This document contains a biology exam with 56 multiple choice questions covering topics like biodiversity conservation, DNA replication, photosynthesis, plant physiology, human embryology, endocrinology, and genetics. The questions test knowledge of concepts like Myers' concept of biodiversity hotspots, the DNA polymerase requirements for E. coli replication, the light and pigment requirements for photosynthesis, and embryonic development of organs and tissues in humans.
This document contains a biology exam with 56 multiple choice questions covering topics like biodiversity conservation, DNA replication, photosynthesis, plant physiology, human embryology, endocrinology, and genetics. The questions test knowledge of concepts like Myers' concept of biodiversity hotspots, the DNA polymerase requirements for E. coli replication, the light and pigment requirements for photosynthesis, and embryonic development of organs and tissues in humans.
This document contains a biology exam with 56 multiple choice questions covering topics like biodiversity conservation, DNA replication, photosynthesis, plant physiology, human embryology, endocrinology, and genetics. The questions test knowledge of concepts like Myers' concept of biodiversity hotspots, the DNA polymerase requirements for E. coli replication, the light and pigment requirements for photosynthesis, and embryonic development of organs and tissues in humans.
This document contains a biology exam with 56 multiple choice questions covering topics like biodiversity conservation, DNA replication, photosynthesis, plant physiology, human embryology, endocrinology, and genetics. The questions test knowledge of concepts like Myers' concept of biodiversity hotspots, the DNA polymerase requirements for E. coli replication, the light and pigment requirements for photosynthesis, and embryonic development of organs and tissues in humans.
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8iology ] [ MHT-CIT 8lOIOG MODII PAPIR-1
1. Who developed the hot spots concept to
designate priority areas for in situ conservation (a) Odum (b) Sutton (c) Dobzhansky (d) Myers 2. Depleted populations in wild can be restocked by (a) Using animals and plants conserved in botanical gardens and zoo (b) Mass production of species in laboratory by biotechnology (c) Embryo culture and embryo transfer (d) All of the above 3. Conservation of biodiversity is possible by (a) Seed banks (b) Tissue culture (c) Ex-situ technologies (d) All of the above 4. Ecological diversity describes the number of niches that sustain (a) Energy flow (b) Food web (c) Recycling of nutrients (d) All of the above 5. What is the internationally suggested norm for forest cover for a countrys land mass? (a) 25 % (b) 5 % (c) 10 % (d) 30 % 6. How many biosphere reserves exist in India? (a) 408 (b) 13 (c) 25 (d) 120 7. Bacterial DNA replication is (a) Conservative and bi-directional (b) Semiconservative and bi-directional (c) Semiconservative and unidirectional (d) Conservative and unidirectional 8. E. coli DNA polymerase requires for DNA replication (a) Four dNTPs (b) A DNA template (c) Mg ++ and a primer with a 3OH end (d) All of the above 9. DNA synthesis occurs in (a) 5
3 (b) 3
5 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) All directions 10. E. coli DNA polymerase-I has (a) 3
5 exonuclease (proof-reading) activity (b) 5
3 exonuclease activity (c) 5 3 polymerase activity (d) All of the above 11. The region of replicating DNA associated with the single origin is called a replication bubble or replication eye which consist of (a) One replication fork (b) Two replication forks (c) Three replication forks (d) Four replication forks 12. DNA synthesis proceeds in a 5 3 direction on each strand of the parental DNA. The strand with 3
5 orientation is called (a) Leading strand (b) Lagging strand (c) Template strand (d) Primer strand 13. *Blue-green algae shows (a) Chlorophyll 'a' (b) Chlorophyll 'b' (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 14. *What will be the effect when very high intensity of light is supplied to a photosynthesis system (a) Process will increase (b) Process will decrease (c) Process will stop due to solarization (d) None of the above 15. *Pigment system-11 is concerned with (a) Photolysis of water (b) Reduction of CO 2 (c) Flowering (d) None of the above 16. *Leaves appear green because they (a) Reflect green light (b) Absorb green light (c) Both reflect and absorb green light (d) None of the above 17. *The process of taking CO 2 by plants and releasing O 2 is termed as (a) Endosmosis (b) Photosynthesis (c) Transpiration (d) Respiration 18. CO 2 is formed in all of the following except (a) Burning of sugar (b) Respiration in plants (c) Photosynthesis by plants (d) On heating of limestone 19. Stomata in angiosperms does not open during (a) Noon (b) Twilight MHT-CIT 8iology Pratlite Paper [ 8iology MHT-CIT 8lOIOG MODII PAPIR-2 ] (c) 11 O'clock (d) At midnight 20. Which of the following wall of guard cells is thick (a) Outer (b) Inner (c) Side wall (d) All the three 21. Wheat grains before germination absorb water by (a) Endosmosis (b) Exosmosis (c) Plasmolysis (d) Imbibition 22. When a plant cell is placed in a solution which is hypotonic to the cell sap, which of the following conditions will not apply (a) The water potential of the cell sap will rise (b) The suction pressure of the cell sap will fail (c) The cell will become turgid (d) The wall pressure of the cell will fail 23. Transpiring organ in plants is (a) Epidermis (b) Xylem (c) Cortex (d) Phloem 24. Upon the oxidation of one mole of pyruvate by mitochondrial respiration, the moles of ATP generated are (a) 38 (b) 30 (c) 8 (d) 15 25. The number of steps required for oxidation of one molecule of pyruvic acid is (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 12 26. First stage in respiration is (a) Aerobic oxidation of pyruvic acid (b) Liberation of CO 2 (c) Glycolysis (d) Electron transport system 27. R.Q. is defined as (a) Ratio between CO 2 liberated and O 2 taken (b) Volume of oxygen taken (c) Volume of carbon dioxide liberated (d) Ratio between oxygen taken and fat utilized 28. ATP i s synthesi zed i n whi ch par t of mitochondria (a) F 1 (b) F 0 (c) Cristae (d) Inner membrane of mitochondria 29. R.Q. is highest when respiratory substance is (a) Fat (b) Maleic acid (c) Glucose (d) Protein 30. The ovule in pea are (a) Anatropous (b) Hemianatropous (c) Campylotropous (d) Amphitropous 31. The megasporangium of the angiosperms on maturation gives rise to (a) A fruit (b) Seed (c) An embryo (d) Cotyledons 32. Microsporogenesis is a synonym for (a) Spermatogenesis (b) Development of pollen (c) Development of male gametophyte (d) Development of female gametophyte 33. By tissue culture, indefinite number of plants from a small amount of parental tissue can be obtained. This technique is of great economic importance as (a) New species can be generated (b) Through somaclonal variation, a large number of variants can be isolated (c) It is a useful method to multiply genetically uniform population of elite species (d) Homozygous diploids can be obtained 34. In plants, in nature, autogamy is avoided since the seeds produced (a) Are fewer in number (b) Do not germinate successfully (c) Do not produce healthy plants (d) All of the above 35. Seeds develop from (a) Ovules (b) Ovaries (c) Anthers (d) Pistils 36. The biological activity of 1AA is tested by (a) -amylase test (b) Avena curvature test (c) Soyabean callus test (d) Xanthium leaf disc test 37. Cell elongation in plants is caused by (a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (c) Florigen (d) Traumatin 38. Who among the following discovered the Avena curvature test to find out the concentration of auxins 8iology ] [ MHT-CIT 8lOIOG MODII PAPIR-J (a) F. W. Went (b) L. J. Audus (c) K. V. Thimman (d) F. Skoog 39. With which of the following process Cholodny- Went theory is concerned (a) Phototropism (b) Photomorphogenesis (c) Photorespiration (d) Photoperiodism 40. Which of the following movements is not related to change in auxin levels (a) Nyctinastic leaf movement (b) Movement of roots towards soil (c) Movement of sunflower tracking the direction of the sun (d) Movement of shoot towards light 41. The elongation of genetically dwarf plants is brought about by the application of (a) Cytokinin (b) Gibberellins (c) X-rays (d) Vitamin C 42. During the development of embryo which of the following occur first (a) Differentiation of tissue (b) Differentiation of cells (c) Differentiation of organs (d) Differentiation of organ system 43. In embryonic stage RBC develops in (a) Liver and kidney (b) Liver and spleen (c) Spleen and kidney (d) Liver and pancreas 44. Relative sizes of an egg cell, morule, blastula and gastrula are (a) Egg cell is largest and morula is smallest (b) Egg cell is smallest and gastrula is largest (c) Egg cell is largest and gastrula is smallest (d) All are of equal size 45. In the development of man which structures are formed from splenchnopleure. (a) Muscles and connective tissue of digestive tube (b) Vertebral column and spinal cord (c) Brain and its coverings (d) Urinogenital organs 46. During the course of development, cells in various regions of embryo become variable in morphology and eventually perform diverse functions. This process is known as (a) Rearrangement (b) Differentiation (c) Metamorphosis (d) Organisation 47. If the ectoderm from neural tissue area is removed from the embryo and transplanted in place of presumptive belly ectoderm embryo will develop (a) Without a neural tube (b) With a neural tube (c) With two ectodermal coats (d) With two neural tube 48. Thyroxin was isolated by (a) Kocher (b) Best and Sterling (c) F. Senger (d) None of the above 49. Which of the following disease results from endocrine disorder (a) Pneumonia (b) Typhoid (c) Goitre (d) Jaundice 50. Hypothyroidism has one of the following features (a) Weight loss (b) Increased metabolic rate (c) Accumulation of albumin protein and poly saccharides below skin (d) Irritability 51. When the thyroid secretion is too much, the gland itself gets enlarged, conversely, if the secretion is too little, the gland gets (a) Enlarged (b) Reduced (c) Disappeared (d) None of above 52. Energy releasing process in the body cells is initiated by (a) Pituitary (b) Thyroid (c) Parathyroid (d) Adrenal 53. Human genome database has been of great importance in research on (a) Gene therapy (b) Genetic engineering (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 54. Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with [ 8iology MHT-CIT 8lOIOG MODII PAPIR-4 ] (a) No spleen (b) Hare lip (c) Extra fingers and toes (d) Underdeveloped limbs 55. Which one of the following is a stimulant (a) LSD (b) Cocaine (c) Opium (d) Heroin 56. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness (a) Valium (b) Morphine (c) Hashish (d) Amphetamines 57. When a person dies after stung by a bee following by the administration of penicillin, death may be due to (a) Prophylactic shock (b) Anaphylactic shock (c) Autouimmunity (d) Sedation (e) None of these 58. The synthetic drug structurally similar to adrenalin are (a) Amphetamines (b) Barbiturates (c) Hallucinogens (d) Nicotinic derivatives (e) Analgesics 59. In heavy smokers the alveoli of the lungs are enlarged and damaged which reduces the surface area for the exchange of respiratory gases. This condition is called (a) Asthma (b) Silicosis (c) Emphysema (d) Anosmia (e) Bronchitis 60. 'Dengue fever' is caused by (a) Bacteria (b) Plasmodium (c) Virus (d) Entamoeba histolytica 61. Filarial larva can be collected from man's (a) Smears of intestinal contents (b) Peripheral blood at midnight (c) Smears of spleen (d) Biopsy of liver 62. Deficiency of adrenal cortex activity leads to (a) Addison's disease (b) Conn's disease (c) Cushing's disease (d) Simmond's disease 63. Study of i nteracti on of anti gens and antibodies in the blood is (a) Cryobiology (b) Serology (c) Haematology (d) Angiology 64. Bl ack water fever' i s a very seri ous complication (a) P. ovale (b) P. falciparum (c) P. malariae (d) P. vivax 65. 'Encephalitis' in man is a viral disease and is transmitted by (a) Anopheles (b) Culex (c) Aedes (d) Culex and Aedes 66.* Which of the following displays immune tolerance (a) Bcells (b) Tcells (c) cells (d) Both (a) and (b) 67. The term antibiotic was coined by (a) Alexander Fleming (b) Edward Jenner (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Selman Waksman 68. A person is injected with immunogen against hepatitis. This is (a) Artificially acquired passive immunity (b) Artificially acquired active immunity (c) Naturally acquired active immunity (d) Naturally acquired passive immunity 69. The AIDS test is known as (a) Elisa (b) Australian Antigen (c) HIV test (d) None of these 70. Zidovudine drug is used for (a) Cancer (b) Hepatitis (c) AIDS (d) Malaria 71.* Triple antigen vaccine is not used for (a) Diphtheria (b) Pertussis (c) Typhoid (d) Tetanus 72. Ganja and LSD are classified in (a) Narcotic (b) Hallucinogens (c) Stimulants (d) Depressent 73. Which alkaloids are present in opium. (a) Codeine (b) Morphine (c) Thebaine (d) All of these 74. Family of Atropa balladonna is (a) Malvaceae (b) Solanaceae (c) Bracicaceae (d) Liliaceae 8iology ] [ MHT-CIT 8lOIOG MODII PAPIR-S 75. LSD is (a) Sedative (b) Stimulant (c) Tranquilizer (d) Hallucinogenic 76. The study of the action of drugs is known as (a) Pharmacognosy (b) Pharmacology (c) Physiology (d) Pharmaceutical chemistry 77. Which one of the following is a medicinal plant (a) Jatropha curcas (b) Calendula officinalis (c) Tagetus petula (d) Sesbania aegyptiaca 78. Drugs which induce dreamy state of consciousness is (a) Sedative (b) Stimulant (c) Depressant (d) Hallucinogen 79. Common name of 'Wallago attu' is (a) Indian shark (b) Blue shark (c) Fresh water shark (d) Saw fish 80. Isin glass a type of by product of fish industry is principally used for (a) Feeding cattle, pigs and poultry (b) Preparation of paints and varnishes (c) Clarification of vinegar, wines and beer (d) Production of insulin 81. Inland fisheries' is referred to (a) Culturing fish in fresh water (b) Trapping and capturing fishes from seacoast (c) Deep sea fishing (d) Extraction of oil from fishes 82. Isin glass is prepared from (a) Ichthyophis (b) Musk deer (c) Fishes (d) Lizards 83. Fish flour is used in manufacturing of (a) Biscuits (b) Breads (c) Cakes (d) all of the above 84. Insulin is obtained from the (a) Pancreas of a shark (b) Liver of shark (c) Pancreas of Rohu (d) None of these 85. The parts of the neurons that perform basic cellular functions such as protein synthesis are the (a) Axons (b) Dendrites (c) Synaptic knobs (d) Soma 86. Which of the following is a richly vascular layer with lots of blood capillaries (a) Duramater of brain (b) Piamater of spinal cord (c) Epidermis of skin (d) Epithelial lining of trachea 87. All spinal nerves are (a) Motor (b) Sensory (c) Mixed (d) None of the above 88. The nerves leading to the central nervous system are called (a) Afferent (b) Efferent (c) Motor (d) None 89.* Cell bodies of neurons bringing afferent information into the spinal cord are located in (a) Grey matter of spinal cord (b) White matter of spinal cord (c) Dorsal root ganglia (d) Ventral root ganglia 90. Which of the following is not correctly matched (a) Rhinon cephalon - Olfaction (b) Hypothalamus - Pituitory (c) Cerebellum - Balance (d) Medulla oblongata - Temperature regulation 91. Difference between glomerular filtrate and plasma is of (a) Proteins (b) Potassium (c) First is white where as later is yellow (d) First is yellow whereas later is white 92. Excretory products of mammalian embryo are eliminated by (a) Placenta (b) Amniotic fluid (c) Allantois (d) Ureters 93. A condition of failure of kidney to from urine is called (a) Creatinine (b) Hematuria (c) Anuria (d) Ketonuria 94. Effective filtration pressure in the glomerulus in kidney of man is about [ 8iology MHT-CIT 8lOIOG MODII PAPIR-6 ] (a) +75 mm Hg (b) +80 mm Hg (c) +25 mm Hg (d) +50 mm Hg 95. Kidney is involved in excretion of (a) Urea, Extra salts and excess water (b) Extra urea salts and extra water (c) Extra urea, extra water and extra amino acids. (d) Extra urea, extra and carbohydrates 96. Active transport takes place in absorption of (a) Sodium chloride (b) Bicarbonate ions (c) Amino acids (d) All of the above 97. Urine becomes cloudy when (a) Alkalinity increases (b) Alkalinity decreases (c) Their is an bacterial infection (d) Both (b) and (c) 98. High blood pressure is maintained in glomeruli than in other capillaries because (a) The variability of the diameters of arterioles causes higher resistance to blood flowing out of the glomeruli than to out of the capillaries (b) Glomeruli has low hydrostatic pressure than capillary (c) Capillary has less diameter than glomeruli (d) All of the above 99. Pressure gradient is determined by (a) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (b) Blood osmotic pressure (c) Capsular hydrostatic pressure (d) All of the above 100. Passive transport occurs in the case of (a) Cations (b) Chloride ions (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 101. Ornithine is converted into citrulline by an enzyme (a) Glutamic dehydrogenase (b) Aspartic glutamic transaminase (c) Carbamyl phosphate synthetase (d) Ornithine carbamyl transferase 102. An ECG gives information of (a) Brain (b) Ventricle (c) Auricle (d) Both (b) and (c) 103. Which of the following reveals the muscle disorders (a) ECG (b) EEG (c) EMG (d) All of these 104. Who was first to record EEG of man (a) Hans Berger (b) Galileo Galilei (c) Willem Einthoven (d) Sanctorius 105. EEG can hel p i n di agnosi ng certai n conditions like (a) Epilepsy (b) Encephalitis (c) Dementia (d) All of these 106. Which type of the following heart valves are generally damaged (a) Tricuspid valve (b) Eustachian valve (c) Bicuspid valve (d) Aortic semilunar valves 107. The employing of artificial arteries is termed (a) Autograft (b) Allograft (c) Vascular graft (d) Xenograft 108. Bioinformatics involve the use of techniques of........ to solve biological problems. (a) Applied mathematics (b) Informatics (c) Statistics and computer science (d) All of the above 109. Genome annotation is the process of (a) Marking the genes and other biological features in a DNA sequence (b) Synthesis of genomic DNA (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 110. Genome Database is (a) Information about computer programming (b) Information about genome of a par ticular organism or the species is stored (c) Information about protein synthesis (d) All of the above 111. Bioinformatics is useful in (a) Protein structure prediction (b) Phylogeny (c) Medical informatics (d) Pharmacogenomics (e) All of the above 8iology ] [ MHT-CIT 8lOIOG MODII PAPIR-7 112. The retrieval of information from the computer is defined as (a) Collection of data (b) Data retrieval operations (c) Output (d) Data output collection 113. Human beings are referred to as Homosapiens. Which device is called Silico sapiens ? (a) Monitor (b) Hardware (c) Robot (d) Computer 114. The CPU of a computer transfers print output to a temporary disk memory at high speed and then gets back to processing another job without waiting for the output to go to the printer. In this way, the CPU does not remain idle due to its own high speed as compared to the low speed of the printer. What is the name of this memory? (a) External memory (b) I/O memory (c) ROM (d) Buffer memory 115. Which of the following isnt used in the storage phase of a computer-based information system? (a) Magnetic (b) Keyboard (c) Diskette (d) Hard disk 116. The basic components of a modern digital computer are (a) Central processor (b) Input device (c) Output device (d) All of the above 117. No computer can do anything without a (a) Program (b) Memory (c) Chip (d) Output device 118. What is meant by the term RAM? (a) Memory which can only be read (b) Memory which can be both read and written to (c) Memory which is used for permanent storage (d) Memory which can only be written to 119. The two kinds of main memory are (a) Primary and secondary (b) Random and sequential (c) ROM and RAM (d) Central and peripheral 120. Data System management has long-term viability as a separate business function because (a) It requires much technical knowledge (b) It requires large investments (c) Speci al i sts i n data systems cannot be integrated into a marketing or manu-facturing organization (d) An i ntegrated database accessi bl e to al l requires independent management ANSWERS 1.(d) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(c) 6.(b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (b) 81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85.(d) 86.(b) 87.(c) 88.(a) 89.(c) 90.(d) 91.(a) 92.(a) 93.(c) 94.(c) 95.(a) 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (b) 101. (d) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (a) 110. (b) 111. (e) 112. (c) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (c) 120. (d)