pollen tube
(4) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
Answer (3)
Sol. Filiform apparatus, present in synergids, play an
important role in guiding the pollen tube into the
synergid.
70. Choose the correctly matched pair :
(1) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
(2) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
(3) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
(4) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
Answer (2)
Sol. Areolar and adipose tissue are loose connective
tissue while tendon is dense connective tissue.
Cartilage is specialized connective tissue.
71. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of
whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used
in flying are an example of :
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Homologous organs
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Analogous organs
Answer (2)
Sol. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking, forelimbs of
whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used
in flying are the examples of homologous. All are
modified forelimbs, with the same types of bones,
they have become different due to adaptation to
habitat
72. Which one of the following is a non-reducing
carbohydrate?
(1) Sucrose (2) Lactose
(3) Ribose 5-phosphate (4) Maltose
Answer (1)
Sol. Lactose, Maltose, Ribose 5-phosphate all are reducing
sugars.
73. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually
show symptoms of AIDS?
(1) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
(2) When HIV damages large numebr of helper T-
Lymphocytes
(3) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse
transcriptase
(4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected
person
Answer (2)
Sol. Symptoms of AIDS would appear in the late stage of
HIV infection, when the virus attacks 'Helper-T-cells'
and causes their depletion
74. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge
digesters?
(1) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO
2
(2) Methane, hdyrogen sulphide and O
2
(3) Hydrogen sulphide and CO
2
(4) Methane and CO
2
only
Answer (1)
Sol. In anaerobic sludge digesters, bacteria produce a
mixture of gases like CH
4
, H
2
S and CO
2
.
75. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Ulva
(4) Rhodospirillum
Answer (4)
Sol. In Rhodospirillum, electron donor is organic
compound during photosynthesis.
(11)
76. Match the following and select the correct option :
(a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species
(b) Succession (ii) Detritivore
(c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality
(d) Population growth (iv) Pollination
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer (3)
Sol. Detrivores, (eg. earthworm) break down detritus into
smaller particles.
The species that invade a base area in succession is
called pioneer species.
77. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the
trees indicates that the
(1) Trees are heavily infested
(2) Location is highly polluted
(3) Location is not polluted
(4) Trees are very healthy
Answer (3)
Sol. Lichens are very good pollution indicators, they do
not grow in polluted areas.
78. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized
by
(1) Northern blotting
(2) Electrophoresis and HPLC
(3) Microscopy
(4) PCR and RAPD
Answer (4)
Sol. Now a days PCR & RAPD technique are used for the
characterisation of in vitro clonal propagation in
plants.
Option (3) is also correct.
79. An alga which can be employed as food for human
being is
(1) Chlorella (2) Spirogyra
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Ulothrix
Answer (1)
Sol. Chlorella is rich in proteins and are used as food
supplements even by space travellers.
80. Which one of the following growth regulators is
known as stress hormone?
(1) Ethylene (2) GA
3
(3) Indole acetic acid (4) Abscisic acid
Answer (4)
Sol. ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the
epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stresses.
81. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage
of meiosis?
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis (4) Pachytene
Answer (4)
Sol. Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process and
the enzyme involved is called recombinase.
82. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves
transfer of
(1) Zygote into the fallopian tube
(2) Zygote into the uterus
(3) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian
tube
(4) Ovum into the fallopian tube
Answer (1)
Sol. In IVF, zygote or the embryo upto 8-celled stage is
transferred into the fallopian tube
83. An example of ex situ conservation is
(1) Seed Bank (2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) Sacred Grove (4) National Park
Answer (1)
Sol. In situ conservation strategies National park,
biosphere reserve, sanctuaries, sacred groves.
84. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is
chiefly regulated by
(1) Vacuoles (2) Plastids
(3) Ribosomes (4) Mitochondria
Answer (1)
Sol. Vacuoles
85. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?
(1) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
(2) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
(3) Globule is male reproductive structure
(4) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
Answer (2)
Sol. Nucule/oogonium/upper sex organ
Globule/antheridium/lower sex organ
(12)
86. The first human hormone produced by recombinant
DNA technology is
(1) Estrogen (2) Thyroxin
(3) Progesterone (4) Insulin
Answer (4)
Sol. The first hormone produced by recombinant DNA
technology is insulin.
87. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) In retina the rods have the photopigment
rhodopsin while cones have three different
photopigments
(2) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C
(3) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in
rods only
(4) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual
photopigments
Answer (2)
Sol. Retinal pigment is an aldehyde of vitamin A.
88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
(2) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in
maize grain
(3) A sterile pistil is called a staminode
(4) The seed in grasses is not endospermic
Answer (2)
Sol. Mango seeded fruit
Sterile stamen staminode
Seeds in grasses endospermic
89. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
(1) Breeding programmes
(2) Supplementing food
(3) Ex situ conservation
(4) In vitro fertilization
Answer (2)
Sol. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and it has become
a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as food
supplements.
90. Select the correct option
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
3 5



5 3
3 5
5 3
Direction of
RNA synthesis
Direction of reading
of the template DNA
strand
5 3



5 3
3 5
3 5
Answer (4)
Sol. RNA Polymers catalyse polymerisation only in one
direction, that is 5 3 and the strand that has the
polarity 3 5 act as a template.
91. The organization which publishes the Red List of
species is
(1) IUCN (2) UNEP
(3) WWF (4) ICFRE
Answer (1)
Sol. The IUCN Red List of threatened species (also known
as the IUCN Red List or Red Data List), founded in
1964, is the world's most comprehensive inventory
of th global conservation status of biological species.
92. A human female with Turner's syndrome
(1) Has one additional X chromosome
(2) Exhibits male characters
(3) Is able to produce children with normal husband
(4) Has 45 chromosomes with XO
Answer (4)
Sol. Turner's syndrome is caused due to the absence of
one of the X chromosomes i.e. 45 with XO
(or 44 + XO).
93. Match the following and select the correct answer
Column I Column II
a. Centriole (i) Infoldings in
mitochondria
b. Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
c. Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
d. Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or
flagella
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(13)
Answer (4)
Sol. Ribozyme is catalytic RNA.
94. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide
absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
(1) In the form of dissolved gas molecules
(2) By binding to R.B.C.
(3) As carbamino-haemoglobin
(4) As bicarbonate ions
Answer (4)
Sol. Nearly 20 25 percent of CO
2
is transported by
RBCs, whereas, 70 percent of it is carried as
bicarbonates. About 7 percent of CO
2
is carried as
dissolved state in plasma.
95. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of
DNA?
(1) Yeast artificial chromosome
(2) Plasmid
(3) Cosmid
(4) Bacterial artificial chromosome
Answer (2)
Sol. Plasmid can clone only a small fragment of DNA
about 10 kbp size
Cosmid 45 kbp
YAC 1 Mbp/ 1000 kbp 2,500 kbp
BAC 300 to 350 kbp
96. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is
present is called
(1) Mesosphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Troposphere (4) Ionosphere
Answer (2)
Sol. Good ozone is found in the upper part of the
atmosphere called the stratosphere and it acts as a
shield absorbing UV rays from the sun.
97. Which one of the following fungi contains
hallucinogens?
(1) Amanita muscaria (2) Neurospora sp.
(3) Ustilago sp. (4) Morchella esculenta
Answer (1)
Sol. Amanita muscaria is noted for its hallucinogenic
properties, with its main psychoactive constituent
being the compound muscimol.
98. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial
plant removes
(1) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or
above
(2) Gases like ozone and methane
(3) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or
less
(4) Gases like sulphur dioxide
Answer (4)
Sol. A sucrubber can remove gases like SO
2
in which the
exhaust is passed through a spray of water or lime.
99. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both
marine and fresh water species
(1) Ctenophora (2) Cephalochordata
(3) Cnidaria (4) Echinoderms
Answer (3)
Sol. Members of ctenophora, cephalochordata and
echinodermata are exclusively marine.
100. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one
another without any particular direction, the
condition is termed as
(1) Imbricate (2) Twisted
(3) Valvate (4) Vexillary
Answer (1)
Sol. Imbricate aestivation Cassia, gulmohur.
101. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from
(1) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium
(2) Complete inflorescence
(3) Multicarpellary superior ovary
(4) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
Answer (1)
Sol. Aggregate fruits are developed from multicarpellary
apocarpus gynoecium.
102. Commonly used vectors for human genome
sequencing are
(1) BAC and YAC
(2) Expression Vectors
(3) T/A Cloning Vectors
(4) T-DNA
Answer (1)
Sol. Commonly used vectors for human genome
sequencing are BAC (Bacterial artificial chromosome)
and YAC (Yeast Artificial chromosome)
(14)
103. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased
one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of
the diseased plant will be taken?
(1) Palisade parenchyma
(2) Both apical and axillary meristems
(3) Epidermis only
(4) Apical meristem only
Answer (2)
Sol. Apical and axillary meristems are free of virus.
104. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of
(1) The kidney, leading to suppression of
reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway
(2) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased
secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene
(3) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood
sugar levels
(4) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased
metabolic rate
Answer (2)
Sol. In fight or flight reactions, emergency hormones are
secreted by adrenal medulla.
105. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron
occurs at
(1) The transverse tubules
(2) The myofibril
(3) The sacroplasmic reticulum
(4) The neuromuscular junction
Answer (4)
Sol. Neuromuscular junction is the junction between
motor neuron and muscle fibre.
106. Planaria possess high capacity of
(1) Regeneration
(2) Alternation of generation
(3) Bioluminescence
(4) Metamorphosis
Answer (1)
Sol. Planaria, is a flatworm which possess a high power
of regeneration.
107. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in
(1) Banana (2) Tomato
(3) Potato (4) Apple
Answer (2)
Sol. Tomatoedible part is pericarp and placenta.
108. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are
visible first in
(1) Young leaves (2) Roots
(3) Buds (4) Senescent leaves
Answer (4)
Sol. N and K are mobile elements.
109. Geitonogamy involves
(1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the
same flower
(2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
flower of another plant in the same population
(3) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a
flower of another plant belonging to a distant
population
(4) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from
another flower of the same plant
Answer (4)
Sol. Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen grains from the
anther to the stigma of another flower of the same
plant.
110. Viruses have
(1) Prokaryotic nucleus
(2) Single chromosome
(3) Both DNA and RNA
(4) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
Answer (4)
Sol. Nucleoprotein particles
111. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the
working of the heart?
(1) Heart rate is increased without affecting the
cardiac output
(2) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(3) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
(4) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
Answer (4)
Sol. Post-ganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous
system secrete acetylcholine which decrease heart
rate and cardiac output.
112. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric
current is
(1) Torpedo (2) Trygon
(3) Scoltodon (4) Pristis
Answer (1)
Sol. Torpedo-Electric ray can produce electric current.
(15)
113. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the
southern hybridisation technique does not use
(1) Blotting
(2) Autoradiography
(3) PCR
(4) Electrophoresis
Answer (3)
Sol. PCR is only for amplification of DNA.
114. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in
(1) Mode of nutrition
(2) Cell shape
(3) Mode of reproduction
(4) Cell membrane structure
Answer (4)
Sol. Cell membrane of archaebacteria possesses branched
chain lipids.
115. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how
much energy will be available to peacock as food in
the following chain?
Plant Mice Snake Peacock
(1) 0.002 J (2) 0.2 J
(3) 0.0002 J (4) 0.02 J
Answer (4)
Sol. Plant 20 J
Mice 20 10% = 2 J
Snake 2 10% = 0.2 J
Peacock 0.2 10% = 0.02 J
116. Which one of the following are analogous structures?
(1) Gills of prawn and lungs of man
(2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(3) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse
(4) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon
Answer (1)
Sol. Wings of bat are skin folds stretched mainly between
elongated finger but the wings of birds are a feather
covering all along the arm. They look similar because
they have a common use for flying, but their origin
are not common. This makes them analogous
characteristics rather than homologous
characteristics.
As per 10
th
class NCERT option (4) can also taken
as correct option.
117. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed
and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would
produce a bending when placed on one side of
freshly cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance
is this experiment?
(1) It is the basis for quantitative determination of
small amounts of growth-promoting substances
(2) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
(3) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins
(4) It made possible the isolation and exact
identification of auxin
Answer (4)
Sol. F.W. went isolated auxin from Avena coleoptile tip.
118. Non-albuminous seed is produced in
(1) Castor
(2) Wheat
(3) Pea
(4) Maize
Answer (3)
Sol. Seed of garden pea is ex-albuminous or non
endospermic.
119. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA
in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is
denoted as 2C?
(1) G
1
and S
(2) Only G
2
(3) G
2
and M
(4) G
0
and G
1
Answer (2)
Sol. In M-phase, both 4C and 2C of DNA are present in
different stages.
120. Transformation was discovered by
(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Griffith
(3) Watson and Crick
(4) Meselson and Stahl
Answer (2)
Sol. In 1928, Frederick Griffith performed transformation
experiment by using Streptococcus pneumoniae.
(16)
121. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus
cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks
(A-D). Identify the blanks.
Consumers
A
Soil solution
B
C
Uptake
Run off
D
Options :
(1)
(2)
(3)
A B C
Litter
fall
Producers Rock
minerals
D
Detritus
Detritus Rock
minerals
Producer Litter
fall
Producers Litter
fall
Rock
minerals
Detritus
Rock
minerals
Detritus Litter
fall
Producers
(4)
Answer (2)
Sol. A Detritus
B Rock minerals
C Producer
D Litter fall
122. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to
genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa.
Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the
population is
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.6
(3) 0.7 (4) 0.4
Answer (2)
Sol. According to Hardy Weinberg principle.
p
2
+ 2pq + q
2
= 1; (p + q)
2
= 1
(AA) p
2
= 360 out of 1000 individual or p
2
= 36 out
of 100
q
2
= 160 out of 1000 or q
2
= 16 out of 100
so q =
.16
= .4. As p + q = 1
so, p is 0.6.
123. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
(1) Ovaries are removed surgically
(2) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(3) Uterus is removed surgically
(4) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied
up
Answer (4)
Sol. In tubectomy, small part of fallopian tube is removed
or tied up.
124. Which of the following is responsible for peat
formation?
(1) Riccia (2) Funaria
(3) Sphagnum (4) Marchantia
Answer (3)
Sol. Species of Sphagnum, a moss provides peat that have
long been used as fuel.
125. Which one of the following shows isogamy with
non-flagellated gametes?
(1) Ectocarpus (2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra (4) Sargassum
Answer (3)
Sol. Spirogyra shows isogamy with non-lagellated
gametes.
126. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Translation-Using information in m-RNA to
make protein
(2) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop
enzyme synthesis
(3) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter
(4) Transcription-Writing information from DNA to
t-RNA
Answer (3)
Sol. Operon consist of - regulator gene, promotor gene,
operator gene and structural gens.
127. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra
Uterine Device (IUD)?
(1) LNG-20 (2) Cervical cap
(3) Vault (4) Multiload 375
Answer (1)
Sol. LNG-20 is a hormone releasing intra-uterine device
(IUD).
128. Given below is the representation of the extent of
global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four
portions (A-D) represent respectively?
D
C
B
A
(17)
Options :
(1)
(2)
B C D
Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animal
Groups
Molluscs Other animal
Groups
Crustaceans Insects
(3) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal
Groups
(4) Insects Crustaceans Other animal
Groups
Molluscs
Answer (3)
Sol. A Insects
B Molluscs
C Crustaceans
D Other animal groups
129. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is
present in :
(1) Funaria (2) Lilium
(3) Pinus (4) Pteris
Answer (2)
Sol. Male gametophyte is highly reduced in angiosperm
and is known as pollen grain. It is 2 or 3-celled.
130. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
urinary system in the human male is
(1) Ureter
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Vasa efferentia
(4) Urethra
Answer (4)
Sol. In human male, urethra is urinogenital duct carry
urine and sperm both.
131. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most
likely disrupt
(1) Co-ordination during locomotion
(2) Executive function, such as decision making
(3) Regulation of body temperature
(4) Short term memory
Answer (3)
Sol. Hypothalamus regulates body temperature.
132. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin
activity in a normal pregnant female
(1) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation
of the embryo
(2) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of
estrogen and progesterone
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of
endometrium
(4) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the
thickening of endometrium
Answer (2)
Sol. In pregnant female, hCG maintains the corpus luteum
which secretes estrogen and progesterone.
133. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is
carried out by?
(1) Trypsin (2) Rennin
(3) Pepsin (4) Lipase
Answer (2)
Sol. The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is
carried out by rennin.
134. The motile bacteria are able to move by
(1) Flagella (2) Cilia
(3) Pili (4) Fimbriae
Answer (1)
Sol. Motile bacteria have thin filamentous extensions from
their cell wall called flagella.
135. Person with blood group AB is considered as
universal recipient because he has
(1) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(2) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the
plasma
(3) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no
antibodies
(4) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies
in the plasma
Answer (4)
Sol. Person with blood group AB has both A and B
antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.
136. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q.
The electric potential and the electric field at the
centre of the sphere respectively are
(1)

0
4
Q
R
and zero (2)

0
4
Q
R
and

2
0
4
Q
R
(3) Both are zero (4) Zero and

2
0
4
Q
R
(18)
Answer (1)
Sol. Electric potential, =

0
4
Q
V
R
Electric field E = 0.
137. If n
1
, n
2
and n
3
are the fundamental frequencies of
three segments into which a string is divided, then
the original fundamental frequency n of the string is
given by
(1)
= + +
1 2 3
1 1 1 1
n n n n
(2) = + +
1 2 3
n n n n
(3) n = n
1
+

n
2
+

n
3
(4)
= + +
1 2 3
1 1 1 1
n n n n
Answer (4)
Sol.
l
1
l
2
l
3
n
1
n
2
n
3
=

1
1
1
;
2
T
n
l
2
2
1
;
2
T
n
l
=

3
3
1
2
T
n
l
=

1
2
T
n
l
(l = l
1
+ l
2
+ l
3
)
3 1 2
1 2 3
2 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 l l l l
n n n n T T T T
= = + + = + +

138. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of
length l. When this wire is subjected to a constant
force F, the extension produced in the wire is l .
Which of the following graphs is a straight line?
(1)
l
versus l
2
(2)
l
versus
2
1
l
(3)
l
versus l (4)
l
versus
1
l
Answer (1)
Sol. V = Al,
2
Fl Fl Fl
Y l
A l AY VY
= = =

2
l l
139. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process
ABCDA as shown in figure. The work done by the
system in the cycle is
P
C B
A
D
V
0
2V
0
3 P
0
2 P
0
P
0
V
(1) 2P
0
V
0
(2)
0 0
2
PV
(3) Zero (4) P
0
V
0
Answer (3)
Sol.
P
C B
A
D
V
0
2V
0
3 P
0
2 P
0
P
0
V
E
W = Area of BCE + Area of ADE
= W
0
+ W
0
= 0
140. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K
1
and K
2
(K
1
< K
2
) are inserted between plates of a
parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The
variation of electric field E between the plates with
distance d as measured from plate P is correctly
shown by
+
+
K
1

K
2
Q P
(1)
E
0
d
(2)
E
0
d
(3)
d
E
0
(4)
d
E
0
(19)
Answer (2)
Sol. Electric field inside parallel plate capacitor having
charge Q at place where dielectric is absent =

0
Q
A
where dielectric is present =

0
Q
KA
141. The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge
are 5

and R

, respectively. When the resistance

R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new
balance point is at 1.6 l
1
. The resistance R, is :
G
5 R
l
1
100 l
1
B A
(1) 15 (2) 20
(3) 25 (4) 10
Answer (1)
Sol. Initially, =

1 1
5
100
R
l l
...(i)
Finally, =

1 1
5
1.6 2(100 1.6 )
R
l l
...(ii)
=

1 1
1.6(100 ) 2(100 1.6 )
R R
l l
160 1.6 l
1
= 200 3.2 l
1
1.6 l
1
= 40
l
1
= 25
From Equation (i),
=
5
25 75
R
R = 15 .
142. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius
r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal
magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential
difference developed across the ring when its speed
is v, is



B
Q
P R
r
(1) Bvr
2
/2 and P is at higher potential
(2) rBv and R is at higher potential
(3) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
(4) Zero
Answer (3)
Sol.
= BL
eff
v (L
eff
= Diameter)
= B 2Rv
143. A particle is moving such that its position
coordinates (x, y) are
(2m, 3m) at time t = 0,
(6m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and
(13m, 14m) at time t = 5 s
Average velocity vector

( )
av
V from t = 0 to t = 5 s is
(1)
+
7

( )
3
i j
(2) +

2( ) i j
(3)
+
11

( )
5
i j
(4)
+
1

(13 14 )
5
i j
Answer (3)
Sol.
+
=

2 1 2 1
2 1

( ) ( )
av
x x i y y j
V
t t
+
=

(13 2) (14 3)
5 0
i j

11 11 1

( )
5 5
i j
i j
+ 1
= = +
(20)
144. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD
are placed at right angle to each other, with one
above other such that O is their common point for
the two. The wires carry I
1
and I
2
currents,
respectively. Point P is lying at distance d from O
along a direction perpendicular to the plane
containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point
P will be
(1)

0
1 2
( )
2
I I
d
(2)

2 2 0
1 2
( )
2
i I
d
(3) ( )

1/2
2 2 0
1 2
2
I I
d
(4)

0 1
2
2
I
d I
Answer (3)
Sol.
I
1
I
2
B
2
B
1
d
= +
2 2
1 2
B B B
( )
1
2 2 0
2
1 2
2
I I
d

= +

145. A system consists of three masses m

1
, m
2
and m
3
connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The
mass m
1
hangs freely and m
2
and m
3
are on a rough
horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = )
The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The
downward acceleration of mass m
1
is
(Assume m
1
= m
2
= m
3
=

m)
m
2
m
1
m
3
P
(1)
2
3
g
(2)
(1 2 )
3
g
(3)
(1 2 )
2
g
(4)
(1 )
9
g g
Answer (2)
Sol.
[ ] +
= =
+ +
1 2 3
1 2 3
2 ( )
3
m g g m g m m g
a
m m m m
[ ] 1 2
3
g
=
a a
P
m
2
g m
3
g
a
m
1
g
146. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through
the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G,
the resistance of ammeter will be
(1)
499
500
G
(2)
1
500
G
(3)
500
499
G
(4)
1
499
G
Answer (2)
Sol.
= = =
100
500
0.2
g
I
n
I
= =
500
A
G G
R
n
147. Following figures show the arrangement of bar
magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has
magnetic dipole moment

m
. Which configuration
has highest net magnetic dipole moment?
a.
S
N
S N
b.
S N
N S
c.
S N
30
N
S
N
d.
S N
60
N
S
N
(1) b (2) c
(3) d (4) a
Answer (2)
(21)
Sol. a.
m
m
M m
1
= 2
b.
m
m

M
2
= 0
c.
30
m
m
3
(1 cos 30 )2 M m = +

3
1 2
2
m

= +




2 3 m = +
d.
60
m
m
M
4
= 2 mcos30

3 m =
148. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then
magnifying power of
(1) Microscope and telescope both will increase
(2) Microscope and telescope both will decrease
(3) Microscope will decrease but that of telescope
will increase
(4) Microscope will increase but that of telescope
decrease
Answer (3)
Sol. MP of microscope
0
1
e
L P
f f

= +


MP of telescope
0
1
e
e
f f
f D

= +


149. The angle of a prism is A. One of its refracting
surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of
incidence 2A on the first surface returns back
through the same path after suffering reflection at the
silvered surface. The refractive index , of the prismis
(1) 2 cos A (2)
1
cos
2
A
(3) tan A (4) 2sin A
Answer (1)
Sol. Normal incidence at silvered surface
2A
A
9
0

A
A

= = =
sin sin2 2sin cos
so, 2 cos
sin sin sin
i A A A
A
r A A
150. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal
surface is represented by the equation,
X = Acos(t)
where X = displacement at time t
= frequency of oscillation
Which one of the following graphs shows correctly
the variation a with t?
(1)
O
a
T t
(2)
O
a
T t
(3)
O
a
T t
(4)
O
a
T t
Here a = acceleration at time t
T = time period
(22)
Answer (2)
Sol. X = Acost
O
a
t
sin
dx
v A t
dt
= =
2
2
2
cos
d x
a A t
dt
= =
151. The given graph represents V I characteristic for a
semiconductor device.
I
V
A
B
Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent
open circuit voltage and current, respectively
(2) It is for a photodiode and points A and B
represent open circuit voltage and current,
respectively
(3) It is for a LED and points A and B represents
open circuit voltage and short circuit current
respectively
(4) It is V I characteristic for solar cell where point
A represents open circuit voltage and point B
short circuit current
Answer (4)
Sol. Solar cell Open circuit I = 0, potential V = emf
Short circuit I = I, potential V = 0
152. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of
earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly
represented by
(1)
O
E
R
r
(2)
O
E
R
r
(3)
O
E
R
r
(4)
O
E
R
r
Answer (4)
Sol. in
3
GMr
E
R
=
O
E
R
r
out
2
GM
E
r
=
153. The number of possible natural oscillations of air
column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm
whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are (velocity of
sound = 340 ms
1
)
(1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 4
Answer (3)
Sol. l
c
= 0.85 m
1
0
340 ms
100
4 4 0.85m
c
v
f Hz
l

= = =

f
n
= (2n + 1)f
0
= f
0
, 3f
0
, 5f
0
, 7f
0
, 9f
0
, 11f
0
, 13f
0
= 100 Hz, 300 Hz, 500 Hz, 700 Hz,
900 Hz, 1100 Hz
154. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric poiwer is sent
from one city to another city through copper wires.
The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average
resistance per km is 0.5 . The power loss in the wire
is
(1) 19.2 kW (2) 19.2 J
(3) 12.2 kW (4) 19.2 W
Answer (1)
Sol. Resistance = 150 0.5 = 75
8
16A
0.5
V
I
R

= = =

P = I
2
R = (16)
2
75 W = 19200 = 19.2 kW
(23)
155. A beam of light of = 600 nm from a distant source
falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away.
The distance between first dark fringes on either side
of the central bright fringe is
(1) 1.2 mm (2) 2.4 cm
(3) 2.4 mm (4) 1.2 cm
Answer (3)
Sol. Distance between 1
st
order dark fringes = width of
principal max
9
3
2 2 600 10 2
10
D
x
d

= =
= 2400 10
6
= 2.4 10
3
m = 2.4 mm
156. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are
(1) [F V T
2
] (2) [F V
1
T
1
]
(3) [F V
1
T] (4) [F V T
1
]
Answer (3)
Sol. F = [M V T
1
]
M = [F V
1
T]
157. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on :
a. Type of semiconductor material
b. Amount of doping
c. Temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
(1) b only (2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c (4) a and b only
Answer (3)
Sol. It depends on all.
158. The binding energy per nucleon of
7
3
Li and
4
2
He
nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In
the nuclear reaction
7 1 4 4
3 1 2 2
Li H He He Q + + + , the
value of energy Q released is
(1) 2.4 MeV (2) 8.4 MeV
(3) 17.3 MeV (4) 19.6 MeV
Answer (3)
Sol. Q = 2(BE of He) (BE of Li)
= 2 (4 7.06) (7 5.60)
= 56.48 39.2 = 17.3 MeV
159. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16
times its previous value, the percentage change in the
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is
(1) 75 (2) 60
(3) 50 (4) 25
Answer (1)
Sol.
2
h h
p mE
= = ( 2 ) p mE =
' 0.25
4 2 (16 )
h
m E

= = =
% change = 75%
160. Light with an energy flux of 25 10
4
Wm
2
falls on
a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If
the surface area is 15 cm
2
, the average force exerted
on the surface is
(1) 2.50 10
6
N (2) 1.20 10
6
N
(3) 3.0 10
6
N (4) 1.25 10
6
N
Answer (1)
Sol.
4 4
av
8
2 2 25 10 15 10
N
3 10
I A
F
c

= =

= 250 10
8
N = 2.5 10
6
N
161. In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z)
= 6x 8xy 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z
are in metres. The electric force experienced by a
charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is
(1) 30 N (2) 24 N
(3) 4 35 N (4) 6 5 N
Answer (3)
Sol. V = 6x 8xy 8y + 6yz
(6 8 ) 2
x
V
E y
x

= = =

( 8 8 6 ) 10
y
V
E x z
y

= = + =

6 6
z
V
E y
z

= = =

2 2 2
4 100 36 140
x y z
E E E E = + + = + + =
2 35 N/C =
4 35 N F qE = =
(24)
162. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of
him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that
traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at
18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If
the speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the
honk as heard by him will be
(1) 1372 Hz (2) 1412 Hz
(3) 1454 Hz (4) 1332 Hz
Answer (2)
Sol.
v
0
= 36 km/h = 10 m/s
O
v
S
= 18 km/h = 5 m/s
S f = 1392 Hz
( + + | |
= =
( |
+ +
\ .

0
343 10
' 1392 Hz
343 5
s
v v
f f
v v

= =
353
1392 Hz 1412 Hz
348
163. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass
m and radius R) rolling down an incline of angle ''
without slipping and slipping down the incline
without rolling is
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 5
(3) 7 : 5 (4) 5 : 7
Answer (4)
Sol. a
slipping
= gsin
rolling
2
2
sin 5
sin
7
1
g
a g
K
r

= =
+
rolling
slipping
5
7
a
a
=
164. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated
by the force-time graph shown below. The change in
momentum of the particle over the time interval from
zero to 8 s is
0
3
6
3
2 4 6 8
t (s)
F

(
N
)
(1) 20 Ns (2) 12 Ns
(3) 6 Ns (4) 24 Ns
Answer (2)
Sol. Change in momentum = Area below the F versus t
graph in that interval
1
2 6 (2 3) (4 3)
2

= +


= 6 6 + 12 = Ns
165. In the Young's double-slit experiement, the intensity
of light at a point on the screen where the path
difference is is K, ( being the wavelength of light
used). The intensity at a point where the path
difference is
4

, will be
(1)
4
K
(2)
2
K
(3) Zero (4) K
Answer (2)
Sol. Path difference means maxima I
max
= K
2 2
2 1
cos cos
2 4 2
I K K

= =

2
cos
4
K

=

2
K
=
166. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an
acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should
be removed from it so that it starts moving up with
an acceleration a?
(1)

2ma
g a
(2)
+
ma
g a
(3)

ma
g a
(4)
+
2ma
g a
Answer (4)
Sol. a mg B ma = (i)
B
mg
(25)
a
( ) m m g
0
B

B m m g = (m m a ( ) ) (ii)
0 0
Equation (i) + equation (ii)
mg mg + m
0
g = ma + ma m
0
a

0
2ma
m
g a
=
+
167. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding
the internal resistance of a given cell. The main
battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an
emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The
potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the
resistance, R, connected across the given cell, has
values of
(i) Infinity
(ii) 9.5 ,
the 'balancing lengths', on the potentiometer wire are
found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively.
The value of internal resistance of the cell is
(1) 0.95 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.25
Answer (2)
Sol.
1
2
1
l
r R
l

=



3 0.15
1 9.5 9.5
2.85 2.85

= =


= 0.5
168. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume
V expands isothermally to a volume 2 V and then
adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure of
the gas is (take =
5
3
)
(1) 32 P (2)
64
P
(3) 16 P (4) 64 P
Answer (2)
Sol. Step - 1 Isothermal Expansion
PV = P
2
2V
2
2
P
P =
Step - 2 Adiabatic Expansion
2 3 2 3
P V P V

=

5 5
3 3
3
(2 ) (16 )
2
P
V P V =

5
5
3
3
3
2 1
2 16 2 8 64
V P P P
P
V


= = =




169. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of
radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R
and volume V. If 'T' is the surface tension of the liquid,
then
(1) Energy =
| |
+

\ .
1 1
3VT
r R
is absorbed
(2) Energy =

1 1
3VT
r R
is released
(3) Energy is neither released nor absorbed
(4) Energy =
| |

\ .
1 1
4VT
r R
is released
Answer (2)
Sol. Energy released = (A
f
A
i
)T
3
2
3 3
4 4
3
f
V R
A R
R R
= = =
2 2
3
3
4 4
4
3
i
V V
A n r r
r
r
= = =

Energy released =
1 1
3VT
r R
(

(

170. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It
suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each
of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with
equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated
due to explosion is
(1)
3
2
mv
2
(2) 2 mv
2
(3) 4 mv
2
(4) mv
2
(26)
Answer (1)
Sol. Initial momentum = P
i
= 0
Final momentum P
f
= 0 =
3

mvi mvj P + +

3
2 P mv =
Total KE
2
2 2 3
1 1
2 2 2 2
P
mv mv
m
= + +

=
2 2 2
2
3 2
4 2
mv m v
mv
m
+ =
171. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
monochromatic radiation of = 975 . Number of
spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will
be
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 10 (4) 3
Answer (2)
Sol. Energy incident
34 8
10 19
6.63 10 3 10
eV
975 10 1.6 10
hc



= =

= 12.75 eV
The Hydrogen atom will be excited to n = 4
Number of spectral lines

= =
4(4 1)
6
2
172. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is
so strong that even light cannot escape from it.
To what approximate radius would earth
(mass = 5.98 10
24
kg) have to be compressed to be
a black hole?
(1) 10
6
m (2) 10
2
m
(3) 100 m (4) 10
9
m
Answer (2)
Sol.
= =
2
e
GM
V C
R

= =

11 24
2 8 2
2 2 6.67 10 5.98 10
(3 10 )
GM
R
C
3
2 6.67 5.98
10 m
9

=
3 2
8.86 10 m 10 m

=
173. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with
a velocity of 5 ms
1
and angle with the horizontal.
Another projectile fired from another planet with a
velocity of 3 ms
1
at the same angle follows a
trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the
projectile fired from the earth. The value of the
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms
2
)
is (given g = 9.8 ms
2
)
(1) 5.9 (2) 16.3
(3) 110.8 (4) 3.5
Answer (4)
Sol. =

2
2 2
tan
2 cos
gx
y x
u
For equal trajectories for same angle of projection
=
2
constant
g
u

=
2 2
9.8
5 3
g

= = =
2 2
9.8 9
3.528 m/s 3.5 m/s
25
g
174. Certain quantity of water cools from 70C to 60C in
the first 5 minutes and to 54C in the next 5 minutes.
The temperature of the surroundings is
(1) 20C (2) 42C
(3) 10C (4) 45C
Answer (4)
Sol. Newtons law of cooling
+
=

1 2 1 2
0
.
2
K
t
First [ ]

=
0
70 60
65
5
K
[ ] =
0
2 65 K ...(i)
Next [ ]

=
0
60 54
57
5
K
...(ii)
Diving (i) and (ii)

0
0
65 5
3 57
=
0 0
285 5 195 3
=
0
2 90
=
0
45
(27)
175. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is
free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless
string is wound round the cylinder with one end
attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in
the string required to produce an angular acceleration
of 2 revolutions s
2
is
(1) 50 N (2) 78.5 N
(3) 157 N (4) 25 N
Answer (3)
Sol.
r
T
Tr I =
I
T
r

=
2
2
mr
r

=
2
mr
=
50 0.5 2 2
N
2

= = 157 N
176. Steam at 100C is passed into 20 g of water at 10C.
When water acquires a temperature of 80C, the mass
of water present will be:
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g1C
1
and latent
heat of steam = 540 cal g
1
]
(1) 31.5 g (2) 42.5 g
(3) 22.5 g (4) 24 g
Answer (3)
Sol. Heat gain by water = Heat lost by steam
20 1 (80 10) = m 540 + m 1 (100 80)
1400 = 560 m
m = 2.5 g
Total mass of water = 20 + 2.5 = 22.5 g
177. A radio isotope X with a half life 1.4 10
9
years
decays of Y which is stable. A sample of the rock from
a cave was found to contain X and Y in the ratio 1 : 7.
The age of the rock is
(1) 3.92 10
9
years (2) 4.20 10
9
years
(3) 8.40 10
9
years (4) 1.96 10
9
years
Answer (2)
Sol. X : Y = 1 : 7
X : (X + Y) = 1 : 8 = 1 : 2
3
3 half life
T = 3 1.4 10
9
yrs = 4.2 10
9
yrs.
178. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working
on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in
the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the
secondary coil and the current in the primary coil
respectively are
(1) 450 V, 15 A (2) 450 V, 13.5 A
(3) 600 V, 15 A (4) 300 V, 15 A
Answer (1)
Sol. Power ouput = =
90
3kW 2.7 kW
100
= 6
b
I A
= =
2.7 kW
450 V
6 A
S
V
= =
3 kW
15 A
200
P
I
V
179. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased
by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV
to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
(1) 1.0 eV (2) 1.3 eV
(3) 1.5 eV (4) 0.65 eV
Answer (1)
Sol. = E hv
= 0.5 hv ...(1)
Again 0.8 = 1.2 hv ...(2)
From equation (1) 1.2 0.6 = 1.2 hv 1.2
Equation (2) 0.8 = 1.2 hv
+
=
=
0.2 0.2
1 eV
180. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius r)
is inversely proportional to
(1) r
2
(2) r
(3)
r
(4) r
3
Answer (1)
Sol.
= =

2 2
1 1
2 4 2 d n r n

2
1
r