1.

What is true about the

of a BJT?
A. lesser than 1
B. greater than 1
C. unity
D. infinity

11. Calculate f max for an OP

Amp that has a slew rate of 5V/
s and a peak output voltage of
10 V.
A. 90 kHz
C. 59.6 kHz
B. 90 kHz
D. 79.6 kHz

2. What is true about the of a

BJT?
A. lesser than 1 C. greater than 1
B. unity D. infinity

12. What value of Rx in parallel

with 40 ohms provide a resistance
equivalent of 40 ohms ?

3. Robotics is a multi-disciplinary
subject embracing elements of
A. mechanical engineering
B. electronics and control theory
C. computer science
D. all of the above
4. In a robot, the axes that allow
rotation are often referred to as
what joints?
A. Revolute joints
C. Movable joints
B. Permanent joints
D. Stationary joints
5. A power supply develops 90 V
dc with a 5 V ac, what is the
percent ripple?
A. 5.56 %
C. 12 %
B. 7.2 % D. 0 %
6. Simplify F = a + b + ac
A. a + b + c
C. a + b
B. a + b + c
D. a + c
7. Simplify F = xy + xz + yz
A. x+y+z
C. xy + xz
B. x + y + z
D. x + yz
8. Which semiconductor
manufacturer was the first to develop
an OP AMP IC ?
A. National semiconductor
C. Fairchild
B. Motorola
D. Signetics
9. Which of the following chemical
elements is first used in the
commercial production of solid
state rectifier diode?
A. selenium
C. germanium
B. silicon
D. Copper
10. What is the operating temperature
of selenium?
A. 0C to 85C
C. 50 to 200C
B. 0 C to 100C D. 0 to 300C

A. 100
B. 0

C. 40
D. Infinity

13. What is the operating

temperature of germanium?
A. -10C to 85C
C. -55 to 100C
B. -20 C to 100C
D. -45 to 300C
14. Approximates real diode with a
battery, a resistance and an ideal
diode
A. simplified model
B. non ideal device
C. ideal device
D. piecewise linear model
15. The average value of halfwave,
pulsating dc is _______ of
the rms value.
A. 45 % C. 48 %
B. 90 %
D. none of the above
16. Which of the following is not a
BCD code?
A. 0000
C. 0110
B. 01010100
D. 1100
17. Which hybrid parameter that is
usually neglected in most circuit
analysis ?
l hi and ho
C. hr and ho
l hr and hf
D. hi and hr
18. What is the velocity of sound in
a vacuum?
A. 341 m/s
C. infinity
B. 3 x 108 m/s D. zero

19. Add 2235 to 2245

A. 4415
C. 50025
B. 333 5
D. 10025

20. Add 1101 to 101

A. 10010
C.10011
B. 11010
D.1202
21. If the slew rate for a unity gain
inverting 741 OP AMP is 0.5 V /
s , how long will it take for the
output to change by 5 V ?
A. 10 s
C. 2.5 s
B. 100 s
D. 25s
22. A bonding of atoms,
strengthened by the sharing of
electrons, is called
A. metallic bond C. ionic bond
B. covalent bond D. atomic bond
23. There are approximately how
many free carriers in a cubic cm of
intrinsic silicon material at 25?
A. 2.5 X 1013
C. 1.5 X 1013
B. 2.5 X 1010
D. 1.5 X 1010
24. What type of light wave has the
most energy?
A. infrared
C. visible
B. ultraviolet
D. both a and
25. Silicon is capable of operating
A. from 0C to 350C
B. from -273C to 350C
C. from -176C to 350C
D. from 176C to 350C
26. What is the atomic number of
silicon?
A. 14 C. 10
B. 16
D. 32
27. Discrete semiconductors are
categorized as power devices
because it is capable of dissipating
A. 3 nwatts or more
B. 3mw or more
C. 6 watts or more
D. 3 watts or more
28. Devices capable of dissipating
less than 3 w at 25 C
A. large signal C. average signal
B. small signal
D. power

29. A circuit that receives

information on a single line and
transmits this information on one of
2n possible output lines
A. Multiplexer C. Decoder
B. Encoder
D. Demultiplexer
30. A combinational circuit that
selects binary information from one
of many input lines and directs it to
a single output line
A. digital multiplexer
C. decoder
B. digital demultiplexer D. encoder
31. An AND gate with an inverter
A. Equivalence C. NAND
B. NOR
D. OR
32. Why is the common emitter
amplifier the most widely used
transistor amplification
configuration?
A. it provides voltage gain
B. it provides current gain
C. it provides high power gain
D. all of the above
33. How many PN junctions are
there in an SCR ?
A. one C. three
B. two D. Four
34. Which of the ff. devices was
specifically developed to control ac
power by varying the circuit
conduction angle ?
A. SCR
C. diac
B. Triac D. none of the above
35. Considered as a reverse
blocking thyristor
A. SCR
C. triac
B. Diac
D. transistor
36. The name thyristor comes from
an older device called
A. thyratron
C. thyritube
B. thyratrous
D. thytube
37. When a pair of SCRs are
gated halfway through their respective half cycles
of the ac power waveform , the circuit is saidto be
firing at
A. 45 degrees
C. 0 degree
B. 90 degrees
D. 180 degrees

38. In order to apply full ac power

to a load , a triac should be fired
at the _____ point on each half
cycle.
A. 0 degree
C. 30 degrees
B. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
39. Which semiconductor device
behaves like two SCRs?
A. UJT
C. JFET
B. Triac D. diac
40. After firing an SCR, the gating
pulse is removed. The current in
the SCR will
A. remain the same
B. immediately fall to zero
C. rise up
D. rise a little and then fall to zero
41. What happens to the value of
forward break over voltage required
to turn on an SCR as more gate
current is applied?
A. it is not changed
C. it decreases
B. it increases
D. none of the above
42. How many break over points
does the characteristic curve of a
diac show?
A. one
C. three
B. two
D. Four
43. Which rectifier uses four
diodes?
A. Half-wave
C. Bridge
B. Center-tapped D. All of the above
44. What rating is used to measure
the action of a filter?
A. Percent rectification
B. Percent ripple
C. Percent regulation
D. Percent filteration
45. An PNP transistor is normally
biased so that its base is ____.
A. positive
C. zero
B. negative
D. Infinite
46. What is the lower frequency
limit of an OP AMP ?
A. 20 Hz
C. DC
B. 6 Hz
D. 7.34 Hz

47. Another term for varactor diode

A. Robocap
C. contractor diode
B. Tunnel diode
D. varicap
48. An ohmmeter is connected
across a diode. A low resistance is
shown. The leads are reversed. A
low resistance is still shown. The
diode is ______
A. shorted
C. a tunnel diode
B. open
D. capacitive diode
49. Why is there no power
dissipation in a perfect switch ?
A. When the switch is closed, its resistance
is zero.
B. When the switch is open, the current is
zero.
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
50. Involves the use of heat to
liberate electrons from an element
called a cathode.
A. Thermionic emission
B. field emission
C. Secondary emission
D. heat emission
51. Three 500 W light bulbs are
connected in parallel across the
220 V power line. If one bulb
opens , how many bulbs can light ?
A. One
C. none
B. Two
D. all
52. A depletion MOSFET has Idss
= 12 mA and Vp = - 4.5 v. Calculate
the drain current at gate source
voltage of 0 V
A. 3.8 mA
C. 12 mA
B. 3.8 mA
D. 12 mA
53. For an n channel enhancement
MOSFET with threshold voltage of
2.5 V, determine the current at gate
source voltage of 6 V.
A. 0.675 mA
C. 1.675 mA
B. 3.675 mA
D. 2.675 mA
54. Determine the value of transconductance for an n
channel enhancement MOSFET having
threshold voltage V = 3 V at the operating point of 8
V.
A. 3 mS C. 1.8 mS
B. 4 mS
D. 2.8 mS

55. When Q = 0 and Q = 1, the

flip flop is
A. Set
C. reset
B. active
D. passive
56. What is the majority carrier in
an n type material?
A. holes C. neutrons
B. electrons
D. Protons
57. Maximum number of inputs for
a logic gate without impairing its
operation.
A. fan out
C. either a or b
B. loading
D. fan in
58. A processing in which the data
is processed virtually as soon as it
is received.
A. on line processing
B. demand processing
C. batch processing
D. either A or B
59. A process by which materials
release electrons when the surface
is bombarded by incident electrons.
A. field emission
B. secondary emission
C. thermionic emission
D. none of the above
60. Demagnetizing by applying AC
field and gradually reducing it to
zero.
A. Differentiating C. degaussing
B. dicing
D. neutralizing
61. 1 mil is equal to
A. 0.1 inch
C. 0.0001 inch
B. 0.01 inch
D. 0.001 inch
62. Memory which does not retain
stored data when power is cut off.
A. ROM
C. hard disk
B. EPROM
D. volatile
63. The stored information is nonvolatile
and fixed during
manufacture.
A. RAM C. EPROM
B. ROM D. PROM

64. Another term for Esaki diode.

A. LED
C. varactor
B. Tunnel diode
D. zener diode
65. Maximum power transfer
occurs at
A. 100 % efficiency
C. 75 % efficiency
B. 50 % efficiency
D. 0 % efficiency
66. A filter that rejects only one
frequency .
A. uni filter
C. LPF
B . notch filter D. HDF
67. The conventional current
direction is the direction of the
A. electron
C. proton
B. hole
D. Carrier
68. A 50 A meter movement has
an internal resistance of 1000 .
What shunt resistance is needed to
extend the range to 500 A ?
A. 130
C. 500
B. 5.2
D. 111
69. A copper wire has a diameter
of 0.005 inch . Find its area in
circular mil.
A. 25 cmil
C. cmil
B. 50 cmil
D. 0.025 cmil
70. If the efficiency of power
transfer from source to load is 60
percent , should the load resistance
be ___________ to enable
maximum power transfer?
A. Increased
C. remained the same
B. Decreased
D. none of the above
71. Clipping circuits are sometimes
referred to as
A. Slicers
B. Limiter
C. Amplitude selectors
D. all of the above
72. A type of multivibrator that has
no stable state.
A. astable multivibrator
C. bistable
B. stable multivibrator
D. monostable
73. For a halfwave rectified signal ,
calculate the % ripple.
A. 123 %
C. 48 %
B. 121 %
D. 50 %

74. If the voltage at the source

terminals of a circuit is 100 volts
without load and 90 volts when 10
amperes are drawn from the
source . What value is the load
resistance to afford maximum
power transfer?
A. 10
C. 100
B. 1
D. 1 k
75. Which of the four circuit blocks
of a dc power supply converts an
ac input into a pulsating dc output?
A. transformer
C. filter
B. regulator
D. rectifier
76. How are SCR s normally turned
on?
A. by applying reverse break over voltage
B. by applying forward break over voltage
C. by a separate commutation circuit
D. by applying Gate current
77. For a full wave rectified signal,
calculate the % ripple.
A. 48 %
C. 148 %
B. 121 %
D. 21 %
78. A 10 ohms R1 and a 20 ohms
R2 are in series with a 30 V
source. If R1 opens , the voltage
drop across it ( R1 ) will be
A. Zero
C. 30 V
B. Infinity
D. 20 V
79. In a series circuit with unequal
resistances
A. the lowest R has the highest V
B. the highest R has the highest V
C. the lowest R has the most I
D. The highest R has the most I
80. The resonant frequency of an
LC circuit is 1000 khz. If L is
doubled but C is reduced to one
eighth of its original value , the
resonant frequency then is
A. 250 khz
C. 1000 khz
B. 500 khz
D. 2000 khz
81. What is the most common
application of diac?
A. amplifier
B. triggering devices for triac
C. regulator
D. controller

82. Example of an atom having

five valence electrons.
A. Antimony
C. Indium
B. Si
D. Boron
83. A modern industrial robot is
A. multi-functional
C. servo-controlled
B. Programmable D. all of the above
84. Who designed the
microprocessor in 1969?
A. William Shockley
B. Kilby and Noyce

C. Ted Hoff
D. Jon von Neumann

85. What is the combined dB gain

of a two-cascaded voltage amplifier
whose individual voltage gains are
10 and 100?
A. 40
C. 60
B. 800 D. 1000
86. Load impedance must match
Amplifyier impedance in order that
A. minimum power is transferred to the load
B. maximum power is transferred to the load
C. efficiency may be held at a high level
D. signal-to-noise ratio is maximized
87. What does a gold third band
represent?
A. 0.01 multiplier C. a 0.1 multiplier
B. 5% tolerance
D. a 10% tolerance
88. Introduction of industrial robots
in manufacturing industry leads to
A. labor savings
B. improved product quality
C. reduced material cost
D. all of the above
89. The resistance of a certain load
is constant. The current through the
load is doubled. By what factor will
the power dissipated in the load
increases?
A. 1.25 times
C. 4.00 times
B. 2.00 times
D. 5.25 times
90. Which of the following robot is
primarily used for machining
processes?
A. Jolly-80
C. DEA PRAGMA
B. Cincinnati T3
D. Adept one

91. If a wire conductor of 0.1

resistance is doubled in length, its
resistance becomes
A. 0.01 ohms
C. 0.05 ohms
B. 0.02 ohms
D. 0.2 ohms
92. In A class-A amplifier,
conduction extends over 360
degrees because Q-point is
A. located on load line
B. located near saturation point
C. centered on load line
D. located at or near cut-off- point
93. What is the output of a class-B
amplifier?
A. It Is distortion-free
B. It consists of positive half-cycle only
C. Is like the output of a full-wave rectifier
D. It comprises short-duration current pulses
94. The main use of a class-C
amplifier is
A. as an RF amplifier
B. as stereo amplifier
C. in communication sound equipment
D. as distortion generator
95. An amplifier is said to suffer
from distortion when its output is
A. low
B. noisy
C. different from its input
D. larger than its input
96. What is the most desirable
feature of transformer coupling ?
A. higher voltage gain
B. wide frequency range
C. ability to provide impedance matching
between stages
D. ability to eliminate hum from the output
97. In an ideal Op Amp, the input
impedance is
A. zero
C. 50
B. infinite
D. undefined
98. Which of the following is a
current controlled device?
A. FET
C. thyristor
B. BJT
D. vacuum tube

99. Who coined the term robot?

A. Isaac Asimov
C. Josef Capek
B. Karel Capek
D. Ojom Robot
100. The binary equivalent of the
fifth digit in the hexadecimal
number system
A. 0100
C. 0110
B. 0101
D. 0011

MALVINO
1. If N1/N2 = 2, and the primary voltage is 120 V,
what is
the secondary voltage?
a. 0 V
b. 36 V
c. 60 V
d. 240 V
2. A transformer has a turns ratio of 4: 1. What is the
peak
secondary voltage if 115 V rms is applied to the
primary
winding?
a. 40.7 V
b. 64.6 V
c. 163 V
d. 650 V
3. Line voltage may be from 105 V rms to 125 rms in
a halfwave
rectifier. With a 5:1 step-down transformer, the
maximum peak load voltage is closest to
a. 21 V
b. 25 V
c. 29.6 V
d. 35.4 V
4. If the line voltage is 115 V rms, a turns ratio of 5:
1 means
the rms secondary voltage is closest to
a. 15 V
b. 23 V
c. 30 V
d. 35 V
5. What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave
rectifier if the
secondary voltage is 20 V rms?
a. 0 V
b. 0.7 V
c. 14.1 V
d. 28.3 V

6. We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a

bridge
rectifier. What is the approximate rms value of
secondary
voltage?
a. 0 V
b. 14.4 V
c. 28.3 V
d. 56.6 V

12. If the ac voltage across the emitter diode is 1 mV

and
the ac emitter current is 0.1 mA, the ac resistance of
the
emitter diode is
a. 1 ohm
b. 10 ohm
c. 100 ohm
d. 1 kohm

7. What is the peak load voltage out of a bridge

rectifier for
a secondary voltage of 15 V rms? (Use second
approximation.)
a. 9.2 V
b. 15 V
c. 19.8 V
d. 24.3 V

13. If RC = 3.6 kohm and RL = 10 kohm, the ac load

resistance equals
a. 10 kohm
b. 2.65 kohm
c. I kohm
d. 3.6 kohm

8. If the load current is 5 mA and the filter

capacitance is
1000uF, what is the peak-to-peak ripple out of a
bridge
rectifier?
a. 21.3 pV
b. 56.3 nV
c. 21.3 mV
d. 41.7 mV
9. What is the PIV across each diode of a bridge
rectifier
with a secondary voltage of 20 V rms?
a. 14.1 V
b. 20 V
c. 28.3 V
d. 34 V
10. The collector current is 10 mA. If the current gain
is 100,
the base current is
a. 1 microamp
b. 10 microamp
c. 100 microamp
d. 1 mA
11. The base current is 50 microamp. If the current
gain is
125, the collector current is closest in value to
a. 40 microamp
b. 500 microamp
c. 1 mA
d. 6 mA

14. If Beta = 200 and re = 150 ohm, the input

impedance of
the base is approximately
a. 30 kohm
b. 600 n
c. 3 kohm
d. 5 kohm
15. If an emitter follower has VCEQ = 5 V, ICQ = 1
mA,
and re = 1 kohm, the maximum peak-to-peak
unclipped
output is
a. 1 V
b. 2 V
c. 5 V
d. 10 V
16. If an emitter follower has re' = 10 ohm and re =
90 ohm,
the voltage gain is approximately
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 0.9
d. 1
17. A Darlington transistor has a Beta of 8000. If RE
=1
kohm and RL = 100 ohm, the input impedance of the
base is
closest to
a. 8 kohm
b. 80 kohm
c. 800 kohm
d. 8 Mohm

18. If a JFET has IDSS = 10 mA and VP = 2 V, then

RDS
equals
a. 200 ohm
b. 400 ohm
c. 1 kohm
d. 5 kohm

25. Two stages have voltage gains of 100 and 200.

The total
decibel voltage gain is
a. 46 dB
b. 66 dB
c. 86 dB
d. 106 dB

19. If the power gain doubles, the decibel power gain

increases by
a. A factor of 2
b. 3 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 10 dB

26. One frequency is 8 times another frequency. How

many
octaves apart are the two frequencies?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

20. If the voltage gain doubles, the decibel voltage

gain
increases by
a. A factor of 2
b. 3 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 10 dB
21. If the voltage gain is 10, the decibel voltage gain
is
a. 6 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 40 dB
d. 60 dB
22. If the voltage gain is 100, the decibel voltage gain
is
a. 6 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 40 dB
d. 60 dB
23. If the voltage gain is 2000, the decibel voltage
gain is
a. 40 dB
b. 46 dB
c. 66 dB
d. 86 dB
24. Two stages have decibel voltage gains of 20 and
40 dB.
The total ordinary voltage gain is
a.1
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1000

27. If f = 1 MHz, and f2 = 10 Hz, the ratio f/f2

represents
how many decades?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
28. The voltage gain of an amplifier decreases 20 dB
per
decade above 20 kHz. If the midband voltage gain is
86 dB,
what is the ordinary voltage gain at 20 MHz?
a. 20
b. 200
c. 2000
d. 20,000
29. If the cutoff frequency is 15 Hz and the midband
openloop
voltage gain is 1,000,000, the unity-gain frequency is
a. 25 Hz
b. 1 MHz
c. 1.5 MHz
d. 15 MHz
30. If the unity-gain frequency is 5 MHz and the
midband
open-loop voltage gain is 200,000, the cutoff
frequency is
a. 25 Hz
b. 1 MHz
c. 1.5 MHz
d. 15 MHz

31. If funity is 10 MHz and midband open-loop

voltage gain
is 1,000,000, then the open-loop cutoff frequency of
the op
amp is
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 50 Hz
d. 100 Hz
32. An op amp has a voltage gain of 500,000. If the
output
voltage is 1 V, the input voltage is
a. 2 microvolts
b. 5 mV
c. 10 mV
d. 1 V
33. 1 ppm is equivalent to
a. 0.1%
b. 0.01%
c. 0.001%
d. 0.0001%
34. If AOL = 200,000, the closed-loop knee voltage
of a
silicon diode is
a. 1 uV
b. 3.5 uV
c. 7 uV
d. 14 uV
35. The input to a peak detector is a triangular wave
with a
peak-to-peak value of 8 V and an average value of 0.
The
output is
a. 0
b. 4 V
c. 8 V
d. 16 V
36. The input voltage to a positive limiter is a
triangular
wave of 8 V pp and an average value of 0. If the
reference
level is 2 V, the output is
a. 0
b. 2 Vpp
c. 6 Vpp
d. 8 Vpp

37. The discharging time constant of a peak detector

is 10
ms. The lowest frequency you should use is
a.10 Hz
b.100 Hz
c. 1 kHz
d. 10 kHz
38. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 15
to 14.7
V between the minimum and maximum load current,
the
load regulation is
a. 0
b. 1%
c. 2%
d. 5%
39. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 20
to 19.8
V when the line voltage varies over its specified
range, the
source regulation is
a. 0
b. 1%
c. 2%
d. 5%
40. A voltage regulator has a ripple rejection of -60
dB. If
the input ripple is 1 V, the output ripple is
a. -60 mV
b. 1 mV
c. 10 mV
d. 1000 V