Mock Test 9

Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109
LAW Prep Tutorial (P) Limited
CLAT Rehearsal (LPTSM-006-109)

Name Batch Enrollment No
INSTRUCTIONS:
The Test is Based on CLAT. Time: 2 Hours, Total Marks: 200

1. 2. 3. Specific Directions are given in the beginning of each Section. Read them carefully and answer accordingly; THERE IS NEGETIVE MARKING. Where in 1/4th Marks will be deducted for Each Wrong Answer. In respect of objective type questions, the students are required to shade the appropriate ovals on a separate printed answer sheet provided for the purpose. As the objective type questions-answer will be evaluated by the Scanner, complying with the following Directions is very important : Use only HB Pencil for shading inside the Ovals. Indicate only one answer by shading from the option provided. If more than one oval is shaded, the answer for that question will not be evaluated. The Answer Ovals should be shaded completely without leaving any space. The candidates shall not carry with them any cell phones, calculators or other electronic gadgets inside the Examination Hall. Adoption of any unfair means during the test will disqualify the candidate. There are five sections (Section 1 to 5) comprising of 200 objective type questions. The answer to these objective questions is to be entered on the OMR answer sheet by fully shading the appropriate ovals. Answer all questions. The weight age assigned to each question is different and is mentioned at the beginning of the section. S.No. 1 2 3 4 5 Section ENGLISH MATHEMATICS LOGICAL REASONING LEGAL APTITUDE GENERAL KNOWLEDGE TOTAL No. of Question 40 20 40 50 50 200 Marks 40 20 40 50 50 200
4. 5.
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SECTION I - ENGLISH
Direction: Read the following carefully and then answer these questions based on what is stated or implied therein:
The Emperor had inherited a peaceful and prosperous kingdom at a young age after the untimely death of his father. A few months later a man arrived at court. He stated that he was from a far off land and had the gift of foresight. He impressed the Emperor with his witty remarks and was appointed a courtier. The Emperor and those at court all enjoyed hearing accounts of his travels. One day the newly appointed minister said, Your Majesty, you are destined for great things. It is written in the stars. I have learnt the art of fourtune telling. DO not be content with your kingdom alone. Travel, see the world and conquer. There are many who are oppressed. They will bless you for rescuing them from the tyranny of their rulers. The Emperor was stunned to hear this but he refused to discuss the matter at the time. The courtiers too were astonished to hear this and began debating among themselves. It is true, they said, Our Emperors father was a great warrior and he ruled wisely. Perhaps there is truth in this. So the newly appointed courtier shrewdly planted the idea of waging war against other kingdom at court. After hearing several repeated arguments in favour of this idea the Emperor finally agreed. HE was a young man and a battle seemed to be exciting and a adventure. So the newly appointed minister planned the first campaign against a smaller neighbouring kingdom. Te Emperor knew the ruler was cruel and flet justified in waging war against him. Having the superior army he easily defeated te king. Everyone celebrated. But the campaign did not stop there. With every victory the new minister would urge the Emperor on to the next battle. The soldiers grew tired after over two years at war but did not complain out of respect and loyalty to their ruler. Meanwhile the situation in his kingdom began to deteriorate. With no one to look after the daily administration and to resolve disputes, signs of neglect began to be seen. The Emperor was no longer bothered if he was freeing the oppressed when he attacked a kingdom. He would plunder their riches to fund his wars. The new minister who was in charge of these funds kept a large part for himself and grew richer. AN old man who had been a minister in the Emperors fathers court grew worried and decided to do something about this situation. A few days later when the Emperor was out riding in the forest he suddenly saw the old man. He greeted him like an old friend and inquired what he was doing there. The man pointed to two owls in the trees. I am listening to their conversation. What are they saying? the Emperor asked unbelieving. They are negotiating the marriage of their children. The first owl wants to know whether the other will be gifting his daughter fifty villages on her wedding day. To which the second one replied that he would have to gift her one hundred and fifty as the villages were in ruins and as such were worthless but with the Emperor as ruler there would be many such villages. When the Emperor heard this be realized the error of his ways. He returned home immediately, rewarded the old minister putting him in charge of reconstructing the ruined villages and dismissed the fortune teller from his court. 1. How did the minister convince the Emperor to attack the neighbouring kingdom? 1. He bribed the courtiers to convince the Emperor that he could be a great ruler. 2. He told the Emperor that his father was a great warrior and would want his son to follow in his footsteps. 3. He convinced the Emperor that there was no risk involved since the army was inferior to that of the Emperor (a) All 1, 2, 3 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
2.
Why was the man appointed as a courtier? (a) He claimed that he was a relative of the Emperors from a distant country (b) He pleased the Emperor with the gifts he bought and stories about his adventures (c) He told the Emperor that he would become extremely rich one day (d) He flattered the Emperor more than the offer courtiers did (e) The Emperor enjoyed his company
3.
Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage? (a) The Emperors father inherited his kingdom at a very young age (b) The soldiers followed the Emperor only because they were afraid of him (c) It took time at first to convince the Emperor to conquer other kingdoms (d) The Emperor was afraid to wage war against the neighbouring kingdom because its ruler was cruel. (e) After his fathers death the Emperor had to wage many wars to ensure his kingdom remained peaceful
4.
Which of the following can be said about the old man? 1. The Emperor had removed him from his post on his fathers death. 2. The Emperor respected his judgement. 3. He saw how prosperous the new minister had become and he too wanted to become rich. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2
5.
What effect did the Emperors victories have on his people? (a) Their respect for his grew with every victory (b) They prospered as the Emperor spent all the money he plundered on his people (c) They experienced many daily administrative difficulties (d) They grew discontented as they had not seen their family members who were in the army for several montsh
6.
What was the Emperors reaction when he saw the old minister? (a) he was ashamed to see him because he had replaced him with a new minister (b) he was relieved to see him because he wanted his advice (c) He felt sorry for the old man because he was talking to birds (d) He was pleased to see him
7.
Which of the following best describes the newly appointed minister? 1. He was cunning and manipulated the Emperor into going to war 2. He was dishonest and stole from the Emperor 3. He as jealous of the old minister. (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 3 (d) Only 1
8.
Why did the Emperor reward the old man? (a) For his talent of talking to birds (b) he was successful at reconstructing the destroyed villages (c) He felt sorry for his plight in his old age and wanted to do something to help (d) For narrating an imaginative story to the Emperor
3
9.
What justification did the courtier give for attacking the neighbouring kingdom? (a) The Emperor needed the money to maintain his army (b) The money was needed for the benefit of the Emperors subjects and to ensure the kingdom did not fall into debt (c) To better the condition of its people who were being unjustly treated by their ruler (d) It was his fathers last wish
10.
Under what circumstances did the Emperor inherit his kingdom? (a) His father was suddenly killed in battle (b) His courtiers requested him to become king (c) He inherited the kingdom on reaching a particular age (d) His father had died after an illness
Directions (Q.11-14): The most appropriate word/phrase to fill in the blank in each of the following sentences is given as one of the four alternatives under it. That is your answer. Mark it on the Answer Sheet:
11. Timid by nature, the doctor who was alone in his house was frightened.. (a) out of wits 12. (b) out at his wits (c) at his wits end (d) out of his wits
His approach to work is so.. that none of his colleagues considers him dependable. (a) uninteresting (b) low (c) casual (d) common
13.
He has full facts but is deliberately hiding them. (a) up his sleeves (b) in his sleeves (c) under his sleeves (d) upon his sleeves
14.
.come to my rescue, I would have been killed by the bandits. (a) If he had not (b) If he did not (c) Having not (d) He having not
Directions(Q.15-19): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
15. GARGOYLE (a) Stone spout 16. SOPORIFIC (a) Impressive 17. LACHRYMOSE (a) Impious 18. FUSILLADE (a) Confusion (c) Excitement 19. GAFFE (a) Passion (b) Enthusiasm (c) Total Ignorance (d) Bloomer (b) Unwarranted aggression (d) Sustained outburst of criticism (b) Moist (c) Mournful (d) Unimpressive (b) Soothing (c) Merry (d) Lethargic (b) Gibleneagle (c) Ganesh (d) Vale
Directions (Q.20-23): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold word.
20. Bothered (a) calm 21. favour (a) mistake 22. EDIFICATION (a) Lamentation 23. ABNEGATION (a) Renunciation (b) Presence (c) Difference (d) Indulgence (b) Annotation (c) Corruption (d) Segregation (b) bias (c) appeal (d) punishment (b) uninterested (c) focused (d) distracted
Directions (Q.24-27): Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative when best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase.
24. To beat about the bush. (a) Pretend to be unaware of the matter (c) Put blame on others 25. To eat humble pie (a) To eat slowly (c) To live in a manner modest 26. To let the grass grow under ones feet: (a) To miss the opportunity (b) To let things go on in their natural way (c) To be indolent and let others take advantage of ones indolence (d) To idle away the time ; to delay and linger 27. To look down ones nose at (a) To slow anger (c) To regard with half-hidden displeasure or contempt (b) To insult in the presence of others (d) To backbite (b) To have an excellent dish (d) To have to apologize (b) Try to impress with arguments (d) Approach the matter in a roundabout way
Directions (Q.28-32): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The alphabet number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, then the answer is E.
28. 29. 30. 31. Mahesh thought that he (a)/ would pass the examination (b)/ although he did not answer (c)/ most of the questions correct (d)/ No error (e). The Hindi and the Marathi are (a)/ different forms of Sanskrit language (b)/ which were once spoken (c)/ in almost every part of India (d)/ No error (e). Despite of a good monsoon (a)/ this year, the production (b)/ of foodgrains in the (c)/ country did not go up (d)/ No error (e). The ruling party chief made it a point to state that (a)/ the Prime Minister and the Union Home Minister (b)/ should also come (c)/ and see what his party men had seen (d)/ No error (e).
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Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 32. The majority of the (a)/ computer professionals recommends (b)/ that effective measures (c)/ should be taken against software piracy (d) / No error (e).
Directions (Q.33-36): In each of these questions, some part of the given sentence or the whole sentence is underlined. Five choices numbered; (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) rephrasing the Underlined part, follow each sentence. If the original part itself seems better than the alternatives and no change is desired, choose answer (a) and if not, choose one of the others. For each sentence, consider the requirements of standard written English. Your choice should be correct with effective expression, and not be awkward or ambiguous. If a choice changes the meaning of the original sentence, do not select it:
33. You must carry on my order (a) carry off 34. (b) carry out (c) carry of (d) No improvement
Modern industrialized communities have lost touch with the soil and do not experience that joy which nature gives and the rich glow of health which come from contact with mother earth. (a) which comes from contact with (c) which flows how from contact with (b) which comes out from contact with (d) No improvement
35.
He considers the new assignment as more challenging than much of the other assignments. (a) none for the others (b) most of the other (c) more of the other (d) rest of the other
36.
From a study of University enrolment figures over the past decade, evidence is that women are increasingly opting for professional courses. (a) No change (b) the increasingly opting for professional courses by women in evidence (c) evidently it is increasing the enrolment of women in professional courses (d) it is evident that women are increasingly opting for professional courses
Directions (Q.37-40): In the following questions, each given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentence are marked S1 and S6 and given in the beginning. The middle four sentence in each have been jumbled up. These are labeled as P, Q. R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of these four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
37. S1: The training of employees in a modern organization is a process far different from what it was in the past. S6: Adaptation of new tools and methods is an important aspect of his training. P: Then for the rest of his life he would keep working and earning his living using the skills he learned from the master. Q: Todays craftsman, thus, likes searching for the theory behind the skills that he learns. R: When a carpenter or a mason wanted to learn the skills of carpentry or masonry in the past, he would apprentice himself to an experienced craftsman and learn from him. S: Today, training is given in institutes where the latest tools and methods are used in the training programme. The proper sequence should be: (a) RPQS (b) RPSQ (c) SQPR (d) QPSR
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Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 38. S1: I had flown endless miles across the rugged Australian outback to see a rock. S6: So the passengers on the far side could feast their eyes on it. P: I saw the awesome monolith, towering 340 feet above a flat wasteland at the edge of nowhere. Q: No just any rock but Ayers Rock of Uluru, as the aborigines call it. R: My first glimpse of this restored boulder was from the window of the light aircraft. S: The pilot of the six seater craft circled the sky slowly. The proper sequence should be: (a) QRPS (b) QRSP (c) RPQS (d) SRQP 39. S1: I got on a colorful bus filled with all kinds of strange people. S6: It was a gate that neither separated nor connected anything from or to anything. P: We arrived at a gate like the one in Salvador Dalis paintings. Q: The bus rode across the dirty expanses without roads. R: At first, I wasnt aware that the bus roof was loaded with drugs. S: Everyone was filled with dust and often the wheels would sink into the soft soil. The proper sequence should be: (a) SPQR (b) QRSP (c) RQSP (d) RSPQ 40. S1: For the average Indian tourist, the mention of Indonesia conjures visions of Bali and little else. S6: It is a pity since otherwise this largest archipelago in the world has much to offer to the international visitor. P: With cash flow problems, the airline has had to cut down its overseas operations. Q: Tourism has not been much of a priority in this predominately Muslim country of 210 million people. R: The air connectivity through the national airline is also minimum. S: This aspect is evident in the low budget allocated each year to this sector. The proper sequence should be: (a) QSRP (b) RPSQ (c) QRSP (d) SQPR
Section II- Maths

Directions (Q.41-60): Read the questions and choose the correct alternative.
41. A man sells an article at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Re 1 less, he would have gained 10%. The cost price of the article is (a) Rs 200 42. (b) Rs 150 (c) Rs 250 (d) Rs 240
The average age of a class is 15.8 years. The average age of the boys in the class is 16.4 years while that of the girls is 15.4 years. what is the ratio of the boys and girls in the class? (a) 1:2 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 3 : 5 (d) None of these
43.
A, B and C started a business in partnership. A is invested Rs. 4000 for 8 months and Rs. 6000 for 4 months. B invested Rs. 3000 for 6 months and Rs. 5000 for next 6 months of the year while C invested Rs. 3000 for whole of the year. If at the end of year, total profit is Rs. 7000, what will be the shares of A, B and C in the profit? (a) Rs. 2800, Rs. 2400, Rs. 1800 (c) Rs. 2600, Rs. 2500, Rs. 1900 (b) Rs. 2500, Rs. 2600, Rs. 1900 (d) Rs. 2000, Rs. 2700, Rs. 2300
44.
The mean age of a combined group of men and women is 30 years. If the means of the ages of men and women are respectively 32 and 27, then the percentage of women in the group is (a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 60
45.
I derive an annual income of Rs 688.25 from Rs 10000 invested partly at 8% per annum and partly at 5% per annum simple interest. How much of my money is invested at 5% (a) Rs 3725 (b) Rs 4225 (c) Rs 4800 (d) Rs 5000
46.
Rs 320 amounts to Rs 384 at a certain simple interest rate in a certain time. Also Rs 625 amounts to RS 775 in the same time at 1% higher rate. The higher rate is: (a) 5% (b) 7% (c) 4% (d) 6%
47.
During a period of two years, a principal of Rs 100 amounts to Rs 121 at the annual compound rate of r%. The value of r will be (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 10.50 (d) 11
48.
Vikram borrowed Rs 6450 at 5 percent simple interest repayable in 4 equal installments. What will be the annual installment payable by him? (a) Rs 1710 (b) Rs 1810 (c) Rs 1910 (d) Rs 1860
49.
Cask a contains wine and water in the ratio 6:7 and cask B in the ratio 9:4. In what ratio must the contents of the two casks be mixed to give a mixture of wine and water in the ratio 8:5? (a) 1:3 (b) 2:3 (c) 1:2 (d) None of these
50.
An alloy of zinc and tin contains 37% by weight of zinc. Find the weight of zinc which must be added to 400 kg of this alloy if the final percentage of zinc is to be 70. (a) 400kg (b) 800kg (c) 440 kg (d) 220 kg
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 51. A and B together take 5 days to do a work, B and C take 7 days to do the same, and A and C take 4 days to do it. Who among these will take the least time if put to do it alone? (a) A 52. (b) B (c) C (d) The data is incomplete
A computer can performs 30 identical tasks in six hours. At that rate, what is the minimum number of computers that should be assigned to complete 80 of the tasks within 3 hours? (a) 6 (b) 7

(c) 12
(d) 16
53.
If Ajit can do of a work in 3 days and Sujit can do of the same work in 4 days, how much will AJit get if both work together and are paid Rs 180 in all? (a) Rs 120 (b) Rs 108 (c) Rs 60 (d) Rs 36
54.
Two pipes A and B can full a tank in 8 hours. If only pipe A is open, then it would take 4 hours longer to fill the rank. Find how much longer it would take if only pipe B is open. (a) 6 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 16 hours (d) 12 hours
55.
How many numbers greater than a million can be formed with the digits 2, 3, 0, 3, 4, 2, and 3? (a) 480 (b) 420 (c) 60 (d) 360
56.
Two men undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 1400. First man alone can do this work in 7 days while the second man alone can do this work in 8 days. If they working together complete this work in 3 days with the help of a boy, how should money be divided? (a) Rs. 600, Rs. 500, Rs. 300 (c) Rs. 600, Rs. 550, Rs. 250 (b) Rs. 600, Rs. 525, Rs. 275 (d) Rs. 500, Rs. 525, Rs. 375
57.
A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. What is the speed of car? (a) 130 km/hr (b) 120 km/hr (c) 110 km/hr (d) 100 km/hr
58.
The ratio between the present ages of A and B is 5 : 3 respectively. The ratio between As age 4 years ago and Bs age 4 years hence is 1 : 1. The ratio between As age 4 years ago and Bs age 4 years hence is 1 : 1. The ratio between As age 4 years hence and Bs age 4 years ago is : (a) 4 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 3
59.
The sum of digits of a three-digit number is 10 and the digit in the middle of this three digit number is equal to the sum of the remaining two digits. If the first and the third digits are interchanged, the value of this number increases by 99. Find the number. (a) 385 (b) 253 (c) 154 (d) 374
60.
The average temperature of the town in the first four days of a month was 58 degrees. The average for the second, third, fourth and fifth days was 60 degrees. If the temperatures of the first and fifth days were in the ration 7 : 8, then what is the temperature on the fifth day? (a) 66 degrees (b) 64 degrees (c) 62 degrees (d) 60 degrees
Section-III: Logical Reasoning

Directions (Q. 61-65): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decided which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer
(a) if only assumption is I is implicit. (c) if either I or II is implicit. (e) if both I and II are implicit. 61. Statement: Today when there is so much talk about revising the Constitution, we have to consider whether it is the Constitution that has failed us or it is we who have failed the Constitution. Assumptions: I. Only the revision of Constitution will not serve the intended purpose unless there is willingness among the people to abide by it. II. All is not right with governance. 62. Statement: People of Indian Origin (PIO) maintain their cultural tradition and values even though they have settled comfortably in their adopted countries. Assumptions: I. Indian culture is flexible enough to be adjusted with any other culture. II. Indian culture is superior to other cultures. 63. Statement: Income in the hands of women contributes much more to the household food security and child nutrition than the income controlled by men. Assumptions: I. Women pay more attention to household nutrition. II. Men are more interested in outside affairs. 64. Statement: If betting and match-fixing play a vital role in cricket, which makes the game ungentlemanly and ugly, there is absolutely no use of wasting precious time to watch the game of cricket which cheats the innocent. Assumptions: I. This contagious disease may spray to other games. II. Cricketers indulge in betting and match-fixing, and are exploiting innocent public feelings. 65. Statement: Safety will be the primary concern. I hope that these enhanced outlays will go a long way in ensuring a safe and sound journey for the millions of passengers. --- Railway. Minister in her speech. Assumptions: I. Railways has failed to ensure adequate safety measures for its passengers. II. Safety measures are likely to prevent railway mishaps in future. (b) if only assumption II is implicit. (d) if neither I nor II is implicit.
Directions (Q. 66-70): In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between Strong arguments and Weak arguments insofar as they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Instruction: Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong and which is a weak argument. Give answer
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Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 (a) if only argument I is strong. (d) if neither I nor II are strong; and 66. (b) if only argument II is strong. (c) if either I or II is strong. (e) if both I and II are strong.
Statement: Professional education packages should be given more emphasis than traditional education. Arguments: I. Yes, professional education has much more productive implications for industries.
II. No, other disciplines would face a though existence. 67. Statement: Should subsidy be given on blended fuel in India? Arguments: I. Yes, this will encourage the use of blended fuel (an environment-friendly fuel) as a result of which the burden of import of fuel will reduce and ultimately save the countrys foreign exchange reserves. II. No, blended fuel is not available in all states of India. 68. Statement: Should cricket players be punished with life ban for having nexus with bookies? Arguments: I. No, any such ban will discourage other players too.
II. Yes, events of matchfixing have unnerved the common man. A stringent law like life ban will not only make cricket more dynamic but also restore its old glory as a game of honest persons. 69. Statement: Should vacation of Central government employees be reduced? Arguments: I. Yes, increase in number of working days will speed up the work done by the Central government employees, as a result of which people will get service from these employees in reasonable time. II. Yes, vacation makes the employees lazy and reduces the stamina of employees to work for long hours. 70. Statement: Should the Indian government launch community-based programme with focus on the mothers care? Arguments: I. Yes, the mother plays a big role in childs good health and if the programme is community-based it will have immense impact on the poor nutritional condition of the child in India. II. No, it will harm the secular status of the country.
Directions (Q. 71-76): Below are given passages followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
(a) if the inference is definitely true, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given. (b) if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given. (c) if the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. (d) if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given. (e) if the inference is definitely false, i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts. Even as the debate over global warming and other climate change issues continues, an analysis by the International Federation of Red Cross and Red crescent Societies has shown that floods and other weather-related disasters have been soaring during the past decade across the world. And, the last two years have particularly been bad. In the World Report on Disasters released recently, the Geneva-based federation said that while the number of earthquakes, volcanoes and other geophysical disasters remained fairly constant over the last 10 years, there was an increase in floods and other weather-related disasters. Between 1992 and 1996, an av11 Law Prep Tutorial (P) Ltd., This paper is a part of copyrighted material, any replica by any means may invite penal action.
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 erage of 75 floods were reported per year. But in 2001, for the second year in running, the number was more than double. During the 1990s, an average of around 200 million people were affected every year, nearly three times that during the 1970s and the economic loss averaged at 63 billion a year, nearly five times higher in real terms than the figure for the 1970s. Calling for urgent global measures to address the colossal destruction, the report said that disasters could not remain within the domain of disaster managers alone. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. There was a sharp hike in the incidence of floods during the last two years. The loss of life and property because of weathers-related disasters has been on the increase in recent years. Development experts played a big role in disaster management and risk reduction. In the year 2001, cases of floods were less than those in the year 1993. Weather-related disasters have been constant over the last ten years. China is the country where the number of people killed by natural disasters is the highest.
Directions (Q.77-81): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two concisions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows (b) if only conclusion II follows (c) if either I or II follows
(d) if neither I nor II follows, and (e) if both I and II follow 77. Statement: The business community always have a herd mentality, they always want someone to start an innovative business and others follow after clearly examining whether the business is profitable or not. Conclusions: I. No gain comes without undertaking risk. 78. II. Businessmen do not want to take risk.
Statement: In the absence of national health insurance or social security cover, a person with limited resources has to depend on government hospitals, which are crowded, overburdened and understaffed. Conclusions: I. National health insurance is meant only for the affluent sections of society. II. The government hospitals provide treatment on nominal charges of free.
79.
Statement: Political parties show unanimity when the pay, perks, privileges or pensions of elected representatives are raised. Conclusions: I. The politicians do not try to pit themselves against one another when it comes to their own interests. II. Nowadays politicians regard themselves as a salaried class of the government.
80.
Statement: As per the National Forestry Report, 1998, India must retain a true cover of 33 per cent as against the 19 per cent at present. A budgetary allocation of Rs 850 crore is just a drop in the ocean. Conclusions: I. The forest coverage in a country should be in proportion to its population. II. Inadequate budgetary allocation comes in the way of enhancing the forest coverage.
81.
Statement: With the organized sector employment at an all-time low, the highly qualified would be fighting for the crumbs of the cake, increasing the number of educated unemployed. Conclusions: I. Only high qualification is not a certificate for employment.
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 II. In the past there was no dearth of employment in the organized sector; the same is the case now in the unorganized sector.
Directions (Q. 82-86): In each question given below a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given/suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing and decide the answer.
82. Statement: A performance review of the Yamuna Action Plan (YAP) described it as well-conceived andimplemented but went on to punch holes in many aspects of its functioning. Courses of action: I. People associated with YAP should be requested to give their suggestions. II. People staying close to the river should be requested to give their suggestions. III. Help should be sought regarding funds from concerned states. (a) None follows (b) All follow (c) Only I and II follow (d) Only either I or II follows 83. Statement: Many wild animals are becoming extinct in India and this has posed a great problem for balancing the biological cycle. Courses of action: I. A separate lab should be created where the samples of a large number of endangered species can be preserved and where research and development can be done. II. A special request should be made to foreign countries to send germplasm samples of animals the closest to the one we have lost. III. Research should be conducted on artificial insemination in endangered species. (a) All follow (b) Only II follows (c) Only I and II follow (d) Only II and III follow 84. Statement: Railway coaches climb atop one another after collision or derailment. Courses of action: I. The coupling between coaches should be replaced. II. Anti-collision equipment should be developed and tested. III. The Number of coaches attached to the train should be reduced. (a) All follow (b) Only II follows (c) Only I and II follow 85.
(d) None of these
Statement: Residues of extremely harmful pesticides have been found in popular brands of bottled water sold in Delhi and Mumbai. Courses of action: I. Production units of all popular brands of bottled water should be sealed immediately. II. A ban should be imposed on selling and packaging of bottled water. III. Bottled water drawn from deep tubewell should be banned. (a) None follows (b) Only I follows (c) Only I and II follow
(d) All follow
86.
Statement: Aerated soft drinks suffer a high excise duty of 32% against a mere 16% on other food items. Courses of action: I. Special excise duty on aerated soft drinks should be removed. II. Special excise duty should be imposed on other food items also. III. Excise duty on aerated soft drinks should be removed. (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow (c) Either I or III and II follow
(d) None of these
Directions (Q. 87-91): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 87. Which product has the largest sale? Statements: I. The sale of Cinthol soap is much below that of Dettol soap but higher than that of Liril soap. II. Pears soap has larger sale than that of Khus soap but hot higher than that of Dettol soap. 88. In which direction is Viplava with reference to the house of Vineeta? Statements: I. After walking 30 metres south from Vineetas house Viplava turns to his right and walks 35 metres and reaches Ram temple. II. From Vineetas house, Viplava starts running towards east and after running 20 metres he turns to his right and runs 15 metres and reaches bus-stop. 89. Qutub minar is in which direction with respect to Lotus Temple? Statements: I. Humayuns Tomb is to the North of Lotus Temple; Rajghat is to the East of Humayuns Tomb, Qutub Minar is to the South of Rajghat. II. Lotus Temple is to the East of Humayuns Tomb and Humayuns Tomb is to the West of Qutub Minar. 90. Who is the host in the programme KBC among Amitabh, Anupam, Suman, Shekhar and Madhuri? Statements: I. Shekhar hosts a programme between 9 pm and 10 pm, immediately after Suman but not immediately before Madhuri. Amitabh hosts neither the first programme nor the last while Anupam performs after Madhuri. II. All host a one-hour duration programme, without any gap between two programems, on the same channel regularly. KBC is telecast between 10 pm and 11 pm. 91. Who is the immediate right of Nalin among five persons Nalin, Govind, Shakeb, PRakash and Kundan? Statements: I. Shakeb is third to the left of Nalin; Kindan is third to the right of Prakash. II. Kundan is fourth to the right of Prakash; Govind is second to the left of Shakeb.
Directions (Qs. 92 to 96) : There is a blank space in each of these questions in which only one of the four alternatives given under each question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two terms on the other side of the sign ::. Find the correct alternative to fill in the blank space.
92. Telephone : Ring :: : . (a) Door : knock (b) Gate : open (c) Door : wood (d) Lock : key
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 93. Deterioration : Rust : : : (a) Recession : Inefficiency (c) Promulgation : Legislation 94. Dinosaur : Dragon : : : (a) Evolution : Revelation 95. (b) Gorilla : Soldier (c) Snow : Ice (d) Primeval : Medieval (b) Depression : Unemployment (d) Iron : Water
Condone : Offence : : : (a) Overlook : Aberration (b) Error : Omission (c) Mitigate : Penitence (d) Conviction : Criminal
96.
Shoe : Leather : : : (a) Bus : Conductor (b) Train : Wagon (c) Highway : Asphalt (d) Medicine : Doctor
Directions (Q. 97-99): Read the following information carefully and choose the correct alternative.
97. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A B means A is the brother of B; A X B means A is the son of B; and A B means A is the daughter of B; which of the following means A is the grandson of D? (a) A- P + Q X R X D 98. (b)A X P + Q X R X D (c) A P + Q X R X D (d) A B X C X E P
If A $ B means A is brother of B, A @ B means A is wife of B, A # B means A is daughter of B and A * B means A is father of B, then which of the following expressions indicates the relationship R is motherin-law of S? (a) R # T $ L $ Q @ S (b) R # T * L # Q * S (c) R * T # L $ Q @ S (d) R @ T * L $ Q @ S
99.
While going to his office P meets a man Q who is related to P, because P has R, a son, who is married to T. T is the daughter of Q. T has daughter A. How is P related to A? (a) Grandfather (b) Grandmother (c) Uncle (d) Father-in-law
100. Xs mother is the mother-in-law of the father of Z. Z is the brother of Y while X is the father of M. How is X related to Z? (a) Paternal uncle (b) Maternal uncle (c) Cousin (d) Grandfather
Section-IV: Legal Aptitude

101. Principle: Every person has the freedom to form associations and unions. Facts: Prem was employed in the Railways and was a member of the Communist Party and a trade union. He was a dedicated member of the railways and performed his duties diligently. Prems services were terminated under Railway Service Rules for his being a member of the Communist Party and a trade unionist. Prem is challenging the termination of his services as being in violation of his fundamental right to form associations. Suggested Decisions: A. Termination of Prems services violated his fundamental right to form associations. B. Termination of Prems services does not violate his fundamental right to form associations. Suggested Reasons: (i) Prems services were terminated, as he was a member of the Communist Part and a trade unionist. (ii) The order terminating his services did not prevent the appellant from continuing in the Communist Part or the trade union. (iii) Even though Prem was a hard working and diligent employee of the railways, his services were terminated. (iv) Prem has been terminated according to the Railway Service Rules. Your decision with the reason: (a) B (ii) (b) B (iv) (c) A (iii) (d) A (i)
102. Principle: Right to health is implicit in the fundamental right to life. Facts: A is the manager of a recently-set-up, government-owned juice manufacturing company in the outskirts of the city in an industrial area. The waste that is accumulated after extracting juice is dumped in one corner of the company premises. Nothing was done about the waste, which started emitting a foul smell and attracting files. B runs a steel manufacturing factory right next to As company. Even after repeatedly telling A to dispose of the waste, no action was taken. B goes to court on the ground that his fundamental right to health is being violated. Suggested Decisions: (a) There is no violation of the right to health. Suggested Reasons: (i) The company was set up in the outskirts of the city in an industrial area. (ii) The waste had been accumulated for a long time and started emitting a foul smell and attracting files. (iii) The waste is disposed off within the premises of As company. (iv) The waste was not dumped in a garbage disposal area. Your decision with the reason: (a) (a) (iv) (b) (b) (ii) (c) (a) (iii) (d) (a) (i) 103. Principle: Nothing, except murder and offences against the state, is an offence which is done by a person who is compelled to do it by threats, which, at the time of doing it, reasonably cause the apprehension
(b) There is a violation of the right to health.
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 that instant death to that person will otherwise be the consequence: Provided the person doing the act did not of his own accord place himself in the situation by which he became subject to such constraint. Facts: A tells B that he will kill his five year old son unless B agrees to commit theft for him. If B does so will he have committed a crime? (a) Yes (b) No (c) Cannot be determined (d) Depends on how much B loves his son 104. Principle: Whoever intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that persons consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft. Facts: A, being Zs servant, and entrusted by Z with the care of Zs plate, dishonestly runs away with the plate, without Zs consent. Has A stolen the plate? (a) No. The plate was never in Zs possession. (b) No. Z implicitly consented by leaving the plate with A. (c) Yes. The plate though in As custody was still in Zs possession. A has denied Z his possession by running away with it, and he has done so with dishonest intent. (d) Yes. A has taken Zs plate to sell it for profit. 105. Facts: In a case, there was bad blood between the two factions and they were involved in number of incidents and criminal proceedings. On one day, deceased (belonging to one faction) was followed by members of other faction. When the deceased, a 55-year old man, tried to ran away, he was not allowed by the accused who indiscriminately pounded the legs and arms of his by heavy sticks and continued the beating till he became unconscious. The accused than left the spot. The doctor found as many as 19 injuries out of which no less than 9 were (internally) found to be grievous. The doctor gave the opinion that the injuries were cumulatively sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature. Issue: The offence committed is murder or culpable homicide. (a) The offence is murder as the fact of the case shows that the infliction of 19 injuries are sufficient the cause of death in the ordinary cause of nature. (b) It is culpable homicide. Because the intension of the accused is missing. (c) It is neither murder nor culpable homicide. (d) It is a case of simple fight. 106. Facts: In a case there was a long standing dispute between the deceased and the appellants over a certain piece of land. On one night, the appellants (N and R) in pursuance of a conspiracy to commit murder of M, deceased, set fire to the single room hut in which he was sleeping after locking the door from outside. When the servants of the deceased they were kept at bay by the superior force of the accused and their associates. Consequently, death of the deceased occurred. Issue: Murder of culpable homicide. (a) It is not a murder. Because the facts and circumstances are not sufficient. (b) It is not culpable homicide too because it is nowhere evident that the very action of the accused to set the house of the deceased on fire, resulted in to his death. (c) It is murder because in the pursuance of the conspiracy to commit murder of M, the accused lock the deceased and set the room on fire and stop the servants and villagers to come to his rescue. (d) It will depend on the discretion of the court. 107. Facts: P, a dreaded terrorist, driving his Mercedes, was apprehended by a police constable on a traffic red signal. The constable asked P to take the car to his left towards a petrol pump and to stop there in the parking space. P began to do so but suddenly accelerated. The constable managed to cling to the drivers window, P tried to shake him off by giving hard blows with the help of his fist but could not succeed in throwing him off on the road. P then took a spanner lying in his car and struck a violent blow on the con17 Law Prep Tutorial (P) Ltd., This paper is a part of copyrighted material, any replica by any means may invite penal action.
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 stable fingers, and as constable loosened his grip, P pushed and threw him on the road. There was very heavy traffic on the road and the constable got killed by a speeding truck. Can P be successfully prosecuted for the murder of the constable? Issue: What offence, if any has been committed? (a) P is guilty of murder (b) P is guilty of culpable homicide. (c) P is not guilty of homicide by rash or negligent act because Section 304-A does not apply where the death has arisen from any other supervening act or interventions which could not have been anticipated. P is, however, guilt of causing grievous hurt within the meaning of Section 320, as he had the intention of causing such hurt. (d) None of these 108. Facts: Sheela informed her friend Roma that her husband Ramu was staying in a local 5 star hotel. Roma took her car and left for the hotel with a revolver. Roma made enquiries from the reception and came to know the room number where her husband was staying. Roma entered the room and saw her husband in a compromising position with a lady. Roma became angry and fired a shot at her husband from her revolver, but it missed and killed the lady sitting with Ramu. Roma pleaded the defence of grave and sudden provocation. Issue: Whether the accused is guilty of murder? (a) The accused is not guilty of murder as she acted under sudden and grave provocation. (b) The accused is guilty of murder because the provocation was grave but not sudden, because the action of the accused was deliberate and premeditated. (c) She is guilty of culpable homicide because no wife can tolerate the adulterous character of her husband. (d) None of these 109. Facts: A left his car engine running on a busy street when he stepped out for a minute to purchase a bottle of water from a shop on the side. While he was in the shop, some miscreant released the band break of his car. The car being on a slope, crashed into a person standing nearby. He died as a consequence. Can A be convicted for causing death by rash and negligent act? Issue: What offence, if any, has been committed? (a) A can be charged with the death by rash and negligent act as he left the car running on a busy street. (b) A cannot be guilty of death, because the death was caused by miscreants. (c) It is a case of accident (d) None of these 110. Facts: A gave severe beating to B on a highway at night and left him with fractured legs and bleeding. Soon thereafter B became unconscious due to substantial blood loss. The next morning B was found dead, crushed by a speeding truck/falling tree on account of cyclone. Has A committed culpable homicide in terms of Section 299, IPC? Issue: What offence, if any, has been committed? (a) He is guilty of murder (b) A is guilty of grievous hurt only. The line between culpable homicide not amounting to murder and grievous hurt is very thin. In one case the injuries must be such as are likely to cause death and in the other they endanger life. As act was not the direct or sole cause of Bs death. (c) He is guilty of culpable homicide. (d) None of these
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 111. Fact: G, a 13 year old girl, was allowed by her father F to taken away by relatives of her elder sister to her home to look after her elder sister for some time. After some time F received the information that these relative have got G married to A. F lodged a report with the police that his daughter has been kidnapped by the relatives of Gs elder sister and she has been forced by them to have illicit intercourse with A. Police recovered G from As house after a month. G deposed that A had sexual intercourse with her many a times. However medical report states that no injuries exist on Gs body. In a charge of rape against A, he pleads that G has consented to such act as in indicative of her staying at his house for one long month. Can A succeed? Issue: What offence, if any, has been committed? (a) A is not guilty (b) A cannot succeed because sexual intercourse with a girl/woman with or without her consent when she is under 16 years amounts to rape. [Sc. 375, cl. (vi)]. In such a case medical evidence showing that the girl was habituated to sexual intercourse and that there were no signs of rape would also be of no help if intercourse by the accused with the girl is proved. (c) F is guilty who allowed a minor girl of 13 years of age to be taken by the relatives (d) None of these 112. Facts: A gave his watch for repair to B. A dispute occurred between the two over the extra parts replaced by B, which were not included in the earlier estimate. B was unwilling to deliver the watch unless extra payment was made. In the course of heated argument A took out a knife, seeing which B did not object to the watch being delivered without excess charges. Issue: What offence, if any has been, committed? (a) A is not liable for any offence. Because the watch belong to him and he took it away (b) A has committed the offence of extortion (c) B is liable for cheating. (d) None of these 113. Principle: A criminal act requires a physical action (actus reus) accompanied by a positive or negative criminal intention (mens rea). Gross negligence is a form of mens rea. Facts: It is a well known fact that one should not run with sharp objects in ones hand. A was running with a knife when he slipped and the knife went through his stomach. Luckily, A survived, despite his stupidity. While he was recuperating in police, the police arrested him for attempt to commit suicide. Has he committed a crime? (a) Yes, he should have foreseen that his act would result in danger (b) No, because he did not intend to cause hurt to himself (c) Maybe, it depends on the details of the case (d) No, because most people who commit suicide take pills or hang themselves, and this was not an incident of that nature. 114. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing injury to the victim. Facts: A is representing B in a court case. A is colour blind and turns up in court one day wearing a tie that doesnt match his shirt. That particular judge has a reputation for being very finicky about appearance and immediately decides the case against B because of As attire. Has A been negligent? (a) No. His colour blindness is a defence. (b) No. His duty of care to his client is with regard to adequate legal preparation and handling of the case. His duty does not extend to extraneous factors like this.
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 (c) Yes. His duty of care to the client extends to all matters relating to the case. When he knew about this tendency of the judge, he breached his duty in not accounting for it. (d) No. This is clearly illegal. Judges cant decide cases on the basis of clothes. 115. Principle: Courts must take statutes as they find them, they cannot correct legislative errors. As far as possible, however, where a legislative error is blatant, they should try and reduce its impact on the people. But these efforts should not extend to changing the letter of the law. Facts: Indian courts face many cases where, for many reasons, somebodys property is attached and sold to cover his debts. However, in many of these cases, it is later discovered that some third party had an interest in the property. To alleviate the plight of these third parties, various policy and legislative changes have been introduced. Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) provides that any such third party may apply to set aside (meaning cancel) the sale by depositing 5% of the value of the property within 30 days of the sale. Article 127 of the Limitation Act provides that any such application for setting aside the sale must be made within 30 days of the sale. The legislature recognized, however, that it might be difficult for people to raise such a large amount of money in such a short time, and amended Article 127 to provide a 60 day period. Section 89, however, was left unamended, and still allows only 30 days for making the payment. This has left many of these third parties in a very sticky situations because under the court rules framed by the Supreme Court, any deposit of money without accompanying proof of the application to which it relates must be confiscated. This rule has evolved to prevent litigants from bribing court officials. Can the courts do anything to ameliorate the plight of the third parties? (a) No. (b) Yes. They can bring the matter to the attention of the legislature. (c) Yes. They can amend the court rules to accept the payment pending proof of the application. (d) Maybe. Inadequate information. 116. Principle: Words in statutory provisions should be interpreted in the context of the provision as whole. Facts: One legislation provides: A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being a member of a Municipal Board if he is in arrears in the payment of municipal tax or other dues in excess of one years demand. Mangoo was in arrears in the payment of municipal tax in excess of one years demand at the time of filing of nominations, but made the payment before the date of poll and was elected. His election was set aside and he contended in the Supreme Court that the relevant date was the date of poll and that a notice of demand was not served on him and so he was not disqualified. Is this valid? (a) Yes. Until the arrears have been demanded by the authorities, the disqualification does not arise. (b) No. The word demand may have several meanings. The provision does not use it as a verb meaning to ask for, but instead as an indicator of a state of owing money for municipal taxes, etc. (c) Yes. The disqualification, such as it was, was removed before the election. The disqualification applies to being elected, or being a member. Before either of those happened, he had cleared his dues. There is no disqualification on standing for election. (d) No. Such a person cannot be trusted with the governance of the country. 117. Principle: All reservations to the jurisdiction of the I.C.J. made by any country may be used against it by another state. Facts: U.S.A. and Nicaragua are embroiled in a dispute before the I.C.J.. The US statement of accession to the I.C.J. reserves the right to withdraw from the jurisdiction of the I.C.J. with six months notice. The Nicaraguan statement says nothing regarding withdrawal. The U.S.A. is losing the case and wants to withdraw from the jurisdiction of the I.C.J.. It argues that the absence of a withdrawal clause in the Nicaraguan
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 statement of accession implies that Nicaragua has inserted a reservation allowing it to withdraw without notice, and this may therefore be used by the U.S.A. against Nicaragua. Is this argument valid? (a) Yes. The U.S.A. is entitled to invoke Nicaraguan reservations against it. (b) No. This is not a reservation. (c) No. States must be forced to decide whether or not they are going to accede to the jurisdiction of the I.C.J. before cases are decided. (d) Yes. The I.C.J. is not a real court in any case. 118. Principle: Delegated legislation is the allocation of legislative powers to the executive by the legislature. Delegated legislature must not amount to a cession of legislative power, but must instead be a recognition of the enhanced ability of the executive to make detailed rules within a broader policy framework specified by the legislature. Facts: The newly enacted Indian Drug Control Act allows the executive omnibus powers to define prohibited drugs. Is this a valid exercise of delegated legislation? (a) Yes (b) No (c) Inadequate information (d) This is not delegated legislation 119. Principles: I. Every citizen has a right to live with human dignity. II. Human dignity means more than a mere animal existence. Facts: The State Government was running a Care Home for underprivileged women. This Care Home received insufficient funds from the State Government. Due to some renovation, these women had to be shifted to another building for a period of one year. They had to stay in an old ruined building with insufficient and poor quality food. A, a public-spirited person, filed a PIL in the Court stating a violation of the fundamental right to life and human dignity. Suggested Decisions: (a) There has been a violation of the fundamental right to life and human dignity. (b) There has not been a violation of the fundamental right to life and human dignity. Suggested Reasons: (i) The Care Home did not receive adequate funds from the State Government. (ii) The State Government did not provide proper accommodation to these women. (iii) The original building was undergoing renovation and the old building was only a temporary arrangement. (iv) The women had to stay in an old ruined house with insufficient and poor quality food. Your decision with the reason: (a) (a) (iv) (b) (b) (iii) (c) (a) (ii) (d) (b) (i)
120. Principle: Every citizen has a right to life and personal liberty. Facts: Lal Bahadur Shastri Medical College is a Government-run college. There was a bomb blast in the State, which left many people injured. The college decided to hold a blood donation camp to help those injured in the blast. As people were injured on a large scale and needed blood, the college made blood donation compulsory for all its students. A, a student of the college, approaches the Court, claiming a violation of his fundamental right to life and personal liberty due to such compulsion.
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 Suggested Decisions: (a) There has been a violation of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. (b) There has not been a violation of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. Suggested Reasons: (i) There was a bomb blast in the State for which large amounts of blood was needed. (ii) The college was a Government run college. (iii) All students were compelled to give their blood in the blood donation camp, even if against their will. (iv) Students below the age of 18 should not have been compelled to give their blood. Your decision with the reason: (a) (a) (iv) (b) (b) (ii) (c) (a) (iii) (d) (b) (i)
121. Principle: A criminal act requires a physical action (actus reus) accompanied by a positive or negative criminal intention (mens rea). Gross negligence is a form of mens rea. Facts: A is driving home drunk. Though A is trying very hard to drive responsibly, his level of inebriation causes him to veer off the read, and kill B. Has A committed a crime? (a) Yes. He has killed B. (b) Yes. His act of running over B was precipitated by his negligence in driving drunk. (c) No. He didnt have the intention. (d) No. He was negligent, but didnt intend to commit the act. 122. Principle: A Hindu woman or girl will have equal property rights along with other male relatives for any partition made in intestate succession after September 2005. Facts: Varun has five children Gautam, Maanav, Eshan, Priya and Megha. Gautam has three children --Abhimanyu, Prahlad and Vrinda. Maanav is dead, but leaves behind two children --- Harsh and Arjun. Eshan is also dead and leaves behind one child --- Nishta. Priya has one child --- Sharan. Megha also has one child --- Sahil. What is Nishtas share when Varun dies intestate? (a) 1/5 (b) (c) 1/3 (d) 123. Principle: The district courts of India shall have original jurisdiction of any civil action by an alien national for any action committed in violation of the law of nations. Facts: A was an Indian labourer working in Iraq. His family was killed and his home destroyed during the American invasion in 2003. Can he file a claim in the district court? (a) No. This is not a civil action. (b) No. A is an Indian. (c) No. This is not a violation of the law of nations. (d) Yes. 124. Principle: Misinformation that is not the result of fraud may result in reasonable corrective measures being taken by the insurer. Facts: Abhimanyu accidentally, unintentionally represents himself to be younger than he actually is while applying for life insurance from LIC. Which of the following actions may reasonably be taken by LIC? (a) Reducing the amount payable while claiming the insurance (b)Increasing the insurance premium (c) Initiating criminal proceedings for fraud (d) (a) and (b)
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 125. Principle: States are required to ensure that the actions of their nationals do not cause damage to other states. Facts: Following the above principle, which of the following, if proven true, would suffice to hold the U.S.A. responsible for the recent global financial crisis which started in the U.S.A.? (a) The crisis involved primarily U.S.A. companies. (b) The most heavily affected economy was the U.S.A. (c) The U.S.A. government could have done the most to stop the crisis. (d) The crisis started as a result of inadequate regulation of U.S.A. actors by the U.S.A. government. 126. Principle: Statutory provisions must be interpreted in light of contemporary legal facts and practice. Facts: Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code of 1860 penalizes homosexuality. Shyam challenges this in the Delhi HC. Will his challenge stand? (a) No. Primary importance must be accorded to the text of the provision. (b) No. Homosexuality continues to be taboo in our society. (c) Yes. Homosexuality is now socially acceptable. (d) No. Homosexuality is still not permitted by law. 127. Principle: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are not enforceable in nature. The DPSPs require the government to encourage scientific temper amongst Indians. Is a policy of subsidizing law schools actionable? (a) Yes, because lawyers are not scientific in their temperament (b) No, because lawyers are scientific in their temperament (c) Yes, any kind of special schools should not be given a subsidy (d) Cannot be determined from the given principle/facts 128. Principle: Every person has a constitutional right against self-incrimination. Is fingerprinting a violation of this right? (a) Yes, The culprit is being forced to reveal his identity (b) No. The state is only seeking objective information about a person. He is not being asked to reveal anything within his individual knowledge. (c) Yes, the fingerprints of a person are protected under their right to privacy. (d) None of the above 129. Principle: In response to a real or perceived threat of crime against life or property, there is a right of private defence. Criminal liability is excluded for acts committed in exercise of the right of private defence. Facts: A is an undercover policeman who has been ordered to capture B, a wanted criminal. A tries to capture B without revealing his identity. B ends up killing A. Are Bs actions justifiable by recourse to the right of private defence? (a) Yes. B had the right to private defence (b) May (c) be No, killing is illegal no matter what the circumstance (d) No, killing is illegal in these circumstances 130. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the tortfeasor is absolved of liability. Facts: A, a bus driver, is driving on the wrong side of a road to avoid a huge traffic jam. B is driving down that side of the road, but not paying attention to the road, as he is trying to change the radio station. A is charged with negligence. Is he liable?
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 (a) Yes (b) No (c) Maybe (d) Only if B is also held liable
131. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the tortfeasor is absolved of liability. Facts: A is trying to get from Noida to Allahabad, but all the buses and trains are full. He begs and pleads, and the driver of one bus allows him to sit on the roof of the bus. The driver drives very fast, and A falls off and injures him. Is the driver liable for negligence? (a) Yes (b) No (c) Cannot be determined (d) Only if A is also liable
132. Principle: There is a fundamental right to education. Facts: A comes from a very poor family. He wants to go to Progressive School, one of Delhis best and most expensive schools. Can he enforce this right against the government? (a) No. Fundamental rights are only enforceable against the state. (b) Yes. The state has the responsibility of sponsoring his education in a school of choice. (c) No. The state is required to provide him an education, not an education at Progressive School. (d) None of the above 133. Principle: A criminal act requires a physical action (actus reus) accompanied by criminal intention, which may include negligence or knowledge (mens rea). Facts: A discovers a sordid secret from Bs past. He blackmails B. B pays him for his silence for a while, but eventually, he cannot take it any longer, and kills himself. Has A instigated B to commit suicide (an act attracting criminal sanction)? (a) Yes, the suicide is directly because of his actions (b) No, B thought about the suicide and reached his own decision (c) Maybe, it depends on the facts of the case (d) No, the sordid secret was Bs own fault. 134. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the tortfeasor is absolved of liability. Facts: In Noida, there is an indoor swimming pool. A is walking around the pool, nonchalantly swinging a hockey stick. He accidentally hits B in the eye with it, when B is climbing out of the pool. B was not wearing the mandatory safety goggles, and as a result of the stick hitting him in the eye, goes partially blind. Is A liable for negligence? (a) Yes (b) No (c) Both are liable (d) Neither is liable
135. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the tortfeasor is absolved of liability. Facts: A is defending B in court on the charge of rape. A accidentally comes late to court. The judge gets angry and decides against B. Bs position is worsened by the fact that the judge is very biased against alleged rapists. Is A responsible for negligence? (Ignore the fact that in real life judges cant decide cases based on their biases) (a) Yes (c) Cannot be determined (b) No (d) No, it is Bs fault for raping someone
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 136. Principle: The fundamental freedoms in Article 19 are subject to reasonable restrictions. Facts: The Government of India has passed a law declaring that more than four pedophiles may not gather in the same place at the same time. Is this a violation of the freedom of association? (a) Yes. It is an unreasonable restriction. (b) Yes. There is no purpose that may be achieved by any such prohibition. There is no evil that may be prevented, or any danger. Their harmful actions as pedophiles are not necessarily linked to their being alone of together. (c) No. It is a reasonable restriction. (d) No. Pedophiles constitute a risk to society. 137. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing injury to the victim. Facts: A is a guest in the hotel X. At night, a loud function in the hotel ballroom keeps A and other guests awake. Has the hotel been negligent? (a) Yes. The hotel has a duty of care to ensure that no disturbances are caused to the guests. This has been breached. (b) No. The hotel is only responsible for providing a room and a clean bed. (c) No. This is unreasonable. A must be a very light sleeper. (d) None of the above. 138. Facts: Dhirajja was a young woman married to Jhagga. They had a six months old baby. The husband did not treat his wife well. The wife desired to go to visit her parents but the husband had objected to it and on the day of occurrence they had quarreled with each other and the husband had threatened to beat her. Late that night Jagga woke up and found his wife and baby missing. He went out in pursuit of them and close to the railway line he saw her making her way along the path. When she heard him coming after her, Dhirajja turned around in a panic, ran a little distance, and then jumped into a well with the baby girl in her arms. The result was that the baby died while the woman was eventually rescued. She was charged with the murder of her baby and with attempt to commit suicide.. Issue: The wife is guilty of murder or culpable homicide. (a) The wife is guilty neither of murder or culpable homicide. (b) It is case of self-defense so she cant be charged with any offence. (c) She is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder. (d) None of these 139. Facts: The accused A initially abused the deceased D by holding his collar and brandishing the knife. However, D brought a stout and stronger man who overpowered A and sat on his chest. The C accused B at a the call of A inflicted a knife blow on Ds thigh. When D had to release the grip, A without any provocation dealt a very severe knife blow on the stomach of D who was unarmed. The knife blow caused several injuries on the vital parts of the body of D resulting in his death in a very short time. Issue: Whether it is a case of culpable homicide only or a case of murder? (a) Its a case of murder as A had an intention to cause murderours assault on D. (b) It is not a case of murder as D was stout and stronger and had overpowered A. So, A killed him in right of private defence (c) It is merely a case of accident (d) None of these
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 140. Facts: X and Y were happily married, living in Bombay. M, an old classmate of Y, was transferred to Bombay. He started visiting X and Y at their flat and became quite friendly with X also. One afternoon X quite unexpectedly came back from his office and to his uttar shock and disbelief he found his wife and M in a compromising position. He, however, controlled himself and kept his cool and asked M never to saw his face again lest he would kill him. After about a week X left on a tour telling his wife that he would be back after four days. He, however, returned the very next day in the evening and found M and Y sitting together on the sofa in the drawing room with Ms hand around Ys shoulder. X straightway went to his bedroom, took out his pistol from the almirah, came back to the drawing room and shot M dead. Issue: Whether the accused is guilty of murder? (a) The accused is not guilty of murder. The case is covered by Exception 1 to Section 300. The mental background created by the previous act of the victim may be taken into consideration for ascertaining whether the subsequent act caused grave and sudden provocation. (b) The accused is guilty of murder. (c) The accused is guilty of culpable homicide. (d) None of these 141. Facts: X was driving a tourist bus at a fast speed. When he was 100 yards away from a traffic crossing he saw a green signal. In a bid to cross the road he enhanced the speed but before he could cross the road the green signal turned red, but X continued to drive on and hit C, a school child, on the Zebra crossing. For what offence can X be convicted? Issue: What offence, if any, has been committed? (a) Its a matter of accident (b) X can be convicted under Section 304-A for rash and negligent driving. (c) The accused is innocent as he had no knowledge of green signal. (d) None of these 142. Facts: A developed friendship with a girl aged 17 years. In course of time the friendship developed into intimacy and three months before her 18th birthday A took the girl several times to movies and public parks during the college hours, but the girl returned home every night. Two weeks before her 18th birthday the girl insisted that they should stay overnight. A arranged for the girls stay in his own house. Next morning on the complaint of the girls father A was arrested. A is prosecuted for the kidnapping of the girl. Issue: What offence, if any, has been committed? (a) A is not guilty as the girl voluntarily left her guardians protection so it not a case of kidnapping. (b) A is guilty of kidnapping as he deliberately developed intimacy with her to induce her to leave her guardians house. (c) A is guilty of conspiracy, kidnapping and offence of taking undue liberty with the girl. (d) None of these 143. Facts: G, a 17 years and 9 month old girl and student of B. A was residing next door to the house of A, a young businessman in a posh colony of New Delhi and both had become friendly to each other. Gs uncle was doing business in Agra. One evening A told G that early next morning he was going to Agra by car and would come back the same evening, and if G was interested in going to meet her uncle in Agra she could accompany him. G, then asked for her parents permission and they allowed. On reaching the Agra A dropped G at her uncles house and in the evening proceeded to take her back to New Delhi. While still in Agra, A suggested to G that he wanted to marry her and keeping in view the orthodox views of their parents it would be better to avail the opportunity. G, though initially reluctant, ultimately agreed to As suggestion. Accordingly, they purchased some ornaments and wedding dress and then went to a temple and
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 got married. They stayed in Agra for a night and decided to go to Bombay. However, the next day they were arrested. A is tried for kidnapping G? Issue: What offence, if any, has been committed? (a) A is not guilty. (b) A is guilty. If the accused has laid a foundation by inducement, allurement, etc., and if this can be considered to have influenced the minor or weighed with her in leaving her guardians custody or keeping and going to the accused, then it would be difficult for the accused to plead that the minor had voluntarily come to him. (c) The facts of the case are not clear and no conclusive decision can be given. (d) None of these 144. Facts: A, a washer man, washed a carpet on the bank of a river and hung it up there to dry. A went to eat his lunch when B, a boatman, tempted by the look of the carpet, moved it to furnish his boat for a day and thereafter return it back to A. Before B could run away with the carpet he was apprehended by A. Issue: What offence, if any, has been committed? (a) B is not guilty of theft. (b) No offence can be made against B. (c) B is guilty of theft. (d) None of these 145. Principle: The Prime Minister is the head of the Indian government. In light of the above principle, which of the following descriptions of India is incorrect? (a) India is a democracy (b) India is a republic (c) India is sovereign (d) None of the above 146. Principle: A man commits rape when he has sexual intercourse with a woman without her consent. Facts: A (male) and B (female) are married. A forces B to engage in sexual intercourse with him. Has he raped her? (a) Yes. He has forced her to engage in sexual intercourse against her will. (b) No. A husband cannot legally rape his wife. (c) No. The law is different for married couples. (d) Yes. But in the interests of the marriage it is better to not prosecute A. 147. Principle: Statutory provisions must be interpreted in light of contemporary practice. Facts: The Indian legal position on wire-tapping is provided by the Indian Telegraph Act which lays down regulations for phone tapping. Is interception of emails allowed by the act? (a) No. The Indian Telegraph Act doesnt refer to interception of emails. (b) No. Contemporary interpretation cannot extend to re-writing laws. (c) Yes. This is allowed by the principle. (d) Yes. This is not allowed by the act, but should be allowed by judicial extension. 148. Principle: A person shall be disqualified for being elected or being a member of a local authority if he has within five years before the day of election or since his election been convicted of any offence and ordered to be imprisoned for a period of not less than three months without the option of fine. Facts: In which of the following cases is Shantanu disqualified? (a) He is disqualified from standing for election if he has been convicted, etc. after his election. (b) He is disqualified from standing for election if he has been convicted, etc. in a period of five years before the day of election. (c) He is disqualified from being a member if he has been convicted, etc. before his election. (d) (b) and (c)
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 149. Principle: A word in a statutory provision must derive its meaning from the words around it. Facts: Article 233 of the constitution provides for the appointment, posting and promotion of civil servants. Which of the following is the correct meaning of posting in this provision? (a) Transferring to a particular location (c) Transferring through a post box (b) Designation to a particular post (d) None
150. Principle: In all factories, engaged in any handicrafts industry, in which 50 or more persons are employed, there must be ACs. Facts: Taabish runs a handicrafts factory which employs 48 people. The handicrafts industry employs 69 people. Taabishs factory has no ACs. Is he in violation of the rule? (a) No. There are less than 50 people employed in the factory. (b) Yes. There are more than 50 people employed in the industry. (c) No. The rule is an unnecessary constraint on the rights of factory owners. (d) Yes. He is employing almost 50 people. This is just a technicality.
Section V: General Knowledge

Directions (Q.151-200): Read the following questions and choose the correct alternative.
151. Which Indian has been awarded with the prestigious the Hoover Medal in 2012 for his philanthropic work? Azim Premji (b) APJ Abdul Kalam (c) N R Narayana Murthy (d) Adi Godrej
152. Which female athlete has been named as the Female Athlete of the Year 2012 by the International Association of Atheltics Federation (IAAF) in November 2012? (a) Sanya Richards (b) Allyson Felix (c) Carmelita Jeter (d) Veronica Campbell
153. Who has been recently become the first Non-White President of Brazils Supreme Court? (a) Carlos Ayres Britto (b) Marcos Valerio (c) Joaquim Barbosa (d) Gilmar Mendes
154. The United Nations Secretary Geneal Ban Ki Moon announced which day in November as Malala Day in the hounour of Pakistani child activist Malala Yousafzai? (a) 22nd November (b) 15th November (c) 10th November (d) 20th November
155. Who has been appointed as the new director of RAW (Research and Analysis Wing) in November 2012? (a) Alok Joshi (b) Sanjeev Tripathi (c) Nehchal Sandhu (d) Syed Asif Ibrahim
156. Nobel laureate Ellen Johnson Sirleaf has been chosen for 2012 Indira Gandhi Prize of her contribution towards Peace in her country. She is President of which country? (a) Liberia (b) Ghana (c) Kenya (d) Nigeria
157. Who has become the first Arab to win the Tagore Peace Prize in Dec 2012? (a) Jamal Juma (b) Salman Masalha (c) Shihab Ghanem (d) Saadi Youseef
158. Which of the following typhoon has created huge devastation and havoc in Philippines in December 2012? (a) Nesat (b) Nina (c) Parma (d) Bopha
159. Who has become the first Supreme Court Judge to be the chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in December 2012? (a) S.H. Kapadia (b) Swatanter Kumar (c) Harish Salve (d) A.K. Patnaik
160. Which hockey team won their fifth successive Champions Trophy title held in December 2012? (a) Netherlands (b) South Korea (c) Australia (d) Japan
161. Olivia Culpo won the crown of Miss Universe 2012 at the ceremony held in USA in December 2012. She belongs to which country? (a) Philippines (b) Venezuela (c) USA (d) UK
162. Recently which airlines company has become the worlds first airlines to produce own fuel? (a) American Airlines (b) Delta Airlines (c) Lufthansa Airlines (d) Eithad Airlines
163. Who is the chairman of the 20th Law Commission of India? (a) Justice Balakrishnan (b) Justice M. Kartzu (c) Justice J. S. Verma (d) Justice D. K. Jain
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 164. Who was elected as the first woman president of South Korea on 19 December 2012? (a) Jeon Yeo-ok (b) Kang Kum-Sil (c) Park Geun-hye (d) Chang Sang
165. The state which was formed in year 2000 and has recently celebrated its 12th Foundation Day on November 2, 2012. The State is (a) Jharkhand (b) Uttarakhand (c) Chhattisgarh (d) None of these
166. Scientists at NASA on September 27, 2012 announced that the Mars Curiosity Rover had discovered stream bed gravel, which hints towards the presence of waist-deep water on the surface of Mars in the past. What is this Mars Curiosity Rover? (a) Satellite (b) Team of Astronauts (c) Robotic explorer (d) Meteors
167. Among the planets of the solar system, the one which has the longest period of rotation is (a) Venus (b) Mars (c) Saturn (d) Pluto
168. Which of the following pairs is correct? (a) Ross island - South America (c) Altai- Africa 169. Planning Commission was established in 1950 through : (a) A constitutional amendment (c) An executive order (b) A Supreme Court order (d) A decision by the Parliament discrimination (b) Andes Australia (d) Alps- Europe
170. Which of the following cities is incorrectly matched to the river on which it is situated? (a) Budapest- River Danube (c) Amsterdam- River Amsel 171. Most ancient musical instrument among the following is: (a) Sarod (b) Tabla (c) Sitar (d) Veena (b) Baghdad- River Tigris (d) Alexandria- River Niger
172. The words Satyameva Jayate inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from (a) Ramayana (b) Mundak Upanishad (c) Rigveda (d) Satpath Brahmana
173. The headquarters of UNHCR is located at (a) New York (b) Rome (c) London (d) Geneva
174. To which country did the first Secretary General of U.N. belong? (a) Sweden (b) Norway (c) Austria (d) Burma
175. Which of the following (Dance and Related State) is NOT correct? (a) Bihu: Assam (c) Pandavani: Madhya Pradesh (b) Chiraw: Mizoram (d) Maharasa: Uttar Pradesh
176. Which one of the following pairs (Book and its Author) is NOT correct? (a) Arthashastra : Vishnugupt (c) Kadambari : Banabhatt (b) Gita Rahasya : B. G. Tilak (d) Ananda Math : Rabindranath Tagore
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 177. Ekta Sthal is Crematorium of which famous person (a) Zail Singh (b) Jagjivan Ram (c) Morarji Desai (d) Gulzarilal Nanda
178. Which of the following (Famous Building and City) is NOT correct? (a) Sidi Sayyid Mosque: Ahmadabad (c) Kailasa Temple: Mysore (b) Gol Gumbaz : Bijapur (d) Black Pagoda : Konark (Orissa)
179. First Indian man to climb Mount Everest without Oxygen is (a) Phu Dorjee (b) Nawang Gombu (c) Tenzing Norgay (d) None of these
180. The working language(s) of the UNESCO is/are (a) English Only (c) French only (b) English and French (d) English, French and Russian
181. The special agency of the U.N. engaged in the promotion of Socio-Cultural rights of people is known as the (a) UNICEF (b) General Assembly (c) UNESCO (d) U. N. Secretariat
182. Which temple got the name of Black Pagoda? (a) Sun Temple (c) Jagannath Temple 183. North Magnetic pole is located in (a) Canada 184. The Straight of Tartar joins (a) Arabian Sea and Red Sea (c) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea 185. The headquarters of UNWTO is situated in (a) Geneva (b) Paris (c) Madrid (d) Rome (b) Arabian Sea and Persian Gulf (d) Sea of Japan and Sakhalinsky Zaliv (b) Greenland (c) Siberia (d) Victoria Land (b) Lingaraja Temple (d) Bhuvaneshwari Temple
186. International Day of the Worlds Indigenous People is celebrate on (a) 9th September (b) 9th August (c) 8th August (d) 10th August
187. Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells? (a) Rigaveda (b) Samaveda (c) Yajurveda (d) Atharvaveda
188. The Indus Valley Civilization specialized in (a) town planning (b) architecture (c) craftsmanship (d) All of these
189. Which one of the following is the highest gravity dam? (a) Beas Dam (b) Nangal Dam (c) Bhakra Dam (d) Hirakud Dam
190. What is the longest irrigation canal India called? (a) Yamuna Canal (c) Indira Gandhi Canal (b) Sirhind Canal (d) Upper Bari Doab Canal
Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109 191. Nuclear energy is a mineral-based energy source. It is derived from (a) Uranium (b) Thorium (c) Plutonium (d) All of these
192. Which of the following best defines the Parliamentary term Crossing the Floor? (a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian (b) An attempt to occupy the seat of some other Parliamentarian (c) Leaving a House by a minister in between in order to attend the other House (d) Walk out by some Parliamentarians in order to boycott the proceedings of the House 193. The Supreme Court passed the special judgement that the basic tenets of our Constitution cannot be changed by the Parliament by any amendment in the (a) Keshavanand Bharthi Case (c) Balananda Saraswati Case (b) Gokalnath Case. (d) Minerva Mills Ltd & others
194. Chapter III on the Fundamental Rights contains twenty four articles from (a) Art 12 35 195. The largest glaciers are (a) Mountain glaciers (b) alpine glaciers (c) continental glaciers (d) piedmont glaciers (b) Art 14 37 (c) Art 10 33 (d) Art 16 39
196. The second largest island (next to Greenland) in the world is (a) Borneo (b) Malagasy (c) New Guinea (d) Sumatra
197. The study of day-to-day variations in weather called is called (a) Climatology (b) meteorology (c) cyclogenesis (d) None of the above
198. The planets with no natural satellites (reported so far) are (a) Mercury and Venus (b) Earth and Pluto (c) Mars and Neptune (d) Jupiter and Saturn
199. Which of the following is used in pencils? (a) Graphite (b) Silicon (c) Charcoal (d) Phosphorous
200. Which global language made its official debut recently in October 2012 among one of the Languages at Pope Benedicts weekly general audiences? (a) Hindi (b) Japanese (c) Chinese (d) Arabic

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Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109

LAW Prep Tutorial (P) Limited

CLAT Rehearsal (LPTSM-006-109)

The Test is Based on CLAT. Time: 2 Hours, Total Marks: 200

LAW Prep Tutorial (P) Limited

Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109

Section II- Maths

Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109

Section-III: Logical Reasoning

(d) None of these

(d) All follow

(d) None of these

Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109

Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109

Section-IV: Legal Aptitude

(b) There is a violation of the right to health.

Law Prep Tutorial / Test Code - LPTSM-006-109

Section V: General Knowledge

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